Pathology Flashcards
(174 cards)
1
Q
___________ can be due to a congenital megacolon
A
Hirchsprung’s Disease
2
Q
Brutons Agammaglobulinnemia leads to decreased ___________ and _________
A
B-Cells; IgG
3
Q
Blurred vision/headache are symptoms of _________
A
Temporal arteritis
4
Q
___________ lacks enzyme (glucose-6-phosphotase) in liver
A
Von Gierke’s
5
Q
Ghon lesions are associate with _________
A
Tuberculosis
6
Q
_________ is RA with black lung
A
Caplan’s
7
Q
________ patients are more likely to have Rheumatoid Arthritis
A
Diabetic
8
Q
_________ includes laceration of the esophagus and is alcohol-related
A
Mallory-Weiss
9
Q
Barrett’s Esophagus is caused by :
A
GERD (Acid Reflux)
10
Q
Myasthenia Gravis forms antibodies that block ________ receptors
A
Ach (Acetylcholine)
11
Q
A vitamin B12 deficiency affects which structure?
A
Spinal cord
12
Q
Tetraology of Fallot: Components
A
“DRIP”
-Dextrorotation of aorta
-Right ventricular hypertrophy
-Interventricular septal defect
-Pulmonic Stenosis
13
Q
The breakdown of uric acid forms _______
A
Urates
14
Q
Benign bone tumor of hand, foot, tubular bone
A
Endochondroma
15
Q
Which disorder is associated with large calves in Males (X-Lined)?
A
Duchene’s Muscular dystrophy
16
Q
Which disorder is associated with decreased osteoclast activity?
A
Osteopetrosis
17
Q
Which disorder is associated with a worm infestation?
A
Filariasis
18
Q
Which disease is caused by autoimmune gastritis and decreased intrinsic factor
A
Pernicious anemia
19
Q
Which disease causes cavitation within the spinal cord
A
Syringomelia
20
Q
Older patients don’t get migraines
A
True
21
Q
Disease associated with a deficiency in complement
A
SLE
22
Q
Disease associated with excessive thirst
A
Diabetes inspidus
23
Q
The most common cause of pneumonia in AIDS patients
A
Pneumocytis cormii
24
Q
Myxedema is associate with ______
A
Hypothyroidism
25
Alcaptonuria deposits are most prominent in ______
Joints
26
______________ is commonly seen in Atherosclerosis where calcium is found in damaged tissue.
Dystrophic Calcifcation
27
Casious necrosis of the lungs is associated with _____________.
Tuberculosis
28
Which type of necrosis is seen in a patient with Tuberculosis?
Caseous
29
Liquifaction degeneration occurs in which area of the body?
A. Brain
B. Spinal Cord
C. Skin
D. All of the above
D. All of the above
30
What type of degeneration occurs if the patient has athersclerosis?
Dystrophic calcification
31
Match the following:
Metaplasia Squamous cell carcinoma
Dysplaisa Psuedostratified ciliated colunar (PCCE)
Anaplasia Stratified Squamous
Metaplasia —> PCCE
Dysplasia —> Stratified Squamous
Anaplasia —> Squamous cell carcinoma
32
Dysplasia is caused by which of the following?
A. Complete disorganization
B. Increase in cell disorganization
C. Increase in number of cells
D. Changing from one type of cell to another
B. Increase in cell cell disorganization
33
How is a tumor graded at the biopsy?
Degree of anaplasia
34
Which type of collagen requires vitamin C?
A. Type I
B. Type II
C. Type III
D. Type IV
C. Type III
35
Which Syndrome is a congenital defect in collagen synthesis?
Ehler’s Danlos Syndrome
36
A patient visited the southwest desert of Arizona and returned sick. What condition should be considered?
Coccidiomycosis
37
An accumulation of carbon found in the lungs, often associated with coal miners is?
