Microbiology Flashcards

(102 cards)

1
Q

what is an infection pathologically

A

inflammation due to a pathogen/infectious agent

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2
Q

describe colonisation

A

the presence of a microorganism, doesn’t always mean infection

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3
Q

what does colonisation mean for swap tests of infected patients

A

disease might not be caused by bugs found

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4
Q

what it a paired sera test

A

two separated blood test to show rise in antibodies

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5
Q

what determines the choice of treatment

A

when the microorganism has a cell wall (B-lactam?)

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6
Q

how are some infections prevented

A

vaccination

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7
Q

what are the conducting airways consisted of

A

trachea and bronchus

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8
Q

what are the upper resp. tract components

A

oropharynx, nasopharynx

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9
Q

what are the host defences against infection in the nasopharynx

A

nasal hairs, ciliated epithelia, IgA

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10
Q

what are the host defences against infection in the oropharynx

A

saliva, sloughing, cough

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11
Q

how does mucous prevent infection

A

traps pathogens

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12
Q

what is a rhinitis infection inflammation of?

A

the nose

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13
Q

give 3 examples of upper respiratory colonisers that are gram positive

A

alpha-haemolytic streptococci (strep. pneumoniae), beta-haemolytic streptococci (strep. pyogenes), staphylococcus aureus

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14
Q

give 2 examples of upper respiratory colonisers that are gram negative

A

haemophilus influenza, moraxella catarrhalis

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15
Q

what are the hosts defences in the conducting airways

A

mucociliary escalator, cough, AMPs (antimicrobial peptides), cellular and humoral immunity

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16
Q

describe what causes infection

A

trauma, intubation of airway, abnormalities of defence (e.g. ciliary escalator), virulent pathogen/ large inoculum

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17
Q

what causes an aspiration pneumonia

A

impaired cough reflex

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18
Q

what is acute bronchitis

A

infection and inflammation of the airway

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19
Q

what are the clinical features of acute bronchitis

A

productive cough, +/- wheeze and fever, normal chest exam and cxr,

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20
Q

what precedes acute bronchitis

A

a URT infection

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21
Q

are antibiotics made available for acute bronchitis

A

not usually indicated

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22
Q

what are 90% of acute bronchitis cases a result of

A

viruses

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23
Q

what are the clinical features of a COPD acute exacerbation

A

productive cough or acute chest illness, breathlessness, wheezing, increased sputum purulence

