Physiology Flashcards

(263 cards)

1
Q

Severe vomitting causes:

A

Metabolic alkalosis (Vomitting = Loss of HCL)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Which hormone increases during the first trimester of pregnancy?

A

HCG

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Which law keeps the lungs from overinflating?

A

Hering Breuer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Inspiration leads to a ________ in alveolar pressure

A

Decrease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

The epididymus is located _____ the testes and is where the ______ is stored

A

Above; Sperm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Aerobic glycolysis _______ skeletal muscle blood flow

A

Increases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Interleukin I is responsible for _______ ; Interleukin II is responsible for ______

A

Macrophages/monocytes; Lymphocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is the function of gap junctions?

A

Direct diffusion of ions and small molecules to maintain heart rhythm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

A decrease in blood protein leads to _______ and a _______ of oncotic pressure

A

Edema; decrease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What happens during rigor mortis, in terms of ATP production?

A

ATP decreases in skeletal muscle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

The sarcoplasmic reticulum is important for:

A

Muscle contraction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Ketosis triggers: Metabolic _______ and Respiratory ________

A

Acidosis; Alkalosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Large vessel that has valves

A

Vein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

ADH has it’s greatest effect on the ______________

A

Collecting duct

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Which of the following is produced in the zona glomeulosa of the adrenal cortex?
A. Aldosterone
B. Epinephrine
C. Cortisol
D. Serotonin

A

A. Aldosterone (Absorbs Sodium/excretes potassium)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Damage to the liver can lead to:
A. Decreased lipid and protein metabolism
B. Decreased lipid digestion
B. Decreased lipid metabolism
D. Decreased lipid digestion and synthesis, and impaired blood sugar regulatoin

A

D. Decreased lipid digestion and synthesis, and impaired blood sugar regulatoin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Which of the following are the quickest adaptors
A. Pacinian corpuscles
B. Meissner’s corpuscles
C. Merkel’s Corpuscles
D. Hair Follicles

A

A. Pacinian corpuscles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Which of the following is inhibitory?
A. Norepinephrine
B. Glutamate
C. Nitric Oxide
D. Dopamine

A

D. Dopamine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Decreased interpleural pressure causes;
A. Expiration
B. Inspiration
C. Hypoventilation
D. Hyperventilation

A

B. Inspiration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What controls the pace of the heart?
A. Atrioventricular node
B. Sinoatrial node
C. Pukinje Fibers
D. Myocardium

A

B. Sinoatrial node

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What produces the first beat of the heart?
A. Semilunar valve closing
B. Atrioventricular valves opening
C. Atrioventricular valves closing
D. Semilunar valve opening

A

C. Atrioventricular valves closing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is the function of surfactant?
A. Increase surface tension
B. Decrease surface tension
C. Reduce intradural pressure
D. Increase tidal volume

A

B. Decrease surface tension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Oxytocin stimulates:
A. Milk let down and growth of the corpus luteum
B. Milk let down and breast development in pregnancy
C. Milk let down and secondary sexual characteristic development
D. Milk let down and uterine contraction

A

D. Milk let down and uterine contraction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

According to the Frank-Starling law, the critical factor controlling stroke volume is:
A. Degree of stretch the cardiac muscle cells just before they contract
B. Heart rate
C. Stroke volume amplitude
D. Autonomic nervous system regulation

