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Micro - Bacteriology Part 2 Flashcards

1
Q

All mycobacteria have what staining property seen in this image?

A

They are all acid-fast

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2
Q

What bacteria causes syphilis?

A

Treponema pallidum

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3
Q

Treponema pertenue causes what condition?

A

Yaws

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4
Q

What tropical infection is not a sexually transmitted disease but results in a positive
venereal disease research laboratory test?

A

Yaws

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5
Q

What are the symptoms commonly associated with yaws?

A

Joint deformities following keloid healing of skin, bone and joint infection

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6
Q

First-degree syphilis presents with what type of lesion?

A

A painless chancre at the site of infection (localized disease)

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7
Q

Is second-degree syphilis a localized or disseminated disease?

A

Disseminated (remember: Secondary syphilis = Systemic)

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8
Q

Second-degree syphilis presents with what type of skin manifestations?

A

A maculopapular rash on palms and soles and condylomata lata

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9
Q

Third-degree syphilis presents with what signs and symptoms?

A

Gummas, aortitis, tabes dorsalis, and Argyll Robertson pupil

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10
Q

Which stage of syphilis is characterized by broad-based ataxia, a positive Romberg sign, Charcot joints, and stroke-like symptoms?

A

Third-degree syphilis

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11
Q

Third-degree syphilis can present with what neurologic defects?

A 
Tabes dorsalis (resulting in broad-based gait, ataxia, and positive Romberg test) 
and Argyll Robertson pupil
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12
Q

What signs and symptoms are associated with congenital syphilis?

A

Saber shins, saddle-nose deformity, neurological (cranial nerve VIII) deafness,
Hutchinsons teeth, and mulberry molars

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13
Q

What is the treatment of choice for syphilis?

A

Penicillin G

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14
Q

Where can treponemes be found during primary and secondary syphilis?

A

In chancres during primary syphilis and in condylomata lata during secondary
syphilis

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15
Q

What causes aortitis in tertiary syphilis?

A

Destruction of the vasa vasorum

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16
Q

Argyll Robertson pupil is associated with what disease?

A

Tertiary syphilis

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17
Q

Describe the findings in a patient with an Argyll Robertson pupil.

A

Pupil dilation with accommodation but not with direct light

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18
Q

Which diagnostic test is most specific for treponemes, turns positive earliest during
the course of disease, and remains positive for the longest time?

A

Fluorescent treponemal antibody absorption test (remember: FTA-
ABS = Find The Antibody-ABSolutely)

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19
Q

A positive venereal disease research laboratory test and a positive fluorescent
treponemal antibody absorption test indicate what?

A

Active infection with a treponeme that causes syphilis

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20
Q

If a venereal disease research laboratory test is positive but the fluorescent
treponemal antibody absorption test is negative, what is the interpretation?

A

False-positive result for syphilis infection

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21
Q

What do negative venereal disease research laboratory test and positive fluorescent
treponemal antibody absorption test results indicate?

A

Successful treatment of syphilis

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22
Q

Which conditions give biologic false-positive results for the venereal disease
research laboratory test?

A

Viral infection, drugs, rheumatic fever, rheumatoid arthritis, systemic lupus
erythematosus, and leprosy. (remember: VDRL= Viruses, Drugs, Rheumatic fever
and arthritis, Lupus and leprosy)

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23
Q

A positive venereal disease research laboratory indicates that antibodies have
formed against what molecule?

A

Beef cardiolipin

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24
Q

Name six medically important zoonotic bacteria.

A

Bartonella henselae, Borrelia burgdorferi, Brucella spp, Francisella
tularensis, Yersinia pestis, and Pasteurella
multocida, Ella(remember: Big Bad Bugs From Your Pet named Ella)

