Microbiology Flashcards

1
Q

Features of actinomycosis

A

Gram positive bacilli
Faculative anaerobes
Can cause multiple abcesses
May develop in appendix
Direct visualisation of organisms and sulphur granules from lesions themselves is the easiest way to make a diagnosis.

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2
Q

Diarrhoea with HIV

A

Cryptosporidium

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3
Q

Large tonsils, petechial haemorrhages, splenomegaly and test diagnosis

A

EBV

Monospot test

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4
Q

Organism causing genitourinary infection

A

E coli

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5
Q

Boy with recurrent pruitius ani, small worm organism

A

Enterobius vermicularis

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6
Q

Organism in septic arthritis for young adults

A

Neisseria gon

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7
Q

Necrotising fasciitis

A

Mainly polymicrobial
Further surgery 24-48hrs after initial surgery to review extension of infection
Muscles are relatively spared
Crepitus in 35%

Strep most common in isolation
Risk in diabetes

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8
Q

Floating stools and diarrhoea

A

Giardia lambilla

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9
Q

Causes of osteomyelitis in sickle

A

Salmonella

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10
Q

Features of salmonella type

A

Relative Brady
Rose spots on trunk
Constipation

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11
Q

What is the risk of wound infection in a laparoscopic cholecystectomy for uncomplicated biliary colic

A

4%

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12
Q

MOA of antibiotics

A

Cell wall- pen, ceph

Protein synthesis clindamycin 50, Oxala 50, amino 30, tetracycline 30, macrolides 50, linezolid 50

DNA synthesis- quinolones (cipro) dna gyrase, metronidazole, trimethoprim,

RNA- rifampicin

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13
Q

Hard painless ulcer cause

A

Treponema pallidum

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14
Q

Causes of Fourniers gangrene

A

E coli and bacteriodes

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15
Q

What is the risk of a wound infection in a male undergoing a Hartmanns procedure for perforated sigmoid diverticular disease?

A

35%

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16
Q

What is the likely risk of surgical wound infection in a 23 year old male undergoing an elective inguinal hernia repair?

A

Less than 5%

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17
Q

Abx for MSRA

A

vancomycin
teicoplanin

Some strains may be sensitive to the antibiotics listed below but they should not generally be used alone because resistance may develop:
rifampicin
macrolides
tetracyclines
aminoglycosides
clindamycin

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18
Q

Hepatits DNA/RNA

A

All RNA apart from Hep b which is double stranded DNA

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19
Q

Malignant otitis externa organism

A

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

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20
Q

Watercress, severe abdominal pain, fevers and progressive jaundice. Imaging with ultrasound shows mildly dilated bile ducts with hyperechoic areas

A

Fasciola hepatica

Treatment is with triclabendazole. Some patients may need ERCP

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21
Q

C jejuni features

A

Most common cause of acute infective diarrhoea
Spiral, gram negative rods
Usually infects caecum and terminal ileum. Local lymphadenopathy is common
May mimic appendicitis as it has marked right iliac fossa pain
Reactive arthritis is seen in 1-2% of cases

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22
Q

Diarrhoea, cyst on stool, immunocomprimsied

A

Cryptosporidium

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23
Q

Mx of infected prosthesis

A

Removal of metal work implantation of gentamicin beads and delayed revision is the mainstay of managing this complication after 4 weeks. In earlier infections, linear exchanges covered by prolonged courses of antibiotics can be used.

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24
Q

Cause of melanosis coli

A

Laxative abuse

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25
Q

Organism causing severe peiritoneal infections

A

Bacteriodes

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26
Q

Recently away, diarrhoea, with eggs and worms in stool

A

Ascaris lumbricoides

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27
Q

Enterobiasis diagnosis

A

Common cause of pruritus ani
Diagnosis usually made by placing scotch tape at the anus, this will trap eggs that can then be viewed microscopically

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28
Q

Most common organism in infective endocarditis with prev faulty heart valves e.g rheumatic fever

A

Strep viridans

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29
Q

Cause of quinsy

A

Strep pyogenes

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30
Q

Spillage in cholecystectomy, now has diarrhoea cause?

