Microbiology Flashcards
(159 cards)
1
Q
Influenza A is most commonly spread by:
A
Respiratory droplets
2
Q
Most common cause of diarrhea in children
A
Rotavirus
3
Q
Rubella is also known as:
A
German Measles
4
Q
Papillomavirus is associated with:
A
HPV
5
Q
The varicella-zoster virus is associated with:
A
Chicken Pox
6
Q
The Epstein-Barr virus is associated with:
A
Mono
7
Q
The measles virus is also called:
A
Rubeola
8
Q
The mumps virus is associated with
A
Parotitis
9
Q
Swine Flu (H1N1) is part of the _________ group
A
Influenza A
10
Q
Ebola and Marburg virus are associated with:
A
Hemorrhagic Fever
11
Q
Hantavirus spreads through which vector:
A
Rodents (Mouse)
12
Q
Reovirus and Rotavirus affect which part of the body?
A
GI Tract (Stomach flu)
13
Q
Norwalk virus causes ________
A
Gastroenteritis
14
Q
An antitoxin is associated with ____________ Immunity
A
Artificial Passive
15
Q
Examples of Endotoxins
A
Influenza, E Coli, Salmonella
16
Q
A toxin that affects the intestines
A
Enterotoxin
17
Q
Cholera is an example of an ________
A
Enterotoxin
18
Q
A toxin outside the cell is a _______
A
Exotoxin
19
Q
Strep, botulism & pertussis are all examples of a:
A
Exotoxin
20
Q
What is the most common type of fomite (inanimate object)?
A
Stethoscope
21
Q
A partial or half antigen is known as a _____
A
Hapten
22
Q
A toxin that affects the nervous system
A
Neurotoxin
23
Q
Botulism and Tetanus are examples of:
A
A neurotoxin
24
Q
Which toxin “enhances phagocytosis”?
A
Opsonin
25
Which toxin cannot be autoclaved?
Prion
26
Toxin that utilizes “Active Artificial Immunity”
Toxoid
27
Autoclave means to
Use steam under pressure
28
Which Antibody is associated with breast milk and the gut?
IgA
29
What antibody functions in parasitic infections and allergic reactions?
IgE
30
Which antibody increases in Hodgkin’s disease (Reed Sternberg cells)?
IgE
31
Which antibody is the first to increase with SECOND exposure?
IgG
32
Which antibody crosses the placenta?
IgG
“G thanks mom”
33
Which antibody is the first to increase with FIRST exposure?
IgM
34
The role of Interleukin I is:
Alerting (via Lymphocyte activating factor)
35
Interleukin I is made by:
Macrophages (monocytes)
36
The role of Interleukin II is:
Organizes (directs immune response)
37
Interleukin II is made by:
CD4 Cells
38
The role of Interleukin III is to:
Send to fight (to affected areas)
39
Interleukin III is made by:
Bone marrow
40
CD8 cells are _______ cells
Killer
41
CD4 Cells are ______ cells
Helper
42
CD4 cells activate what two types of cells?
-Memory B cells and Cytotoxic T Cells
43
MHC are ______ molecules
Protein
44
T-Cells recognize:
MHC I
45
B-Cells recognize:
MHC I & II
46
Enhances phagocytosis or cellular lysis
Complement
47
Membrane attack complex
C5b-C9; Part of the complement system
48
Active immunity
Actively making antibodies
49
Passive Immunity
Given antibodies
50
Natural Active Immunity
Exposed to the Disease
51
Artificial Active Disease
Injection of attenuated organism
52
Natural Passive Immunity
Given in utero or breastfeeding
53
In utero is associate with which antibody
IgG
54
Breastfeeding is associated with which antibody
IgA
55
Artificial passive immunity
Injection of a performed antibody (Ie. Tetanus)
56
Type I Hypersensitivity is called:
Anaphylactic
57
Anaphylactic (Type I) Hypersensitivity is closely associated with which condition?
Asthma
58
The defenses needed for a Type I sensitivity include:
IgE, mast cell, Basophils
59
A Type II Hypersensitivity is called ___________
Cytotoxic
60
Good Pasteurs, Erythoblastosis Fetalis (coombs anemia) & blood transfusions are all associated with:
Type II (Cytotoxic) Sensitivity
61
Which antibody is involved in a Type II hypersensitivity
IgG
62
What is required for a Type II hypersensitivity?