A

A. Degree of stretch the cardiac muscle cells just before they contract

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
What point of the myosin protein does ATPase attach? A. Tail B. Head C. Body D. Hillock
B. Head
26
Vital Capacity includes A. Functional Respiratory Capacity + Tidal Volume B. Respiratory Capacity + Residual Volume C. Inspiratory Reserve + Residual Volume D. Inspiratory Reserve + Tidal Volume + Expiratory Reserve
D. Inspiratory Reserve + Tidal Volume + Expiratory Reserve
27
Which of the following characteristics are similar for smooth muscle and skeletal muscle? A. Length of actin filaments B. Contracts in response to action potentials, which begin following the stimulation by motor neurons C. Calcium ions are crucial to contraction D. Strength of contraction per cross sectional area of muscle
C. Calcium ions are crucial to contraction
28
The myocardium plateau is due mainly to the: A. Delayed influx of calcium B. Calmodulin present in myocardium C. Sodium-calcium exchange channels D. Summation of repetitive action potentials from the Sinoatrial node
C. Sodium-calcium exchange channels
29
In which portion of the renal tubules does the majority of absorption take place? A. Collecting duct B. Loop of Henle C. Proximal Convoluted Tubule D. Distal Convoluted Tubule
C. Proximal Convoluted Tubule
30
An influx of sodium causes: A. Repolarization B. Hyperpolarization C. Depolarization D. No polarization
C. Depolarization
31
What blood test finding best describes respiratory acidosis? A. Increased pH B. No change in pH C. Decreased pH D. Very little change in the pH
C. Decreased pH
32
Post synaptic contraction of skeletal muscle is due to: A. Release of Ca2+ from sarcoplasmic reticulum B. Ca2+ influx into the cell at the myo-synaptic junction C. Influx of Sodium D. Efflux of Potassium
A. Release of Ca2+ from sarcoplasmic reticulum
33
The juxtaglomerular apparatus releases renin in response to: A. Decreased pressure in the afferent arteriole B. Constriction of efferent arteriole C. Decreased sodium in the proximal convoluted tubules D. Decreased potassium in the proximal convoluted tubules
A. Decreased pressure in the afferent arteriole
34
Chromaffin cells are developed from ______; & are associated with the _____ part of the autonomic nervous system: A. Neural crest; parasympathetic B. Neural crest; sympathetic C. Mesoderm; sympathetic D. Mesoderm; parasympathetic
B. Neural crest; sympathetic
35
Hyperventilation will cause; A. Respiratory alkalosis B. Respiratory acidosis C. Metabolic acidosis D. Metabolic alkalosis
A. Respiratory alkalosis
36
The peptide believed to be an important CNS neurotransmitter in pain sensation pathways is: A. Bradykinin B. Enkephalin C. Substance P D. Dopamine
C. Substance P
37
Stenosis of the mitral valve can result in hypertrophy of the _____, due to increased mechanical resistance during contraction A. Left atrium B. Right atrium C. Left ventricle D. Right ventricle
A. Left atrium
38
All of the following are regulated by the parasympathetic nervous system EXCEPT: A. Sudoriferous glands B. Exocrine glands C. Mucosal glands D. Sublingual glands
A. Sudoriferous glands (sweat glands)
39
Depolarization is associated with the ________ phase:
Ascending
40
Repolarization is associated with the _______ phase:
Descending phase
41
In moving an action potential, Calcium releases ________
Neurotransmitter
42
The resting state of an action potential is said to be ______
Polarized
43
Which is the MC synapse point?
Axodendritic
44
An efflux of Potassium is associated with:
Repolarization
45
MS, Posterolateral sclerosis and ALS are _______ diseases
Demyelinating
46
Sclerosis means that _____ is gone & replaced by _____
Myelin; Scar tissue
47
Myelin is made of _____
Fat
48
Which vitamin is important for myelination
Vitamin B12
49
Pressure, encapsulated mechanoreceptor
End bulbs of Krause; Pacinian
50
Mechanoreceptor associated with temperature perception, pressure, encapsulated & multi branched, 2-5 degrees perception