A

Broad IV abc must have been given
Causing C diff

31
Q

Children 6m to 4y cause of disci tis

A

Kigella Kigae

If younger staph aureus

32
Q

E coli 0157 causes

A

Haemolytic uraemia syndrome in children

Plasmids- antibiotic resistance

33
Q

Organism associate with septicaemia with carcinoma of colon

A

Strep bovis

34
Q

Severe abdo pain with diarrhoea lasting 18hrs

A

Campylobacter

35
Q

Pyrexia, diarrhoea, similar symptoms to appendicities- lap terminal ileum engoraged

A

Yersinia enterocolitica

36
Q

Tx of Yersinia

A

Usually sensitive to quinolone or tetracyclines

37
Q

Organism causing bladder calcification

A

Schistosoma haematobium

38
Q

Tx of shisto

A

praziquantel

39
Q

Organism infecting plastic devices

A

Staph epidermis

40
Q

Bloody diarrhoea, necrosis and ulcer of large bowel

A

Enteroinvasive E coli

41
Q

Testing for HIV

A

HIV antibody test
most common and accurate test
usually consists of both a screening ELISA (Enzyme Linked Immuno-Sorbent Assay) test and a confirmatory Western Blot Assay
most people develop antibodies to HIV at 4-6 weeks but 99% do by 3 months

p24 antigen
usually positive from about 1 week to 3 - 4 weeks after infection with HIV

42
Q

Tx of C diff

A

Oral met or vac

Severe- IV met and oral vanc

43
Q

Which ABx predispose to C diff

A

Cipro, cef

NOT CLIND

44
Q

Time in autoclave and test after

A

3-15 mins

Bowie Dick

45
Q

Bacterial parotitis

A

Staph aureus

46
Q

Vaccine pre and post splenectomy

A

4-6 w before

every 5 years after

47
Q

Surgical oder with patient who is MRSA +

A

Put at the end of the list

48
Q

HDU vs ITU

A

HDU- single organ
ITU- multiple or resp

49
Q

CD4 of HIV at risk of opportunistic infection

A

<200

50
Q

Organism causing balanitis

A

Candida

51
Q

Sickle cell, osteomyelitis

A

Salmonella

52
Q

What does diathermy increase the risk of

A

Infection in abdominal Surgery

53
Q

Proteus gram

A

Negative rod

54
Q

Enterococcus gram

A

Posotive coccus

55
Q

Pneumonia immunocomprimised, abcess

A

N asteroids

56
Q

Superficial vs deep abcess organism

A

Superficial- stap, step pyogenes

Deep- neg and anaerobes

57
Q

Differentiating gram positive organisms

A

Cocci
Staph (catalase +)
Coagulase +- stap aureus
Neg- epidermis, sapro

Strep (catalase -)
B haem (clear) pyogene, agalactiae
y haem- enterococcus
a haem (green)- pneumonia, viridans

58
Q

Co receptor for HIV into T cells

A

CCR5

59
Q

Hepatitis DNA vs RNA

A

All single RNA apart from Hep B which is double DNA

60
Q

Most common cause of post splenectomy sepsis

A

S pneumonia

61
Q

What can interferons induce

A

Apoptosis

62
Q

Organism of Quinsy

A

S pyogenes

63
Q

Cause of epipymal orchitis in children

A

E coli

64
Q

Needstick disease that is a notifiable disease

A

Hepatitis

65
Q

Toxin produced in HUS

A

Verotoxin

66
Q

Liver abcess in UK

A

Gram negative- either E coli or kleb

67
Q

Jaunfice after tonsillitis

A

EBV

68
Q

Toxin produced by staph

A

Haemolysis

69
Q

Abdo pain, poorly compliant HIV

A

Cytomegalovirus

70
Q

Endotoxin effect on the heart

A

Negative inoptropes

71
Q

Non bloody diarrhoea HIV

A

Cryptosporidium

72
Q

Spore baring bacteria

A

Baccilus and clostridium

73
Q

Where botulism acts

A

NMJ

74
Q

MOA of chlorhexidine

A

Disruption of cell membrane