A. Asbestosis
B. Blastomysosis
C. Anthracosis
D. Rhumatoid Arthritis
C. Anthracosis
38
If a patient has Rhumatoid Arthritis and presents with anthracosis, what condition do they have?
Caplan’s Syndrome
39
What would a patient be presented with if a patient is suffering from mesothelioma?
A. Anthracosis
B. Asbetstosis
C. Blastomycosis
D. Siderosis
B. Asbestosis
40
Which of the following Pneumoconiosis is found in the soil on the eastern seaboard?
A. Coccidiomycosis
B. Histoplamosis
C. Blastomycosis
D. Siderosis
C. Blastomycosis
41
Farmers who have an accumulation of cotton particles in their lungs would suffer from what pneumoconiosis?
A. Asbestosis
B. Byssinosis
C. HIstoplasmosis
D. Silicosis
B. Byssynosis
42
A side of Iron and Silly Sand refers to what?
Siderosis = Iron
Silicosis = Sand
43
What are the three geographic oriented Pneumoconisosis?
Coccidiomycosis = Southwest deserts (Arizona)
Histoplasmoisis = Mississippi or Ohio Valley
Blastomycosis = Eastern Seaboard
44
Asthma is associated with which type of hypersensity reaction?
A. Type 1
B. Type 2
C. Type 3
D. Type 4
A. Type 1
45
The presence of Curschmann’s sprials and charcot leyden crystals is an indication of which of the following?
A. Bronchopneumonia
B. Cystic Fibrosis
C. Emphysema
D. Asthma
D. Asthma
46
What disease is associated with an alpha 1 antitrypsin deficiency?
A. Asthma
B. Pulmonary Fibrosis
C. Tuberculosis
D. Emphysema
D. Emphysema
47
A patient presenting with a barrel chest deformity would suffer from __________?
Emphysema
48
What is the medical term for Kidney Stones?
Nephrolithiasis
49
Nephrotic syndrome typically presents with which of the following?
A. Acute glomerulonephritis
B. Massive protien urea
C. Nephroblastoma
D. Radiating back pain
B. Massive protien urea
50
Which is not associated with Nephrotic Syndrome?
A. Hypertension
B. Edema
C. Calcium oxalate
D. Massive protien urea
C. Calcium oxalate
51
What renal disease is genetic?
Polycyctic Kidney disease
52
Which of the following is not a symptom of cushing’s disease?
A. Moon face
B. Buffalo Hump
C. Purple Striae
D. Decreased cortisol
D. Decreased cortisol
53
A Pheochromacytoma is found in the _____________.
Adrenal Medulla
54
What hormone suppresses the immune system?
Cortisol
55
Hypotension is commonly found in what condition?
Addison’s Disease
56
What adrenal disease is a disorder of the thyroid gland causing an increase in metabolism?
A. Grave’s disease
B. Conn’s diesease
C. Myxedema
D. Hashimoto
A. Grave’s Disease
57
What is considered the “stress hormone” that suppresses one’s immune system?
Cortisol
58
The most common cause of cervical cancer is ________________.
Human papilloma virus (HPV)
59
A benign tumor of smooth muscle more common in females is ______________.
Leiomyoma
60
Which of the following is associated with anovulation, obesity, and hirsutism?
A. PCOS
B. Leiomyoma
C. Seminoma
D. Endometriosis
A. PCOS (polycystic ovarian syndrome)
61
What is the organism that causes syphilis?
Treponema palladium
62
Which of the following is a gram (-) diplococci?
A. Gardnerella vaginalis
B. Gonorrhea
C. Trichomonas
D. hemochromatosis
B. Gonorrhea
63
Diabetes Insipidus causes ___________ ADH and ______________.
Decreased, dehydration
64
Peripheral neuropathy in the lower extremeties is an indication of ________________.
Diabetes Mellitus
65
Which lung conditioin is associated with clubbing of the fingers?
Emphysema
66
What metabolic disorder is associated with copper and the build up of Kayser Fleisher rings?
Wilson’s
67
What metabolic disorders is caused by protien malnutrition?
