Micro - Bacteriology Part 1 Flashcards
1
Q
A patient presents to your clinic with this painless lesion on his penis. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A
Syphilis
2
Q
What type of organisms stain purple/blue with Gram staining?
A
Gram-positive organisms
3
Q
Gram-positive organisms are commonly classified into which two shapes?
A
Cocci or rods (bacilli)
4
Q
Name four gram-positive rods.
A
Clostridium, Listeria, Bacillus, and Corynebacterium
5
Q
Name one gram-positive anaerobic rod.
A
Clostridium
6
Q
Staphylococcus and Streptococcus are differentiated by which enzyme?
A
Catalase; Staphylococcus is catalase positive, and Streptococcus is catalase negative
7
Q
Which gram-positive cocci are found in clusters?
A
Staphylococcus
8
Q
Which gram-positive cocci are found in chains?
A
Streptococcus
9
Q
What differentiates Staphylococcus aureus from and other staph species?
A
Other staph species are coagulase negative
10
Q
Name two coagulase-negative Staphylococcus species.
A
Staphylococcus saprophyticus and Staphylococcus epidermidis
11
Q
Which Staphylococcus species is novobiocin sensitive?
A
Staphylococcus epidermidis
12
Q
Which Staphylococcus species is novobiocin resistant?
A
Staphylococcus saprophyticus
13
Q
If agar shows clear hemolysis, which Streptococcus species could be present?
A
Streptococcus pyogenes or Streptococcus agalactiae
14
Q
What type of hemolysis do both group A and group B streptococci have in common?
A
β-Hemolysis
15
Q
Streptococcus pyogenes is a type of group _____ Streptococcus, whereas Streptococcus agalactiae is a type of group _____ Streptococcus.
A
A, B
16
Q
How are β-hemolytic streptococci differentiated from each other?
A
By their bacitracin sensitivity (Streptococcus pyogenes is sensitive, Streptococcus agalactiae is resistant)
17
Q
Name two streptococci that are α-hemolytic.
A
Enterococcus and Peptostreptococcus(anaerobic)
18
Q
True or False : Enterococcus faecalis is a α-hemolytic, gram-positive, catalase-negative cocci.
A
True
19
Q
Which β-hemolytic streptococcal species is bacitracin resistant?
A
Group B Streptococcus (Streptococcus agalactiae)
20
Q
Which β-hemolytic streptococcal species is bacitracin sensitive?
A
Group A Streptococcus (Streptococcus pyogenes)
21
Q
Staphylococcus saprophyticus is novobiocin _____ (resistant, sensitive); staphylococcus epidermidis is novobiocin _____ (resistant, sensitive).
A
Resistant; sensitive (remember: On the staph retreat there was NO StRES; Novobiocin: Saprophyticus Resistant, Epidermidis Sensitive)
22
Q
Group A streptococci are bacitracin _____ (resistant, sensitive); group B streptococci are bacitracin _____ (resistant, sensitive).
A
Sensitive; resistant (remember: Bacitracin: group B are Resistant, whereas group Aare Sensitive (B-BRAS)
23
Q
Streptococcus viridans is optochin _____ (resistant, sensitive); streptococcus pneumoniae is optochin _____ (resistant, sensitive).
A
Resistant; sensitive (remember, Optochin: Viridans Resistant and Pneumonia Sensitive; OVRPS- overpass)
24
Q
What bacterial enzyme degrades hydrogen peroxide?
A
Catalase
25
What antimicrobial product produced by polymorphonuclear lymphocytes is a substrate for myeloperoxidase?
Hydrogen peroxide
26
Which gram-positive cocci are catalase positive?
Staphylococci
27
What differentiates Staphylococcus aureus from Staphylococcus epidermidis and Staphylococcus saprophyticus?
Coagulase (Staphylococcus aureus is coagulase positive)
28
Why do people with chronic granulomatous disease (nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide phosphate oxidase deficiency) get recurrent infections by catalase-producing organisms?
Bacterial catalase easily degrades the little hydrogen peroxide produced, compromising the ability of neutrophils to kill bacteria
29
What is the function of Protein A, a Staphylococcus aureus virulence factor?
Binding to fragment crystallizable region-immunoglobulin G, to inhibit complement fixation and phagocytosis
30
Name five types of infections caused by Staphylococcus aureus.
Skin infections, organ abscesses, pneumonia, acute bacterial endocarditis, and osteomyelitis
31
Staphylococcus aureus can cause which toxin-mediated conditions?