Ruffini Corpuscles
51
Only Receptors that are not encapsulated
Merkel discs
52
Receptor associated with pressure, vibration, encapsulated (“Phasic receptor”/“Quick Adaptor”)
Pacinian Corpuscles
53
Which ANS system is associated with CN III, VII, IX, X & Sacral plexus S2, S3, S4?
Parasympathetics
54
Sympathetics are associated with _______
Chain ganglion
55
-Sympathetics have a: _____ Pre/_____ Post
Short/Long
56
-Parasympathetics have a: ____ Pre/_____ Post
Long/Short
57
Sympathetics Post ggl release:
Epinephrine/Norepinephrine
58
Influx of Sodium
Depolarization
59
Efflux of Potassium
Repolarization
60
No A-P possible
Absolute refractory
61
A-P available with increase potential
Relative refractory
62
Many synapses in a single cell
Spatial summation
63
Rapid succession of A-P, few synapses
Temporal
64
________ Cells release glycine, prevent excessive muscular
Renshaw
65
Heschl’s gyrus is associated with which sensory area?
Auditory
66
Sensory area associated with “Receptive” portion of language
Wernicke’s
67
Motor area associated with “expressive” portion of language
Brocha’s
68
Coordination of muscle contractions
Cerebellum
69
Superior colliculi is responsible for:
Vision
70
Inferior colliculi is responsible for:
Auditory
71
The inferior colliculi originates from which CNs
III, IV
72
Area of the brain concerned with breathing
Pons
73
The pons is originates from which CNs
V, VI, VII, VIII
74
The medulla originates from which CNs
VIII, IX, X, XI, XII
75
Dark spots->Aging->Product oxidation
Lipofuscin
76
Sinus node “dies” and AV node takes over
Ectopic focus
77
Arteries have ____; Veins have _____
Muscles; Valves
78
The pulomnary vein has _____ blood
Oxygenated
79
The QRS complex leads to ventricular _________ and atrial _________
Contraction; relaxation
80
Na/K+ pump functions by:
Maintaining resting state of heart
81
Match these ECG components with their function: P wave , S-T interval, QRS complex , T wave 1. Ventricular repolarization 2. Ventricular depolarization & atrial repolarization 3. 0.04 to 0.06s 4. Atrial depolarization
1. T wave 2. QRS Complex 3. S-T Interval 4. P Wave
82
Depolarization is concerned with _____; Repolarization is concerned with ______
Work; Rest
83
Closing of mitral/tricuspid valve (A-V valves) creates:
S1 sound
84
Closing of aortic & pulmonic (semilunars) creates:
S2 sound
85
______ murmurs are the most clinically significant
Diastolic
86
Aortic Regurgitation = Mitral _______
ARMS Stenosis
87
Pulmonic_________ = Tricuspid Stenosis
Regurgitation PRTS
88
Force exerted by fluid against a wall
Hydrostatic Pressure
89
Created by plasma proteins unable to move through the capillary membrane
Osmotic pressure
90
Match these laws with their descriptions: Frank-Starling’s Law, Davis’ Law, Boyle’s Law 1. Muscle will increase in size when used 2. Stroke volume increases in response to volume of blood filling the heart 3. Inversely proportional relationship between pressure & volume of a gas, if temp kept constant within a closed sys.
1. Davis’ Law 2. Frank-Starling 3. Boyle’s
91
Proteins in blood
Albumin & globulin
92
Precursor platelets are ______
Megakaryocytes
93
Which WBC is in the highest quantity?
Neutrophils (60%) “Never Let My Engine Blow, 60-30-8-3-0” Neutrophils->Lymphocytes->Monocytes->Eosinophils->Basophils
94
Granulocytes
Basophils, Eosinophils, Neutrophils “BEN; Uncle Ben’s Rice”
95
Agranulocytes
Lymphocytes, monocytes
96
Kupffer Cells are macrophages that are found in the:
Liver
97
Stores Ca++ to be released to skeletal muscle
Sarcoplasmic reticulum
98
Thick, H zone, Crosses bridges
Myosin
99
ATPase will attach to the myosin _____
Head
100
Thin, F-actin filament + tropomyosin + troponin
Actin
101
Covers F actin’s binding sites
Tropomyosin “MOM”
102
Binds calcium and moves tropomyosin off binding sites
Troponin “DAD”
103
Troponin is found in:
Skeletal & Cardiac muscle
104
Smooth muscle consists of:
Actin, myosin and sarcoplasmic reticulum