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25
What organism transmitted by dairy products and contact with animals causes undulant fever?
Brucella spp (remember: Unpasteurized dairy products give you Undulant fever)
26
A dairy farmer presents with one week of fever that waxes and wanes without treatment. What is the diagnosis?
Brucella spp, which are found in dairy products or transmitted via contact with cows, sheep, and goats
27
How is Francisella tularensis transmitted?
Tick bites
28
What organism causes tularemia?
Francisella tularensis
29
Name two animal reservoirs for ticks that transmit Francisella tularensis.
Rabbits and deer
30
Which organism causes the plague?
Yersinia pestis
31
What is the mode of transmission of the bubonic plague?
Flea bites
32
What is the animal reservoir for ticks transmitting Yersinia pestis?
Rodents (especially prairie dogs)
33
How is Pasteurella multocida transmitted?
Animal bite (cats, dogs)
34
What infection is caused by Pasteurella multocida?
Cellulitis after cat and dog bites
35
What is the disease caused by Bartonella?
Cat scratch fever
36
What dermatologic finding can Bartonella cause in immunocompromised individuals?
Bacillary angiomatosis (can be mistaken for Kaposi sarcoma)
37
What is the most common mode of transmission for the bacteria Bartonella henselae?
Cat scratch
38
Cat scratch | What kind of discharge is produced in vaginosis caused by Gardnerella vaginalis?
Off-white/gray vaginal discharge, fishy odor
39
What is the treatment of choice for vaginosis caused by Gardnerella vaginalis?
Metronidazole
40
What kind of cells (seen on a wet mount of vaginal discharge) are diagnostic of infection with Gardnerella vaginalis?
Clue cells (vaginal epithelial cells covered with bacteria)
41
What are clue cells?
Vaginal epithelial cells covered with bacteria to the point where intracellular organelles are obscured
42
Is Gardnerella vaginalisconsidered a sexually transmitted disease?
No, it is not a sexually transmitted disease, although it is more common in sexually active women
43
What anaerobic bacteria other than Gardnerella vaginalis is frequently involved in vaginosis?
Mobiluncus
44
A women presents with fishy gray vaginal discharge. What is the likely diagnosis and what will you prescribe?
Bacterial vaginosis caused by Gardnerella; treatment with metronidizole
45
True or False? Rickettsiae are facultative intracellular parasites.
False; Rickettsiae are obligate intracellular parasites
46
Rickettsiae are obligate intracellular parasites because they require which two cofactors?
Coenzyme A and nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide
47
Rickettsiae are obligate intracellular parasites that are transmitted by what type of vector?
Arthropods (except Coxiella, which is transmitted by aerosol)
48
Why is Coxiellaconsidered an atypical rickettsia?
Because it causes pneumonia, instead of the classic triad of fever, headache, and rash, and it is the only one not carried by an arthropod vector
49
What is the classic triad of symptoms caused by a rickettsial infection?
Fever, headache, and rash (vasculitis)
50
What disease does Rickettsia rickettsii cause?
Rocky Mountain spotted fever
51
The pathogen that causes Rocky Mountain spotted fever is carried by what vector?
Ticks
52
Endemic typhus is caused by what bacterium?
Rickettsia typhi
53
The pathogen that causes endemic typhus is carried by what vector?
Fleas
54
Epidemic typhus is caused by what bacterium?
Rickettsia prowazekii
55
The pathogen that causes epidemic typhus is carried by what vector?
Human body lice
56
Q fever is caused by what bacterium?
Coxiella burnetii
57
The pathogen that causes Q fever is carried by what vector?
Coxiella burnetii is an atypical Rickettsia in that it has no vector and is transmitted via aerosol
58
What is the treatment of choice for all Rickettsial infections?
Tetracycline
59
How could one distinguish between the rash of Rocky Mountain spotted fever and that of typhus?
Rocky Mountain spotted fever starts in the periphery and moves inward whereas typhus starts in the trunk and moves outward (remember: Rickettsia on the wRists, Typhus on the Trunk)
60
Which rickettsial disease does not present with a rash?
Q fever is the only rickettsial infection that does not cause a rash
61
Does Q fever have a positive or negative Weil-Felix reaction assay?
Negative; a Weil-Felix assay is usually positive for typhus and Rocky Mountain spotted fever but negative for Q fever
62
True or False? Coxiella burnetiican survive outside of the body for a long time.
True; Coxiella burnetii is the only rickettsial pathogen that can survive outside the body for long periods of time
63
Ehrlichia is carried by what type of vector?
Tick
64