Antigen & Antibody
63
A type III hypersensitivity is called:
Immune complex-mediated
64
Glomerularnephritis, lupus and R.A are all associated with which hypersensitivity
Type III
65
What antibodies are needed for a type IIII (immune-mediated) hypersensitivity?
IgG & Complex
-Antigen, Antibody & complement
66
A type IV hypersensitivity is called:
Delayed Hyper-Sensitivity
67
Tuberculosis & contact dermatitis are both associated with which hypersensitivity?
Type IV (Delated-Hypersensitivity)
68
Which defenses are required with a Type IV hypersensitivity?
T-cell & Lymphocytes
69
Which condition has no vaccine available?
Herpes simplex Type II
70
Match these vaccines & examples
-Vaccinations: Inactivated, Toxoid, Live Attenuated
1. Mumps, measles, rubella, Sabin, Tuberculosis
2. Tetanus, Botulism, Diptheria
3. Salk, Rabies influenza
1. Live attenuated
2. Toxoid
3. Inactivated
71
Ascending myelination of PNS; Can be acquired after vaccination or infection
Guillain Barre (“Post-infectious polyradiculopathy”)
72
Match these lab tests with their purpose: ASO titer, Catalase, Coagulase, Coliform, Coombs
1. Staph (cat +) vs. Strep (cat -)
2. RBC antigens
3. E. Coli
4. Staph aureus (coag +) vs. Other staph (Coag -)
5. Strep pyogenes
1. Catalase
2. Coombs
3. Coliform
4. Coagulase
5. ASO titer
73
Match these lab tests with their purposes: HLA B27, HLA DR5/CD4, Paul Bunnel, Sabouraud Agar, Shick Test
1. PEAR: Psoriatic, Enteropathic Arthropathy, AS, Reactive Arthritis
2. AIDS: ELISA, Western Blot Tests
3. Diptheria
4. Fungi
5. Mono
1. HLA B27
2. HLA DR5/CD4
3. Shick
4. Saboraud Agar
5. Paul Bunnel
74
Syphilis tests for which pathogen and shape?
Treponema pallidum; Spirochete
75
Tuberculosis Tests
PPD (purified protein derivative), Acid fast (All mycobacterium are acid fast), X-Ray
76
What are we looking for in X-Ray, when testing for tuberculosis?
Gohn complex in lung
77
What type of cell would be atypical in a mononucleosis patient?
Downey cell
78
What test would you use for someone that you suspect has HIV/Lyme Disease?
Western Blot
79
Which test would you use for someone with suspected tuberculosis?
PPD/Skin prick test
80
Match the stains with what they’re testing for: Chocolate agar, Hektoen, Mannitol salt
1. Staph
2. Neisseria Gonorrhea
3. Shigella vs. Salmonella
1. Mannitol Salt
2. Chocolate agar
3. Hektoen
81
Match the inclusion bodies to their associated disease: Aschoff, Downey Cells, Gohn Complex, Guaneri bodies, Gumma
1. Small Pox
2. Tuberculosis
3. Rheumatic Fever
4. Mononucelosis
5. Tertiary Syphillis
1. Guarneri bodies
2. Gohn Complex
3. Aschoff
4. Downey Cells
5. Gumma
82
Match the inclusion bodies with their associated disease: Koplik Spots, Lewy bodies, Mallory bodies
1. Alcohol Induced Hepatitis
2. Measles
3. Parkinson’s
1. Mallory bodies
2. Koplik Spots
3. Lewy bodies
83
Match the inclusion bodies with their associated disease: Negri bodies, Reed Sternberg, Russell Bodies
1. Rabies
2. Multiple Myeloma
3. Hodgkin’s
1. Negri Bodies
2. Russell Bodies
3. Reed Sternberg
84
Match the disease with the color of pus: Pseudomonas aeruginosa, Serratia Marcescens, Chlamydia, Staph Aureus, Gonorrhea
1. Yellow
2. Yellow/Green
3. White
4. Blue/Green
5. Red
1. Staph Aureus
2. Gonorrhea
3. Chlamydia
4. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
5. Serratia Marcesens
85
What pathogen is associated with Thrush?
Candida albicans
86
Which disease is associated with a white purulent discharge?