Kwashiorkor
68
What GI disorder is assocated with gluten intolerance, decreased villi, and malabsorption?
Celiac Disease
69
What disease will destroy the villi due to the consumption of gluten?
Celiac disease
70
The most common cause of projectile vommiting in a new born is ______________.
Pyloric stenosis
71
Which GI disorder is caused by the absence of the myenteric plexus?
Hirschsprung’s
72
A 24 year old female complains about left sided abdominal pain and lead pipe regidity. What would be the best diagnnosis?
Ulcerative Colitis
73
What GI disorder causes a laceration of the esophagus?
Mallory-Weiss Syndrome
74
What GI disorder results in no paralstalsis in the intestines?
Hirschsprung’s
75
Hematamesis is associated with what GI condition?
Mallory -Weiss Syndrome
76
Telescoping of the intestine onto itself is referred to as ____________
Intussusception
77
Which disease causes the cerebllum to drop below the foramen magnum?
Arnold Chiari
78
What is decreased with individuals suffering from alzheimers?
Acetylcholine
79
What brain tumer is the most common cerebellum tumor found in children?
Medulloblastoma
80
What causes degeneration of motor neurons throughout the spine and effects the anterior horn and corticospinal tracts?
ALS (Amyotrophic lateral Sclerosis)
81
What disease causes peripheral demyelination with ascending paralysis and is most commonly found after a flue vaccine?
Guillain-Barre
82
PAM is horny…
Ptosis, Anhydrosis, Mitosis = Horner’s syndrome
83
Patient presents with stiff neck, headache, and photophobia, what do they have?
Meningitis
84
This autoimmune disease forms antibodies that block acetylcholine receptors and first presents in the eye.
Myasthenia Gravis
85
A 34 year old female complains about a weird sensation in her hands that comes and goes. She woke up three weeks ago with blindness in one eye that went away within 2 weeks. A valuation indicates central demyelination. What condition is described?
Multiple Sclerosis
86
After a bout of the flu, a patient is experiencing ascending paralysis beginning in the lower extremeties. What condition is this?
Guillian-Barre
87
What is decreased in an individual with parkinson’s disease? (3)
Acetylcholine
Dopamine
GABA
88
Which condition produces a cyst in the spinal cord?
Syringomyelia
89
A deficiency of vitamin B1 from an exessive consumption of alcohol is termed what?
Wernicke-Korsakoff
90
Decreased dopamine and a shuffling gait are characteristically seen in which condition?
Paralysis agitans (Parkinson’s)
91
Which disease present with a cape-like distribution of sympoms bilaterally accross the shoulders?
Syringomyelia
92
The movement of WBC along a concentration gradient is termed ______________?
Chemotaxis
93
Fluid that has a low protein content is termed _________?
Transudate
94
What is responsible for a fatty embolus?
Fracture of a long bone
95
Which of the following are granulocytes?
A. Basophils
B. Neutrophils
C. Eosinophils
D. All of the above
D. All of the above
96
What makes the thymus a gland for immunity?
Where T-Lymphocytes mature
97
Which WBC increases in parasitic infections?
Eosinophils
98
Which cells make antibodies?
Plasma cells
99
Which WBC’s produce histomine?
Basophils
100
What WBC is also a macrophage?
Monocyte
101
Which of the WBC’s is elevated in an acute infection?
Neutrophils
102
Which of the following causes strong vasodialation during inflammation?
A. Bradykinin
B. Leuikotrienes
C. Prostaglandins
D. Substance P
A. Bradykinin
103
What primary immunodificiency disease is X-linked?
Bruton’s Agammaglobulinemia
104
Which causes a deficiency in T-Cells and affects the thymus?
DiGeorge’s
105
Which dieses is x-linked and associated with decreased B-Cells?
Bruton’s Ag.
106
Which pathology is associated with an immature thymus?
DiGeorge’s
107
Severe combined immune deficiency disease is due to a loss of ____________?