Toxic shock syndrome (toxic shock syndrome toxin 1), scalded skin syndrome (exfoliative toxin), and rapid-onset food poisoning (enterotoxins)
32
Which organism produces toxic shock syndrome toxin 1?
Staphylococcus aureus
33
What is the pathophysiology of toxic shock syndrome?
Toxic shock syndrome toxin 1 acts as a superantigen and causes widespread release of cytokines from T cells
34
Staphylococcus aureus can cause rapid-onset food poisoning as a result of what product?
Preformed enterotoxins
35
Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus is resistant to methicillin because of its altered structure of what protein?
Penicillin-binding protein
36
What bacterium found in normal skin flora commonly contaminates blood cultures and infects prosthetic devices and catheters?
Staphylococcus epidermis
37
How does Staphylococcus epidermis infect prosthetic devices and intravenous catheters?
By producing adherent biofilms
38
What four common infections does Staphylococcus pneumoniaecause?
Meningitis, Otitis media, Pneumonia, and Sinusitis (remember: MOPS are Most OPtochin Sensitive)
39
What is distinct about the pneumonia caused by pneumococcus?
"Rust"-colored sputum
40
Streptococcus pneumoniae sepsis occurs at a higher rate in what two patient populations?
Sickle cell anemia and asplenic patients
41
Name two ways Streptococcus pneumoniaeevades the immune system.
Immunoglobulin A protease, encapsulation
42
What three pyogenic infections does Streptococcus pyogenes cause?
Pharyngitis, cellulitis, and impetigo
43
What two toxigenic diseases does Streptococcus pyogenes cause?
Scarlet fever and toxic shock syndrome
44
What two immunologic conditions does Streptococcus pyogenes cause?
Rheumatic fever and glomerulonephritis (remember: PHaryngitis gives you
rheumatic "PHever" and glomerulonePHitis)
45
Streptococcus pyogenes is associated with what three major classes of disease?
Infectious, immunogenic, and toxigenic
46
Human antibodies to Streptococcus M protein enhance host defenses but increase the risk for which complication of streptococcal infection?
Rheumatic heart disease
47
What blood test would detect a recent Streptococcus pyogenesinfection?
An antistreptolysin O titer
48
Rheumatic fever is associated with what five symptoms?
Subcutaneous nodules, Polyarthritis, Erythema marginatum, Chorea, and Carditis (remember, there is no "RHEUM" for SPECCulation)
49
Streptococcus agalactiae are bacitracin _____ (sensitive/resistant) and _____(//) -
hemolytic.
Resistant
50
In what population does group B Streptococcus(Streptococcus agalactiae) cause
pneumonia, meningitis, and sepsis?
Babies (remember: B for Babies)
51
What two infections do enterococci cause?
Urinary tract infection and subacute bacterial endocarditis
52
How can group D enterococci be differentiated from nonenterococcal group D
streptococci by lab testing?
Enterococci can grow in 6.5% sodium chloride, other group D streptococci cannot
53
Lancefield grouping is based on differences in what components of the bacteria?
C carbohydrate on the bacterial cell wall
54
True or False? Penicillin G is effective treatment against enterococci.
False; enterococci are resistant to penicillin G
55
Enterococci resistant to which antibiotic are an important source of nosocomial infection?
Vancomycin
56
What two infections does Streptococcus bovis cause in colon cancer patients?
Bacteremia and subacute endocarditis
57
A young patient presents with pseudomembranous pharyngitis; what medium could be used to culture the most likely etiologic agent?
Corynebacterium diphtheriaegrows on tellurite agar (coryne = club shaped)
58
The symptoms of diphtheria are caused by what kind of toxin?
Exotoxin (encoded on the -prophage)
59
How does diphtheria toxin inhibit protein synthesis?
By the adenosine diphosphate ribosylation of elongation factor 2
60
What disease is caused by Corynebacterium diphtheriae?
Diphtheria; characterized by pseudomembranous pharyngitis (grayish-white
membrane) with lymphadenopathy
61
How is a laboratory diagnosis of diphtheria made based on microscopic
appearance?
The presence of gram-positive rods with metachromatic granules (blue and red in
color)
62
How can diphtheria be prevented?
Toxoid vaccine; usually administered in combination with tetanus vaccine
63
What type of bacteria form spores?
Gram-positive rods
64
What advantages do bacteria gain by taking the form of a spore?