Chlamydia
87
Emerging Disease
New or rapid increase in disease in a specified geographic region
88
Endemic
Disease that is present all the time, but in small quantities
89
Epidemic
Rapidly affects a population in a certain area for a few days to weeks
90
Etiology
Study of the causes of disease
91
Disease: Incidence vs. Prevalence
Incidence: NEW cases in a given period
Prevalence: TOTAL number of cases at a particular point in time
92
Pandemic
More than the expected number of cases at a particular point in time
93
The majority of pandemic disease originate from __________
Animals
94
Match the government agency with their responsibilities: CDC, EPA, FDA, NIH, OSHA, USDA
1. Disease Statistics
2. Milk and Milk Products
3. Research
4. Health products (makeup/tobacco)
5. Soil, air & water quality
6. Hazardous materials
1. CDC
2. USDA
3. NIH
4. FDA
5. EPA
6. OSHA
95
Which governing body deals with chicken farmers?
FDA
96
Control group vs. Testing group
Case Study/Control
97
Studies groups of people over a period of time
Cohorts
98
Drug that treats MRSA
Vancomycin
99
Drug that treats gram negative/positive as a broad spectrum antibiotic
Tetracycline
100
Classify these as either DNA or RNA Viruses:
1. Adenovirus
2. Papillomavirus
3. Rabies Virus
4. Hepatitis B Virus
5. Hepatatis C Virus
1. DNA
2. DNA
3. RNA
4. DNA
5. RNA
101
List the microbial lifestyle with the description: Autotroph, Heterotroph, Saprophyte, Parasite
1. Eats off living organisms
2. Eats organic material
3. Eats inorganic material (Ie. Plant eating sun)
4. Eats dead/decaying material (Ie. Maggot)
1. Parasite
2. Heterotroph
3. Autotroph
4. Saprophyte
102
Match these microbial lifestyles with their descriptions: Facultative, Obligate, Microaerophilic
1. Presence or absence of O2 (preference)
2. Can only survive in a reduced O2 (high altitude plants, Candle jaw culture)
3. Only in one environment, not the other
1. Facultative
2. Microaerophilic
3. Obligate
103
Match the microbial lifestyle with their description: Symbiosis, mutualism, synergism, commensalism
1. One benefits, the other is unaffected
2. Both benefit
3. One or both benefit
4. Both benefit and accomplish what neither can do alone
1. Commensalism
2. Mutualism
3. Symbiosis
4. Synergism
104
Name the 6 gram positive organisms (Rest are gram -)
“BLCCSS”
-Bacillus (anthrax)
-Listeria (deli meats, soft cheeses)
-Clostridium
-Corynebacterium diptheria
-Staph
-Strep
105
5 diseases caused by staph aureus
“STOIC”
-Scalded Skin Syndrome (exfoliative toxin)
-Toxic Shock
-Osteomyelitis
-Impetigo (honey crusted lesions/gold colored flakes)
-Carbuncles
106
6 Diseases caused by Strep pyogenes
“SERGIS”
-Strep Throat
-Erysipelas
-Rheumatic Fever
-Glomeulonephritis
-Impetigo (#2 cause)
-Scarlet Fever
107
Loss of red blood cells and SMALL amounts of protein in urine
Glomeurnephritis
108
An innate immune system contains:
T-Cells & Natural Killer Cells
109
T-Cells are made in the ______; Function by ______
Thymus; Killing pathogens
110
Natural Killer cells function by:
Inactivating the pathogen
111
Adaptive Immune System includes:
Killer T Cells, Helper T Cells, Regulatory T Cells
112
Match these T-Cells with their function: Killer T Cells, Helper T Cells, Regulatory T Cells
1. Helps keep T-Cells under control
2. Antigen Recognition/Activates T-Cells
3. Kills virus with or without antibody (cell suicide)
1. Regulatory T-Cells
2. Helper T-Cells
3. Killer T-Cells
113
Inform killer T-Cells what is going on INSIDE other cells
Class I (Histocompatability Complex)
114
Informs helper T-Cells what is going on OUTSIDE of cells
Class II (Histocompatability Complex)
115
Doesn’t kill anything but tags the invader (“Kiss of death”)
Antibody
116
Target of antibody & T cells
Antigen
117
______ pathway depends on antibodies for activation
Classical
118
Match these hypersensitivity reactions with their definitions: Type I, II, III, IV
1. Immediate Hypersensitivity
2. T-Cell mediated (Delayed)
3. Immune complex mediated
4. Antibody mediated
1. Type I
2. Type IV
3. Type III
4. Type II
119
_____ is a associated with swollen lymph nodes
Canale-Smith Syndrome
120
______ is associated with self-reactive antibodies attaching to Ach/attack myo-neuro junction
Myasthenia gravis
121
Which autoimmune disease is associated with a red facial rash (Malar) or Butterfly rash
Systemic Lupus Erythmatosis
122
Which immunodeficiency has thymic tissue missing
DiGeorge syndrome
123
Which diseases are associated with AIDS patients
Pneumocystitis carinii & Karposi sarcoma
124
Attenuated viruses are:
Weakened form of the microbe
125
Active immunity vs. Passive Immunity
-Active: Live or killed viruses
-Passive: Occurs naturally
126
Infections, dermatits, graft rejections are examples of which type of hypersensitivity reaction?