105
______ is needed for smooth muscle contraction
Calmodulin
106
What components make up the I-Band
F-actin filament, Tropomyosin, Troponin
107
Z line approximates to Z line
Sarcomere
108
Contains both actin and myosin
A-Band
109
Myosin only
H-Band
110
Actin only
I-Band
111
In a contracted muscle, the I band ________ and the A band ___________
Become smaller; Doesn’t change
112
High CPK, ATPase activity is increased
White (fast)
113
Low CPK, low ATPasse activity
Red (slow twitch)
114
Ascites
Abdominal swelling
115
Alpha motor neurons are:
Extrafusal
116
Gamma motor neurons are:
Intrafusal
117
Anasarca
Edema of the whole body
118
Bowman’s Capsule plays a major role in:
Filtration (contains fenestrations)
119
Mechanoreceptors for blood pressure entrance afferent arteriole
Juxtaglomerular Cells
120
Made in the kidney, stimulates RBC production
Erythropoetin
121
Protein made by the Liver
Angiotensinogen
122
Enzyme made by the Juxtaglomerular Cells
Renin
123
Enzyme made in the lungs
Angiotensin converting enzyme (ACE)
124
Angiotensin II ________ blood vessels; Stimulates release of _________
Constricts; Aldosterone
125
Respiratory acidosis is commonly caused d/t:
Hypoventilation
126
Respiratory alkalosis is commonly caused by:
Hyperventilation
127
Metabolic acidosis is commonly caused by:
Diarrhea, ketosis, renal dysfunction
128
Metabolic alkalosis is commonly caused by:
Drugs, vomitting, diuretics
129
Surfactant is made by:
Type II alveolar cells (pneumocytes)
130
Lipoproteins ______ surface tension
Decrease
131
CO2 enters the blood stream, causes O2 to dissociate from hemoglobin
Bohr effect
132
CO2 combines with hemoglobin= more bicarbonate ions
Haldane effect
133
Anterior portion of the pituitary
Adenohypophysis
134
Adenohypophysis contains ______
Rathke’s Pouch
135
Posterior part of the pituitary
Neurohypophysis
136
Location of pituitary that contains ADH & Oxytocin
Neurohypophysis
137
Which peripheral organ regulates blood sugar
Pancreas
138
What peripheral organ regulates blood calcium
Thyroid/Parathyroid
139
Match the Adrenal Cortex layers with their function: Zona Glomerulosa, Zona Fasciculata, Zona Reticularis 1. 2nd sexual characteristics 2. Regulates salt balance 3. Regulates blood sugar
1. Zona Reticularis 2. Zona Glomerulosa 3. Zona Fasciculata “GFR Salty Sweet Sex”
140
______ escorts calcium into bone
Calcitonin “Bone In”
141
Which hormone Increases blood calcium/decreases phosphorus?
Parathyroid hormone (PTH) “Bone Out”
142
Which hormone decreases blood Ca+/increases phosphorus?
Calcitonin
143
Calcitonin is secreted by:
Parafollicular T3 & T4 (from follicular cells)
144
The Adrenal Medulla secretes which hormones?
Epinephrine & Norepinephrine “MEN-Medulla, Epinephrine, Norepinephrine”
145
Which vitamin moves calcium from the stomach into blood
Vitamin D
146
What makes norepinephrine/epinephrine?
Chromaffin Cells
147
Which enzyme is produced in the mouth?
Salivary amylase (Ptyalin)
148
Chief Cells secrete
Pepsinogen
149
Releases bicarbonate juice
Secretin
150
A Fibers
Fast
151
C Fibers
Slow
152
If there is a murmur is diastole, what is it?
Pulmonic regurgitation
153
Vomitting of blood is associated with
Mallory Weiss syndrome
154
Bohr Effect shift to the left moves into the:
Lung
155
Bohr effect shift to the right moves into the:
Tissue
156
When there is decreased protein in the blood, this can lead to decreased _________ pressure, leading to Edema.
Oncotic/Osmotic
157
The most powerful vasocontricter known to humankind
Angiotensin II
158
The Actin binding site is hidden by the ________ portion of the Troponin-Tropomyosin complex
Tropomyosin
159
_____ is bound to myosin
ATP
160
Contraction w/ no joint movement
Isometric
161
Which pathology affects the eye first and is more associated with females
Myasthenia gravis
162
Muscle spindles are a sensory organ that monitors ______ of a muscle and _______ of a muscle contraction
Stretch; Speed
163
Inhibitory transmitters of the CNS