They become highly resistant to destruction by heat and chemicals and require no
metabolic activity in nutrient-poor settings
65
Why is it important to autoclave surgical equipment?
To kill bacterial spores
66
What five soil-dwelling, gram-positive rods are spore formers?
Bacillus anthracis, Bacillus cereus, Clostridium perfringens, Clostridium
botulinum, and Clostridium tetani
67
Which bacteria are gram-positive, spore-forming, obligate anaerobic bacilli?
Clostridia species
68
Name four clostridia species that produce exotoxins.
Clostridium tetani, Clostridium botulism, Clostridium perfringens and Clostridium
difficile
69
What kind of toxin produced by Clostridium tetanicauses symptoms of tetanus?
An exotoxin called tetanospasmin
70
Describe the pathogenesis of the symptoms caused by Clostridium tetani?
Clostridium tetanitoxins block glycine (an inhibitory neurotransmitter) release
from Renshaw cells in the spinal cord, leading to spastic paralysis, lockjaw
(trismus), and risus sardonicus (remember: TETanus is TETanic paralysis)
71
Which gram-positive bacilli are responsible for the flaccid paralysis caused by
exposure to improperly canned foods?
Clostridium botulinum(remember: BOTulinum is from bad BOTtles of food)
72
What are the characteristics of the toxin produced by Clostridium botulinum?
Preformed, heat-labile toxin
73
What is the predominant symptom of botulism?
Flaccid paralysis
74
How does the toxin produced by Clostridium botulinum cause flaccid paralysis?
It inhibits acetylcholine release
75
How does the pathogenesis of botulism differ between adults and babies?
Adults consume preformed toxin whereas babies consume spores in honey (floppy
baby syndrome)
76
Which exotoxin-producing, gram-positive bacillus is responsible for gas gangrene?
Clostridium perfringens(remember: PERFringens PERForates a gangrenous leg)
77
What is the effect of the toxin produced by Clostridium perfringens?
Toxin (lecithinase) causes myonecrosis, gas gangrene, and hemolysis
78
Which gram-positive bacillus is responsible for pseudomembranous colitis?
Clostridium difficile(remember: DIfficile causes DIarrhea)
79
Pseudomembranous colitis often follows a course of which antibiotics?
Clindamycin or ampicillin
80
What kind of toxin is produced by Clostridium difficile?
A cytotoxin, which is an exotoxin that kills enterocytes and causes
pseudomembranous colitis
81
What is the treatment of choice for pseudomembranous colitis caused
by Clostridium difficile?
Metronidazole
82
What gram-positive, spore-forming rod that produces a toxin causes a respiratory
illness that is associated with black skin lesions and exposure to animal hides and
fur?
Bacillus anthracis
83
Bacillus anthracistoxin causes what kind of skin lesion?
Black skin lesions (painless eschars, necrosis) surrounded by edematous ring
84
The skin changes of cutaneous anthrax are caused by which two toxins?
Lethal factor and edema factor cause a black eschar with surrounding edema at the
site of inoculation
85
The inhalation of Bacillus anthracisspores leads to which symptoms?
Flu-like symptoms that rapidly progress to fever, mediastinitis, pulmonary
hemorrhage, and shock
86
What are the two modes of anthrax inoculation?
Cutaneous and pulmonary
87
What is Woolsorters disease?
Pulmonary infection of Bacillus anthracisdue to inhalation of spores from
contaminated wool
88
How is the capsule produced by Bacillus anthracisunique?
It is the only bacterium to have a polypeptide capsule (contains D-glutamate)
89
What diseases does Listeria monocytogenescause in pregnant women?
Amnionitis, septicemia, and spontaneous abortions
90
How does the disease caused by Listeria monocytogenesdiffer among adults,
neonates, and immunocompromised individuals?
In healthy individuals it causes a mild gastroenteritis but can cause meningitis in
neonates and immunocompromised patients
91
How is Listeria monocytogenesacquired?
By ingestion of unpasteurized milk, cheese, or deli meats or by vaginal
transmission during birth
92
How does Listeria monocytogenesmove from cell to cell?
Listeria is an intracellular organism that induces "actin rockets" to move into new
cells
93
Listeria monocytogeneshas what identifying characteristic on microscopy?
Tumbling motility
94
What distinguishes Listeria monocytogenesfrom all other gram-positive bacteria?
It is the only gram-positive bacterium to have an endotoxin
95
Which two bacteria are gram-positive rods that form long-branching filaments that resemble fungi?