A. B cells
B. T cells
C. B & T cells
C. B & T cells
108
A lack of or loss of red blood cells is called what?
Anemia
109
Loss of blood where the mother is Rh- and the father and baby are Rh+
Erythroblastosis fetalis
110
Which nutritional anemia is associated with decreased intrinisic factor?
Pernicious anemia
111
A decrease in intrinsic factor producing gastritis can result in ______________?
Perniticious Anemia
112
What is deposition of a fatty plaque?
Atherosclerosis
113
What is the initial location of a pulmonary embolism?
Deep vein in the lower leg
114
Coarctation of the aorta produces results in which of the following? (Select two)
A. Hypotension in the lower extremities
B. Hypotension in the upper extremities
C. Hypertenision in the upper extremities
D. Hypertension in the lower extremities
A. Hypotension in the lower extremeties
C. Hypertension in the upper extremities
115
Deposition of a fatty plaque and decreased compliance of arteries is an indication of _______________?
Atherosclerosis
116
Which of these causes subarachnoid hemorrhage within the cericle of willis?
A. Dissecting aneurysm
B. Berry anneurysm
C. Beurger’s
D. Thromboagitis obliterans
B. Berry anneurysm
117
Another name for Temporal Arteritis?
Giant cell arteritis
118
Which of the following is not a finding of the tetralogy of fallot?
A. Right ventricular hypertrophy
B. Dextroposition of Aorta
C. Pulmonary Regurge
D. Pulmonic stenosis
C. Pulmonary Regurge
119
What organism is responsible for rheumatic fever?
Streptococcus pyogenes
120
What condition is most apt to occur in a female smoker?
Raynaud’s
121
Which of the following is the most common leukemia in children?
A. Acute myelobalstic leukemia
B. Acute lymphoblastic leukemia
C. Chronic lymphocytic leukemia
D. Chronic myeloctytic leukemia
B. Acute lymphoblastic leukemia
122
The most common form of achondroplasia is ______________?
Dwarfism
123
Alkaptonuria deposits are first seen in the ____________?
Urine
124
What is the most common pseudohypertrophy found in young males?
Duchene’s muscular dystrophy
125
Which of the following conditions is more common in males?
A. Duchene’s
B. Lupis
C. Myesthenia gravis
A. Duchene’s
126
Marfan’s destroys which valve?
Mitral valve
127
Reduced osteoclast activity is a result of _____________?
Osteopetrosis
128
What disease is associated with arachnodactyly and tall stature?
Marfans
129
What disease is known to present with blue sclera?
Osteogenesis imperfecta
130
What connective tissue disorder is strongly associated with mitral valve prolapse?
Marfans
131
The failure for enzymes to breakdown glucose 6 phosphotase in the liver is due to _____________ disease?
Von Gierke’s
132
Which sex linked diseases is only present in males?
Kleinfelder’s
133
Which sex-linked disease is associated with a short stature and amenorrhea?
Turners
134
Which of the following is most commonly seen in a patient with Kleinfelder’s syndrome?
A. Webbed neck
B. Testicular atrophy
C. Lacking height
D. High IQ
B. Testicular atrophy
135
An adenoma is a tumor of what type of tissue?
Glandular
136
What is the most common form of cancer in bone?
Metastasis
137
Which of the following causes parallasys between metatarsal heads?
Morton’s Neuroma
138
Which of the following is associated with Reed Sternberg Cells?
A. Leukoplakia
B. Krukenberg’s
C. Hodgkin’s Lymphoma
D. Squamous cell tumor
C. Hodgkin’s Lymphoma
139
What condition is a benign tumor of skeletal muscle?
Rhabdomyoma
140
Which of the following tumors is derived from three germinal layers?
A. Myxoma
B. Sarcoma
C. Teratoma
D. Rhabdomyoma
C. Teratoma
141
Which of the following is a benign tumor found in the heart?