Glycine (spine)/ GABA (brain)
164
Terminal bulbs where the neurotransmitter is stored
Telodendria
165
Tunnels (connexons) to connect the cytosol of two cells
Gap Junctions
166
Common Gap Junctions
Visceral (single-unit), smooth & cardiac mm, embryo & CNS
167
Only ____ end-bulbs of ______ neurons release neurotransmitter
Synaptic; pre-synaptic
168
Excitatory Transmitters
Norepinephrine, Glutamate, Nitric Oxide
169
Inhibitory Transmitters
Acetylcholine, Dopamine, Glycine, GABA, Serotonin
170
Process where 1,000-10,000 synapses are recieved in the CNS
Summation
171
Build-up of NT released by several presynaptic bulbs
Spatial summation
172
NT released by single presynaptic bulb that fires more than once
Temporal Summation
173
What vitamin is important for myelination?
Vitamin B12 (Cyanocobalamin)
174
The urinary system begins with:
The kidneys
175
The renal pyramids are located in the:
Medulla
176
Which hormone controls spermatogenesis?
Follicle Stumulating Hormone (FSH)
177
The right kidney is ____ than the left kidney
Lower
178
The ovarian ligament anchors the ovaries ______ to the uterus
Medially
179
The suspensory ligament is _________ to the pelvic wall
Laterally
180
Which ligament supports the uterine tubes, uterus & vagina
Broad ligament
181
What is secreted by the corpus luterum in the 1st 1/2 of the cycle
Estrogen
182
What hormone increases in pregnancy?
Progesterone
183
What hormone is responsible for ovulation
Lutenizing hormone
184
What hormone maintains the corpus luteum?
Human Chorionic Gonadotrophin (HCG)
185
Which of these is regulated by the kidneys? A. Concentration of protein B. amino acid concentration C. Total Blood Volume D. Extracellular fluid volume
C. Total Blood Volume
186
Bacterial action in the intestines does not lead to the formation of _______ A. Vitamin K B. Vitamin B6 C. Riboflavin D. Carotene
D. Carotene
187
The Uncus is correlated to what sense?
Olfaction
188
The Retina develops from the
Ectoderm
189
The sclera is derived from the
Dura
190
Middle ear to nasopharyngeal area
Auditory Tube
191
EKG + ECG is designed for:
Heart
192
EMG is designed for:
Muscle
193
EEG is designed for the:
Brain
194
Erection is considered to be ______ action
Parasympathetic
195
Ejactulation is considered to be a _______ action
Sympathetic
196
Components of the Renal Cortex
PCT, DCT, glomerulus, nephron
197
Components of the Renal Medulla
Loop of Henle, Collecting Ducts
198
What triggers the release of aldosterone?
Angiotensin II
199
What triggers the release of ADH
Increased Na+ osmolarity
200
Hormones included in the adenohypophysis
FSH, MSH, LH, Prolactin, ACTH, TSH, GH
201
Hormones included in the neuohypophysis
ADH & Oxytocin
202
The Pulmonary artery carries:
Deoxygenated Blood
203
The P-Wave is responsible for:
Atrial depolarization/contraction
204
The QRS complex is responsible for:
-Ventricular depolarization/contraction -Atrial repolarization (hidden)
205
The T-Wave is responsible:
Ventricular repolarization
206
Tetralogy of Fallot
-Detroxposition of the Aorta -Right Ventricular Hypertrophy -Interventricular septal defect -Pulmonary stenosis
207
Which blood vessel is the largest?
Tunica muscularis
208
Mitral Stenosis means:
Aortic Regurgitation
209
Pulmonic Regurgitation means:
Tricuspid Stenosis
210
Causes of Congestive Heart Failure
1. Essential Hypertension (35-55 yo)-Most Common 2. Aortic Stenosis (2nd most common)
211
Anterior spinal roots are _____ and Posterior spinal roots are ______; This follows what Law of Physiology
Motor; Sensory; Bell Magende
212
Which law limits respiratory excursion via the vagus nerve
Hering Breuer
213
Which lung capacity signifies normal breathing
Tidal Volume
214
Tidal volume is controlled by:
Pneumotaxic center: Fire’s off Hering Breuer Reflex
215
IRV is controlled by:
Apneustic center: Shuts off Hering Breuer reflex
216
ERV is controlled by:
Rectus Abdominis
217
What epithelium is the entire lung made up of? (What is the exception)