Actinomyces israelii and Nocardia asteroides
96
Which is an anaerobe: Actinomyces israelii or Nocardia asteroides?
Actinomyces israelii
97
Which is a weakly acid-fast aerobe in soil: Actinomyces israelii or Nocardia asteroides?
Nocardia asteroides
98
Describe the lesions caused by Actinomyces israelii.
Oral/facial abscesses that may drain through sinus tracts
99
True or False? Actinomyces are part of the normal oral flora.
True
100
What type of disease does Nocardia asteroides cause in immunocompromised
individuals?
Pulmonary infection
101
How are infections with Actinomyces israelii and Nocardia asteroidestreated?
SNAP: Sulfa for Nocardia; for Actinomyces, use Penicillin
102
What is a characteristic finding in the draining sinuses caused by Actinomyces
israelii infection?
Yellow "sulfur granules"
103
What two mycobacteria species are often resistant to multiple drugs?
Mycobacterium tuberculosis and Mycobacterium avium-intracellulare
104
What symptoms are caused by Mycobacterium kansasii?
Pulmonary tuberculosis-like symptoms
105
Infection with Mycobacterium avium-intracellulare is symptomatic in which
patient group?
Patients with AIDS
106
What are the symptoms of tuberculosis?
Fever, night sweats, weight loss, and hemoptysis
107
Describe the leonine facies of leprosy caused by Mycobacterium leprae.
Loss of eyebrows, nasal collapse, and lumpy earlobe
108
What is another name for leprosy?
Hansens disease
109
The organism that causes leprosy has what animal reservoir in the United States?
Armadillos
110
Because Mycobacterium leprae likes cool temperatures, it tends to infect what
areas of the body?
The skin and the superficial nerves
111
What is the treatment of choice for leprosy?
Long-term oral dapsone
112
What toxicity is associated with long-term oral dapsone treatment?
Hemolysis and methemoglobinemia
113
What are two alternative treatment options for leprosy?
Rifampin and the combination of clofazimine and dapsone
114
What are the two forms of Hansens disease?
Lepromatous and tuberculoid
115
Which of the two forms of leprosy indicates failed cell-mediated immunity and has a worse prognosis?
Lepromatous = Lethal
116
Which of the two forms of leprosy is self-limited?
Tuberculoid
117
True or False? Mycobacterium leprae can be grown in vitro.
False
118
How can the skin lesions of lepromatous and tuberculoid leprosy be differentiated?
Lepromatous skin lesions present diffusely over the skin and are communicable
(failed cell-mediated immunity) whereas tuberculoid skin lesions are limited to a
few hypoesthetic nodules
119
Gram-negative organisms can be classified into what three shapes?
Cocci, coccoid rods, and rods
120
Name four organisms that are gram-negative, coccoid rods.
Haemophilus influenzae, Bordetella pertussis, Pasteurella, and Brucella
121
What is a common source of Pasteurellainfections?
Animal bites
122
Name two gram-negative cocci.
Neisseria meningitidis and Neisseria gonorrhoeae
123
How are the two gram-negative cocci differentiated from each other?
By maltose fermentation (Neisseria meningitidis is a maltose fermenter; Neisseria
gonorrhoeae is not)
124
Gram-negative rods are differentiated by the fermentation of what substance?
Lactose
125
Name three fast lactose-fermenting, gram-negative rods.
Klebsiella, Escherichia coli,and Enterobacter
126
Name two slow lactose-fermenting, gram-negative rods.
Citrobacter and Serratia
127
Among nonlactose fermenters, the presence of what substance can be used to
differentiate Pseudomonas from Shigella, Salmonella, and Proteus?
Oxidase (Pseudomonas is oxidase positive, Shigella, Salmonella, and Proteus are
oxidase negative)
128
What type of bacteria grows pink colonies on MacConkeys agar?
Lactose-fermenting enteric bacteria
129
Name five bacteria that grow pink colonies on MacConkeys agar.
Citrobacter, Klebsiella, Escherichia coli, Enterobacter, and Serratia(remember:
test with MacConKEES)
130
True or False? Gram-negative organisms are resistant to penicillin and all of its
derivatives.
False; some gram-negative organisms are susceptible to penicillin derivatives such
as ampicillin
131
What part of gram-negative organisms inhibits the entry of penicillin G and
vancomycin?