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24
Q

what usually causes an acute exacerbation of COPD

A

often follows viral infection or fall in temp/ increase in humidity

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25
what is COPD
blanket term for several diseases characterised by airflow obstruction- mainly chronic bronchitis and emphysema
26
what is an exacerbation
acute worsening of symptoms
27
what is sputum purulence
its colour- green, yellow, brown
28
what pathogens cause an exacerbation
30% viral, 50% bacteria e.g streptococcus pneumonia, haemophilus influenzae, moraxella catarrhalis and gram negatives
29
what does the recurrent inflammation of the airways on chronic bronchitis
hyper production of mucous (inc, neutrophils) inhibits the ciliary escalator, blocking the airways and impairing the hosts immune response
30
what is pertussis
whooping cough
31
what is whooping cough
acute trachea-bronchitis
32
describe the symptoms of whooping cough
cold like for 2 weeks, paroxysmal coughing 2 weeks, repeated violent exhalations with severe inspiratory whoop, vomiting, residual cough for month or more
33
what microorganisms are responsible for pertussis
bordetella pertussis- gram neg cocoobacillus
34
how is bordetella pertussis diagnosed
bacterial culture, PCR, serology, clinical signs and symptoms
35
what is a paroxysm
a violent episode of something
36
how and when is pertussis treated
with antibiotic is <21 days cough
37
what are the three main routes of transmission
contact, airborne, droplets
38
describe airborne transmission
small, <5 microns, travel long distances and remain airborne
39
what precautions do does airborne transmission need
standard infection control and filtering face piece 3
40
describe droplet transmission
larger particles, >5 microns, fall to floor within 2m, spread via contact
41
what are the standard infection control precautions
hand washing, PPE, door closed, decontamination before leaving room
42
when should a respirator be discard when airborne precautions are in actions
after leaving the room
43
why are infections common in CF
due to the inefficient clearance of mucous and chronic colonisation
44
what are some pathogens that cause infections in CF patients
Pseodomonas aeruginosa, burkholderia cepacia, staph. aureus, haemophilus influenza, strep pneumoniae
45
what are (and arent) the host defences of the lower respiratory tract (lungs) and what
no ciliary escalator. alveolar lining fluid- surfactant, Ig, complement, FFA, AMP alveolar macrophages and neutrophils- phagocytosis, inflammatory response
46
what are the clinical presentations of community acquired pneumonia
cough, increased sputum, chest pain, dyspnoea, fever, CXR with infiltrates
47
what is the pathological mechanism behind community acquired pneumonia
organism reaches lungs, immune activation and infiltration (systemic response), fluid and cellular build up in alveoli leads to impaired gas exchange
48
what is the most common pathogen that causes community acquired pneumonia
streptococcus pneumoniae
49
what other pathogens can causes community acquired pneumonia
viruses, haemophilus influenzae, steph. aureus
50
what are some risk factors for community acquired pneumonia
age, immunocompromised/suppressed, | smoking
51
how is community acquired pneumonia diagnosed
sputum culture, purulence, viral PCR
52
what is streptococcus pneumoniae sensitive to
amoxicillin, doxycycline, co-trimoxazole
53
how is pneumococcal pneumonia treated
5 day course of amoxicillin
54
what is the difference between invasive and non invasive pneumonia
invasive in blood stream
55
what can invasive pneumonia cause in the brain
meningitis
56
what microorganism causes typical community acquired pneumonia
streptococcus pnuemoniae
57
what microorganisms cause atypical community acquired pneumonia
mycoplasma pneumoniae, legionella pneumonia, chlamydophila pneumonia, chlamydia psitacci, viruses
58
how is legionella pneumonia diagnose
legionella unrinary antigen (detects serogroup 1 only), culture, paired serology, PCR from sputum
59
how is legionella pneumonia treated
claythromycin, erythromycin, quinolones- levofloxacin
60
is legionellla pneumonia typical or atypical
atypical
61
how does legionella pneumonia survive in the body
invades macrophages and replicates
62
what are the clinical symptoms of legionella pneumonia
flu like illness which may progress to a severe pneumonia with mental confusion, acute renal failure and GI symptoms
63
what is the mortality rate of legionella pneumonia
5-30%
64
how is legionella pneumonia transmitted
inhalation of contaminated water droplets
65
what are the risk factors for legionella pneumonia
exposure to contaminated aerosolised water, impaired immunity, >55YO, diabetes, malignancy, altered immunity
66
what is walking pneumonia
mild form of/ atypical
67
what is not used to treat a walking pneumonia and why
amoxicillin as organism has no cell wall
68
does does staphylococcus pneumonia follow
influenza
69
describe how cadiovascular infections of staphylococcus pneumonia
haematogeneous spread of staphylococcus aureus
70
what types of pneumonia cause relative bradycardia
legionella, mycoplamsa, tularaemia, chlamydia
71
what organisms cause hospital acquired pneumonia
60% gram negative (e-coli, klebsiella spp, pseudomonas spp), CAP organisms (S. Aureus and anaerobes)
72
how is HAP treated
IV amoxicillin (if penicillin allergic Co-trimoxazole) + metronidazole + gentamicin (+/- if pen. allergic)
73
what are the non infective causes of pneumonia
pulmonary inflitrates with eosinophilia; parasites, brucella, endemic mycoses, psittacosis, tuberculosis
74
what pathogens cause 'classical flu'
influenza A and B viruses
75
what pathogens cause flu like illnesses
parainfluenza viruses and many others
76
what is haemophilus influenza and what does it do
bacterium, not primary cause of flu but can be secondary invader
77
what is the most common cause of death in influenza epidemics
secondary bacterial infections
78
what antivirals are used to treat flu
oseltamivir, zanamivir
79
when should antivirals be given
only when patient is at risk of complications
80
describe antigenic drift
when minor mutations in the surface proteins of the virus cause epidemics of flu
81
what virus causes a flu pandemic
influenza A
82
what other factors cause a flu pandemic
antigenic shift, segmented genome, animal reservoir/mixing vessel
83
how is influenza detected in the lab
PCR of a swab (direct detection of virus) or antibody detection
84
what is in a killed flu vaccine
inactivated virus- 2 different influenza A and 1 B + adjuvant
85
how is a live vaccine administered
intra-nasally
86
how are mycoplasma, coxiella and chlamydophila
all respond to tetracycline and macrolides
87
what pathogens cause a typical pneumonia
mycoplasma, coxiella and chlamydophila psittaci
88
how is an a typical pneumonia confirmed in a lab
serology or virus detection e.g PCR
89
in which groups of people is community acquired pneumonia caused by mycoplasma pneumoniae most common
children and young adults
90
how is community acquired mycoplasma pneumonia spread
person to person
91
what is q fever caused by
coxiella burnetii
92
what are the conditions caused by coxiella burnetii
pneumonia and pyrexia of unknown origin
93
who does coxiella burnetii affect
sheep and goats
94
what does chlamydophila psittaci cause
psittacosis
95
how does psittacosis usually present
as pneumonia
96
what is bronchiolitis and what is it also known as
inflammation of the fine bronchioles- respiratory syncytial virus
97
who does RSV affect
infancy
98
how does RSV clinical present
fever, coryza, cough, wheeze
99
how does RSV present in severe cases
grunting, reduced PaO2, intercostal/ sternal indrawing
100
what are the complications of bronchiolitis
respiratory and cardiac failure- common in premature babies or babies with pre existing resp or cardiac failure
101
why is bronchiolitis so common
epidemics every winter, no vaccine, nosocomial spread in hospital wards
102
what effect does metapneumovirus have on most children by the age of five
most antibody positive