-Entire Lung: Pseudostratified Cilliated Columnar -Exception: Alveolar Sac (Simple Squamous)
218
Responsibilities of Type I/II pneumocytes
Type I: Gas exchange Type II: Surfactant (decrease surface tension)
219
Which syndrome can be caused by not enough surfactant at birth?
Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome (AKA Neonatal Hyaline Membrane Dx)
220
Macrophages of the Lungs
Dust Cells
221
What is a reversible enzyme that converts H2O + CO2 to H+ + HCO3?
Carbonic Anhydrase (Balances pH by breathing off CO2)
222
Examples of Respiratory Acidosis/Alkalosis
-Respiratory Acidosis: Holding breathing, consolidation (pneumonia) -Respiratory Alkalosis: Hyperventilation (too much O2)
223
Examples of Metabolic Acidosis/Alkalosis
-Metabolic Acidosis: Diarrhea, Diabetes Mellitus, Ketoacidosis -Metabolic Alkalosis: Bulimia (Vomitting), Diuretics, Drugs
224
What is the most powerful vasoconstrictor known to humankind
Angiotensin II
225
Urine Pathway from Collecting duct on:
Renal papillae—minor calyx—major calyx—renal pelvis—ureter—bladder—urethra
226
What starts the breakdown of fat in the mouth
Sublingual Lipase
227
Gastric glands give rise to:
Parietal & chief cells
228
Chief/peptic cells produce:
Pepsinogen
229
Pepsinogen is later converted by _____ into pepsin
HCL
230
Parietal Cells Make:
1. HCL (to convert pepsinogen to pepsin) 2. Intrinsic factor (for B12 absorption in the terminal ileum)
231
Pyloric glands give rise to:
Gastric Cells (Gastrin)
232
What produces most of the pancreatic enzymes in response to polypeptides in the stomach
Cholecystokinin (CCK)
233
CCK causes the production of what three enzymes in the small intestine?
1. Pancreatic amylase (breakdown of starch) 2. Pancreatic lipase (breakdown of lipids) 3. Trypsinogen (breakdown of proteins)
234
CCK also closes the ______ in response to fats; What else helps do this?
Pyloric sphincter; Enterogasterone
235
CCK also inhibits the action of ______ in the stomach
Gastrin
236
What converts trypsinogen to trypsin
Enterokinase
237
What breaks down polysaccharides into disaccharides
Pancreatic amylase
238
Lactose breaks down into: _________ -What enzyme allows this to occur?
Glucose + galactose -Lactase
239
Sucrose breaks down into: -What enzyme allows for this?
Glucose + fructose -Sucrase
240
What effect does CCK have on the gall bladder
Causes it to release bile
241
What can be caused with decreased intrinsic factor?
Pernicious anemia
242
If B12 deficiency is left untreated it can lead to:
Posterolateral sclerosis of the spinal cord (Comined systems disease)
243
Alpha cells
Glucagon
244
Beta Cells
Insulin
245
Delta cells
Somatostatin
246
What influence can protein have on edema?
Decreased protein in the blood = decreased oncotic/osmotic pressure -Albumin pulls water out of ICF/ECF (Decreased protein = decreased water pull)
247
Which band is Anionotrophic?
A Band
248
Which band is isotrophic?
I-Band
249
Covering a muscle fiber
Endomysium
250
Covering a muscle fascicle
Peripmysium
251
Covering an entire muscle
Epimysium
252
In a skeletal muscle contraction, ATP is bound to:
Myosin
253
The actin binding site is hidden by:
Tropomyosin
254
What is a contraction with no joint movement
Isometric
255
What is an autoimmune disorder that leads to muscle weakness and affects females more prominently
Myasthenia graavis
256
In a smooth muscle contraction, calcium binds to:
Calmodulin
257
Which muscle fibers have more mitochondria?
Slow twitch
258
Gamma motor neurons bind to _____ fibers
Intrafusal -Cerebellum -Set tone of muscle
259
Alpha motor neurons bind to _____ fibers
Extrafusal -Cortex -Voluntary movement
260
What is the role of muscle spindles?
Monitor stretch of muscle & speed of muscle contraction
261
Inhibitory neurotransmitters in the CNS
-Glycine (Spine) & GABA (Brain)
262
Nicotinic receptors are responsible for:
Skeletal muscle fibres, pre-ganglionic sympathetic and parasympathetic
263
Muscarinic receptors are effector cells of ________
Parasympathetics