Type IV
127
SLE & RA are examples of which type of hypersensitivity reaction
Type III
128
Gram + is associated with which color?
Purple
129
Gram - is associated with which color?
Red
130
Presents antigen to T cell
Macrophages
131
Part of antigen recognized by immune system
Epitope
132
Where is the CDC office located?
Atlanta, GA
133
Which department is associated with chiropractic licensure?
Department of Health (DOH)
134
______ treated polio virus with formaldehyde to kill the virus
______ used live & attenuated virus for his vaccine
Salk; Sabin
135
Match these food-borne disease with their description: Staph, botulism, listeria, E. coli, Salmonella
1. Undercooked meat/veg/fruit exposed to fecal (2d)
2. Custard filled pastry, egg, fish, salad (2-4 hours)
3. Unpastuerized milk products, hot dogs (2 weeks)
4. Home canned products/honey (18-26 hours)
5. Poultry, meat, eggs (12-48 hours)
1. E. Coli
2. Staph
3. Listeria
4. Botulism
5. Salmonella
136
Match these food borne diseases with their definitions: Shigella, Cholera, Francisella tularensis, mycobacterium bovis
1. Seafood & water (1-5 days)
2. Foods & water (1-2 days)
3. Raw milk, can get TB (months to years)
4. Undercooked meat (a few hours to 3 weeks)
1. Cholera
2. Shigella
3. Mycobacterium bovis
4. Francisella tularensis
137
Which food borne disease is associated with 0157:H7?
E. Coli
138
H5N1, bird flu, flu-like symptoms
Avian influenza
139
Rheumatic Fever Jones Criteria
“SPECS”
-Syndenhams Chorea, Polyarthritis, Erythema marginatum, Carditis, Subcutaneous nodules
140
Which gram + disease is associated with a gray pseudomembrane?
Corynebacterium diptheria
141
Which disease is second only to HIV?
Community associated MRSA
142
Step. Agalactiae (group B) is associated with:
Babies
143
Trismus is also known as
Lock jaw
144
Gram + bacteria usually end in:
“Us” and “Um (Except for haemophilus)
145
Cestodes are also known as:
Tapeworms
146
The tapeworm head is called _______; Body is called _______
Scolex; Proglottids
147
Match these tapeworms with their organism name: Dwarf, beef, pork, fish, dog
1. Taenia solium
2. Taenia saginata
3. Echinococcus granulosis
4. Hymenolepsis nana
5. Diphyllobothrium latum
1. Pork
2. Beef
3. Dog
4. Dwarf
5. Fish
148
Which type of cestode can cause megaloblastic anemia
Fish
149
Name the two types of Trematodes (flukes)
Schisosoma japonicum (blood) & Paragoniimus Westermani (Pulmonary/Lung)
150
Match these types of round worms with their organism name: Filariasis, Hookworm, pinworm, trichinosis, whipworm
1. Wuchereria bancrofti
2. Enterobius vermicularis
3. Necator americanus
4. Trichuris trichura
5. Trichenella spiralis
1. Filariasis
2. Pinworm
3. Hookworm
4. Whipworm
5. Trichinosis
151
What is the vector os the river eye worm & river blindness roundworm?
Flies
152
Which roundworm can lead to Elephantitis & lymphatic blockage?
Filariasis
153
Which roundworm lives in striated muscles?
Trichinosis (Trichinella spiralis)
154
Tinea Uguium
Ringworm of the nail
155
Subunit of a protein coat
Capsomere
156
Trilaminar lipid membrane surrounding capsid
Viral envelope
157
Transmission of polio
Oral/fecal
158
Route of transmission for arbovirus
Mosquitoes
159
Which arbovirus develop breakbone fever or bone crusher disease
Dengue fever