A. Brown’s
B. Sarcoma
C. Teratoma
D. Rhabdomyoma
D. Rhabdomyoma
142
Which of the following bone tumors is located in the epiphysis?
A. Unicameral
B. Chondroblastoma
C. Osteoclastoma
D. Aneurysmal bone cyst (ABC)
B. Chondroblastoma
143
The most common benign bone tumor of the hand is ____________?
Enchondroma
144
The most common benign tumor of the spine with a coordoray cloth appearance is ____________?
Hernangioma
145
The most common location for an osteochondroma is _______________?
Pelvis
146
Which term is generally used to describe a hemangioma in the spine?
Coordoroy cloth appearance
147
Which of the following pathologies cause an ivory white vertebra?
A. Hodgkin’s disease
B. Blastic Metastasis
C. Padgets disease
D. All of the above
D. All of the above
148
What is the most common site of metastisis from prostate cancer?
the spine
149
Which of the following is associated with Rhumatoid arthritis?
A. Mouse ear deformity
B. Swan neck deformity
C. Photosensitiviey
D. Iritis
B. Swan Neck deformity
150
What condition presents with dry eyes, dry mouth, and Rheumatoid Arthritis?
Sjogren’s
151
Which of the following is a characteristic of Rheumatoide arthritis?
A. Haygarth’s nodes
B. Boutonniere deformity
C. Lanois deformity
D. All of the above
D. All of the above
152
What condition is most common in females and presents with a butterfly rash?
Lupus Erthematosus
153
A 20 year old female present with a skin rash that intensifies when exposed to the sun, this finding indicates _____________.
lupus erthematosus
154
Which of the following organs of the GI Tract is most effected by systemic sclerosis?
A. Liver
B. Esophogus
C. Spleen
D. Stomach
B. Esophogus
(Systemic sclerosis = Scleroderma)
155
Which of the following is not associated with ankelyosing spondylitis?
A. SI joint ossification
B. Spinal fusion
C. Purulent absess
D. Ghost Sign
C Purulent absess
156
Which of the following is a seronegative condition commonly associated with psoriasis?
Psoriatic arthritis
157
Which of the following is not a condition of reactive arthritis?
A. Urethritis
B. Conjuctivitis
C. Arthritis
D. Pitted nails
D. Pitted nails
158
What arthritic condition is caused by chlaymydia?
Reactive Arthritis
159
What is referred to as degenerative disc disease?
Osteoarthritis
160
Which of the following are charateristics of osteoarthritis?
A. Unilateral distribusion
B. Heberden’s Noded (DIP)
C. Bouchard’s nodes (PIP)
D. Overuse/Trauma
E. All of the above
E. All of the above
161
Excess of which of the following causes gout?
A. Urates
B. Rat bite erosions
C. Dislocation
D. Destruction of Bone
A. Urates
162
What is a lesion traditionally found in a patient with Gouty arthritis?
Tophi Crystals
163
What has high quantities in a person with gout?
Uric acid
164
A Bone infection is called what?
Osteomyelitis
165
A 13 year old boy presents with rounding of the shoulders, increased kyphosis, and complains of pain in back. What condition is this?
Scheuermann’s disease
166
Tibial apophysitis is a condition commonly known as _____________?
Osgood Schlatter’s
167
Central vascular disorder that includes emphysema
Cor Pulomnale
168
Which valves are affected with Rheumatic Fever?
Mitral & Aortic Valves (Usually Mitral First)
169
Type of anemia in which the circulating RBCs are smaller than the usual size of RBCs and have decreased red color
Microcytic Hypochromic Anemia
170
What test is used to find a chronic hemorrhage/bleeding?
Guiac Test
171
Macrocytic normochromic anemia can be due to deficiencies in what vitamins?
B9 and B12
172
What type of angina occurs at rest as a coronary artery spasm
Prinzmetal
173
If Osteomyelitis is chronic, what is it called?
Brodie’s abscess
174
Most common cause of osteomyelitis
Staph aureus