The outer membrane
132
```
Neisseria meningitides_____ (does/does not) have a polysaccharide
capsule; Neisseria gonorrhea _____ (does/does not) have a polysaccharide
capsule.
```
Does; does not
133
```
Neisseria meningitides_____ (does/does not) have a vaccine; Neisseria
gonorrhea _____ (does/does not) have a vaccine.
```
Does; does not
134
```
Neisseria meningitides_____ (does/does not) ferment lactose; Neisseria
gonorrhea_____ (does/does not) ferment lactose.
```
Does; does not
135
What five types of infection can Neisseria gonorrheacause?
Gonorrhea, pelvic inflammatory disease, septic arthritis, Fitz-Hugh-Curtis
syndrome, and neonatal conjunctivitis
136
What three clinical syndromes can Neisseria meningitidescause?
Septicemia, meningitis, and Waterhouse-Friderichsen syndrome
137
How is Neisseria gonorrhoeae transmitted?
Sexually transmitted
138
How is Neisseria meningitidis transmitted?
Respiratory and oral secretions
139
Why can a vaccine to Neisseria gonorrhea not be created?
Rapid antigenic variation
140
Name four diseases that can be caused by Haemophilus influenzae.
Epiglottitis, Meningitis, Otitis media. and Pneumonia (remember: HaEMOPhilus)
141
What is the method of transmission of Haemophilus influenzae?
Aerosol
142
Which type of Haemophilus influenzae causes the most invasive disease?
Capsular type B
143
Escherichia coli, Salmonella, Shigella, Klebsiella, Enterobacter, Serratia,
and Proteus belong to which bacterial family?
Enterobacteriaceae
144
All species in the enterobacteriaceae have what type of antigen?
Somatic (O) antigen, which is the endotoxin polysaccharide
145
All enterobacteriaceae species ferment _____ and are oxidase _____.
Glucose; negative
146
What is the somatic (O) antigen?
The polysaccharide of endotoxin
147
What does the capsular (K) antigen tell you about the enterobacteriaceae species?
Certain K antigens are correlated with more virulent species
148
Motile enterobacteriaceae species have what type of antigen?
Flagellar (H) antigen
149
Aside from diarrhea/dysentery, what diseases does Escherichia coli commonly
cause?
Cystitis, pyelonephritis, pneumonia, neonatal meningitis, and septic shock
150
What three types of Escherichia coli do not invade the intestinal mucosa?
Enterohemorrhagic, enterotoxigenic, enteropathogenic; only
| enteroinvasive Escherichia coliinvades the mucosa
151
Which Escherichia colispecies produces shiga-like toxin?
Enteroinvasive and enterohemorrhagic Escherichia coli
152
What differentiates the disease caused by enteroinvasive Escherichia coliand
enterohemorrhagic Escherichia coli?
Both cause dysentery, but with enteroinvasive, both the toxin and the microbe
cause necrosis and inflammation; with enterohemorrhagic, only the toxin does
153
Which toxins mediate the diarrhea caused by enterotoxigenic Escherichia coli?
Labile toxin/stable toxin
154
What disease is caused by enterotoxigenic Escherichia coli?
Travelers diarrhea
155
How does enteropathogenic Escherichia colicause diarrhea?
It adheres to the apical surface, flattens villi, decreasing absorption (this is NOT
toxin mediated)
156
What population tends to get diarrhea following enteropathogenic Escherichia coli
infection?
Children
157
What potentially fatal systemic complication can be caused by
enterohemorrhagic Escherichia coli infection?
Hemolytic uremic syndrome
158
A seven-year-old child has a burger at a barbeque and subsequently develops
diarrhea. He then ceases urinating, becomes lethargic, and is found to have low red
blood cell and platelet counts. What is your diagnosis?
Hemolytic uremic syndrome secondary to infection with
| enterohemorrhagic Escherichia coli
159
What is the pathophysiology of hemolytic uremic syndrome?
```
Endothelial swelling and narrowing leads to mechanical hemolysis (anemia) and
reduced renal blood flow (acute renal failure), with damaged endothelium
consuming platelets (thrombocytopenia)
```
160
What bacteria classically causes "red currant jelly" sputum in a patient with
pneumonia?
Klebsiella
161
An alcoholic man is admitted to the hospital with fever, dyspnea and is coughing
up gelatinous red sputum. Chest x-ray is consistent with an abscess. What infection
do you suspect?