A child who was recently camping in Virginia presents with a rash moving up the arms and legs, headache, fever, and a very ill appearance. What is your diagnosis and how will you treat?
Rocky Mountain spotted fever; treatment with tetracycline
65
Rocky Mountain spotted fever is endemic to what area?
The East Coast; despite its name it is not seen in the Rocky Mountains
66
What three diseases start with a rash on the palms and soles?
``` Coxsackievirus A(hand-foot-and-mouth disease), Rocky Mountain spotted fever, and Syphilis (remember: you drive CARS with your palms and soles) ```
67
The Weil-Felix reaction is used to test for what pathogens?
Rickettsiae (this reaction is an assay for antibodies)
68
In a Weil-Felix reaction, antirickettsial antibodies in patient serum cross-react and agglutinate when mixed with antigens from what pathogen?
Proteus
69
Which rickettsial infection will have a negative Weil-Felix reaction?
Coxiella burnetii(which causes Q fever)
70
What are the two forms of Chlamydiae?
The elementary body and the reticulate body
71
During their life cycle, what form of chlamydia is infectious (ie, enters host cells)?
The Elementary body (small, dense) Enters the body via Endocytosis
72
During their life cycle, what form of chlamydia replicates by fission?
The Reticulate (initial) body Replicates in the cell by fission
73
What diseases are caused by Chlamydia trachomatis?
Reactive arthritis, conjunctivitis, nongonococcal urethritis, cervicitis, and pelvic inflammatory disease
74
Which two chlamydial species cause atypical pneumonia and how are they transmitted?
Chlamydia pneumoniae and Chlamydia psittaci; both are transmitted by aerosol
75
Chlamydia psittaci has what animal reservoir?
Birds
76
What are the treatments of choice for chlamydial infections?
Erythromycin or tetracycline
77
How can chlamydial infection be diagnosed by microscopy?
By cytoplasmic inclusions seen on Giemsa or fluorescent antibody staining
78
The chlamydial cell wall is unique in that is lacks _____ _____.
Muramic acid
79
Why are Chlamydia intracellular organisms?
Because they cannot make their own adenosine triphosphate
80
Which Chlamydia trachomatis serotypes cause chronic infection and blindness in Africa?
Types A, B, and C(remember: Africa, Blindness, Chronic infection)
81
Which Chlamydia trachomatisserotypes cause urethritis, pelvic inflammatory disease, ectopic pregnancy, neonatal pneumonia, and neonatal conjunctivitis?
Types D through K
82
Which Chlamydia trachomatisserotypes cause lymphogranuloma venereum?
Types L1, L2, and L3 (remember: Lymphogranuloma)
83
What is the treatment of choice for neonatal disease caused by Chlamydia trachomatis?
Oral erythromycin
84
What test is positive in lymphogranuloma venereum?
Frei test
85
When is neonatal Chlamydiaacquired?
As the infant passes through an infected birth canal
86
What are the symptoms of lymphogranuloma venereum?
Acute lymphadenitis
87
What other infection has similar symptoms to lymphogranuloma venereum?
Granuloma inguinale (donovanosis) caused by Calymmatobacterium granulomatis
88
What bacteria is most commonly implicated in "walking pneumonia"?
Mycoplasma pneumoniae
89
What are the classic symptoms of the pneumonia that is caused by Mycoplasma pneumoniae?
Insidious onset, headache, nonproductive cough, and diffuse interstitial infiltrates seen on chest x-ray
90
What is a classic characteristic of chest x-ray findings in pneumonia caused by Mycoplasma?
The x-ray shows bilateral interstitial infiltrates, making the patient appear much sicker than he/she is
91
Mycoplasma pneumoniaeinfection is associated with a high titre of what antibodies?
Cold agglutinins (immunoglobulin M)
92
Mycoplasma pneumoniae can be grown on what medium?
Eatons agar
93
What is the best treatment for Mycoplasma pneumoniaeinfection?
Tetracycline or erythromycin
94
Why is Mycoplasma pneumoniae resistant to all penicillins?
Because it has no cell wall
95
Mycoplasma cell membranes are distinct because they contain _____.
Cholesterol
96
What age group is most commonly affected by Mycoplasma pneumoniaeinfection?
Individuals younger than 30 years of age
97
A military recruit presents with a slow-onset, nonproductive cough with headache. Chest x-ray shows diffuse interstitial infiltrates, although the patient feels well. What is the likely diagnosis and how would you treat?
Mycoplasma pneumoniae; treatment with tetracycline or erythromycin
98
Why are Mycoplasma pneumoniae not seen on gram stain?
No cell walls
99
The tick Ixodes, which carries Borrelia burgdorferi, is also the vector for what other pathogen?
Babesia
100
A child in Connecticut presents with Bells palsy. What infectious disease must be considered as a diagnosis?
Lyme disease
101
Treponemes belong to what group of bacteria?
Spirochetes

piggy (83 decks)

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