Klebsiella (remember the "4 As": Abscess, Alcoholic, Aspiration, and diAbetics)
162
Klebsiella is a cause of what other nosocomial infection in addition to pneumonia?
Urinary tract infection
163
What do Salmonella and Shigella have in common?
They are both nonlactose-fermenting bacteria that invade the intestinal mucosa
causing bloody diarrhea
164
Which of the following is motile and can disseminate
| hematogenously: Salmonella or Shigella?
Salmonella
165
How does Shigella propel itself within the cell?
By actin polymerization
166
Which antibiotics should be used to treat salmonellosis?
Salmonellosis should not be treated with antibiotics; doing so can prolong
symptoms
167
Which leukocyte response is seen in salmonellosis?
Monocyte response
168
Which is more virulent: Salmonella or Shigella?
Shigella (10^1 Shigella organisms vs 10^5 Salmonella organisms)
169
Which has an animal reservoir: Salmonella or Shigella?
Salmonella(except Salmonella typhi, which is only found in humans); Salmonella is often acquired from reptiles and poultry
170
What are the modes of transmission of Shigella?
The "4 Fs": Food, Fingers, Feces, and Flies
171
A woman presents to the clinic with fever, diarrhea, headache, and rose spots on her abdomen. What is the likely diagnosis?
The woman has typhoid fever caused by Salmonella typhi
172
Chronic carriers of Salmonellaharbor the bacteria where in their bodies?
The gallbladder
173
What mode of propulsion do Salmonella use to disseminate?
Flagella
174
What are the usual modes of transmission of Yersinia enterocolitica?
Pet feces (eg, puppies) and contaminated milk or pork
175
Yersinia enterocoliticaoutbreaks are common in what setting?
Day-care centers
176
Yersinia enterocolitica infections can mimic what other diseases, particularly in
teenagers?
Crohns disease or appendicitis
177
Heliobacter pylori causes what two pathologies in the gastrointestinal tract?
Duodenal ulcers and gastritis
178
Heliobacter pylori is a urease _____ (positive/negative), gram _____
(positive/negative) _____ (rod/cocci).
Urease-positive, gram-negative rod
179
What enzyme in Helicobacter pylori helps to create an alkaline environment?
Urease
180
Heliobacter pyloriis a risk factor for what two cancers?
Gastric adenocarcinoma and lymphoma
181
A patient with a chronic ulcer is found to have a positive urease breath test. How
would you treat the patient?
Triple therapy: (1) Bismuth, metronidazole, and either tetracycline or amoxicillin;
or (2) (more costly) metronidazole, omeprazole, and clarithromycin
182
What are the three spirochete species that most commonly affect humans?
Borrelia (Big size), Leptospira, and Treponema (remember: BLT)
183
What is the only spirochete that can be visualized by light microscopy with aniline
dyes (ie, Wrights or Giemsa staining)?
Borrelia (remember: Big size)
184
Which spirochete species is visualized by dark-field microscopy?
Treponema, which causes syphilis
185
A farmer in the tropics with contaminated water sources presents with fever,
headache, abdominal pain, photophobia, and conjunctivitis. What infection do you
suspect?
Leptospira
186
Leptospirosis is most prevalent in which geographical locations?
The tropics
187
What is Weils disease?
Severe leptospirosis, which presents with severe jaundice, azotemia, fever,
hemorrhage, and anemia
188
What is another name for Weils disease?
Icterohemorrhagic leptospirosis
189
Where is Leptospira interroganscommonly found in the environment?
In water contaminated with animal urine
190
What is the cause of azotemia and jaundice in patients with Weils disease?
Renal and liver failure
191
The organism that causes Lyme disease is transmitted by what vector?
The Ixodes tick
192
What bacteria causes Lyme disease?
Borrelia burgdorferi
193
The classic symptom of Lyme disease, erythema chronicum migrans, has what
appearance?
An expanding "bulls eye" red rash with central clearing
194
What organs are affected in patients with Lyme disease?
The skin, the joints, the central nervous system, and the heart
195
Which mammals are required for the life cycle of the Ixodes tick?
Deer and mice
196
What are the treatments of choice for Lyme disease?
Doxycycline and ceftriaxone
197
In what region of the United States is Lyme disease common?
The northeastern United States
198
What are the three stages of Lyme disease and their associated
symptoms?
Stage 1: erythema chronicum migrans and flu-like symptoms;
stage 2:
neurologic and cardiac manifestations;
stage 3: autoimmune migratory
polyarthritis
