midterm 1 Flashcards
(80 cards)
1
Q
what do you give for microcytic anemia
A
iron preparations
- iron dextran(IM/SQ)
- ferrous salts (oral)
copper preparation
- copper sulfate (orally)
- copper glycinate (SQ/IM)
2
Q
what is macocytic anemia in ruminants due to?
A
cobalt deficiency
3
Q
what can you give for IMHA?
A
- supportive treatment
- blood transfusion (oxyglobine)
- immunosuppressives (pred) (azathiprine & cyclocphosphamide) danazal, cyclosprosin A
4
Q
what do you give for CRF or BM suppression?
A
EPO, iron, anabolic steroids
5
Q
what treats anti-cancer chemo & stimulates progenitor cells of Neutrophils
A
filgrastim
6
Q
what treats anti-cancer chemo & stimulates progenitor cells of Neutrophils & macrophages
A
sargramostim
7
Q
what adverse effects does sargramostim cause?
A
bone pain, fever, cardipulonary tox
8
Q
styptic -vasoconstrictor
A
epi
9
Q
styptic- astringents
A
tannic acid, ferric chloride
10
Q
styptics- surgical
A
oxidized cellulose, gelatin sponge, collagen
11
Q
styptics-physiological
A
thromboplastin, thrombin*, fibrinogen, fibrin foam
NOT PROTHROMBIN
12
Q
provides blood volume along with all factors needed for normal hemostasis
A
blood transfusion, fresh frozen plasma
13
Q
Vk1=?
A
phytonadione
14
Q
txt for warfarin poison, sweet clover toxicty, epistaxic horses?
A
vk1
15
Q
stimulate formation of prothrombin and 2,7,9,10
A
vk1
16
Q
txt for heparin poison?
A
protamine sulfate..be careful it can have an anticoagulant effect
17
Q
txt for hemorrhage due to hyperfibrinolysis?
A
aminocaproic Acid
18
Q
txt for degenerative myelo in germans
A
amicocaproic Acid
19
Q
MOA for aminocaproic acid
A
inhibits conversion of plasminogen to plasmin to stop bleeding due to too much fribin
20
Q
what controlls bleeding in dogs wtih vWD?
A
desmopressin aka analgoue of vasopressin(ADH)
21
Q
what are the systemic hemostatics?
A
- blood transfusion/plasma
- vitK
- protamine sulfate
- aminocaproic acid
- desmopressin
22
Q
Which of the following agents is MOST effective in treating severe anemia caused by renal disease or bone marrow suppression?
a. anabolic steroids
b. ferrous sulfate
c. copper sulfate
d. vitamin B12
e. erythropoeitin
A
epo
23
Q
Used for rapid reversal of warfarin effects
a. aminocaproic acid
b. whole plasma
c. protamine sulfate
d. vitamin K1
e. vitamin K3
A
whole plasma
24
Q
what activates antithrobim III resulting in inhibition of thrombin
A
heparin
25
what is the anticoagulant choice during prego?
heparin
26
what inhibits prothrombin and coag factors
warfarin
27
Heparin is used in acute thromboembolism to directly break down an existing clot.
a. True
b. False
false
28
Mechanism of action of heparin
a. blocks fibrinogen receptors
b. competitively inhibits binding of plasmin and plasmiongen to fibrin's lysin residues
c. competitively antagonizes vitamin k
d. stimulates conversion of plasminogen to plasmin
e. activates antithrombin III
activates antithrombin III
29
The antithrombotic action of aspirin is due to
a. activating antithrombin III
b. antagonizing vitamin K
c. inhibiting platelet aggregation
d. activating conversion of plasminogen to plasmin
inhibiting platelet aggregation
30
16. Mechanism of action of streptokinase is
a. inhibiting prothrombin and factors VII, IX and X
b. activating antithrombin III
c. stimulating conversion of plasminogen to plasmin
d. inhibiting platelet aggregation
e. inhibiting conversion of plasminogen to plasmin
. stimulating conversion of plasminogen to plasmin
31
All of the following statements about warfarin are true EXCEPT
a. It has a relatively slow onset of action
b. It is used to prevent thromboembolism
c. It inhibits factors II, VII, IX and X
d. It can be used safely during pregnancy
e. It has a narrow safety margin
It can be used safely during pregnancy
32
Which of the following drugs is PREFERRED for chronic anticoagulation therapy?
a. heprin
b. vitamin k1
c. warfarin
d. aminocaproic acid
e. streptokinase
wafarin
33
Which of the following agents is MOST effective in treating severe anemia caused by renal disease or depression of the bone marrow?
a. anabolic steroids
b. ferrous sulfate
c. copper sulfate
d. vitamin B12
e. erythropoeitin
epo
34
Action of streptokinase is
a. anticoagulant
b. procoagulant
c. thrombolytic
d. antiplatelet
e. vasodilator
thrombolytic
35
Which of the following statements about the mechanism of action of anticoagulant rodenticides is TRUE?
a. They inhibit production of precursor proteins of clotting factors II, VII, IX, and X
b. They increase metabolism of vitamin K-dependent clotting factors
c. They activate precursor proteins of clotting factors II, VII, IX, and X
d. They stimulate carboxylation of vitamin K-dependent clotting factors
e. They inhibit vitamin K epoxide reductase
They inhibit vitamin K epoxide reductase
36
. All of the following agents can be used for control of bleeding EXCEPT
a. aminocaproic acid
b. fresh frozen plasma (FFP)
c. phytonadione
d. thrombin (topically)
e. tissue plasminogen activator (tPA)
tissue plasminogen activator (tPA)
37
Glucocorticoids are the main drugs used in the treatment of immune-mediated hemolytic anemia (IMHA) in dogs because if their immunosuppressive action.
a. True
b. False
true
38
Heparin
a. is effective when given orally
b. interferes with the formation of prothrombin
c. is an active thrombolytic agent
d. has a long duration of action
e. can be used in the treatment of pulmonary thromboembolism in dogs
be used in the treatment of pulmonary thromboembolism in dogs
39
Which of the following agents is used for controlling bleeding due to systemic hyperfibrinolysis?
a. fresh frozen plasma (FFP)
b. vitamin K1
c. thrombin
d. aminocaproic acid
aminocaproic acid
40
Which of the following statements about the mechanism of action of warfarin is TRUE?
a. It inhibits production of precursor proteins of clotting factors II, VII, IX, and X
b. It increases metabolism of vitamin K-dependent clotting factors
c. It stimulates carboxylation of vitamin K-dependent clotting factors
d. It inhibits vitamin K epoxide reductase
It inhibits vitamin K epoxide reductase
41
what activates conversion of plasminogen to plasma resulting in fibrinolysis?
streptokinase
urokinase
anistreplase
tissue plasminogen activator
42
what blocks GPIIB
abciximade
43
what increases cAMP
dipyridamole
44
what binds to thrombin
lepirudin
45
what inhibits ADP binding --> plavid
clopidorgrel
46
at lose dose it can prevent thrombotic disorders
aspirin
47
treatment of edema associated with CHF
digitalis, phosphodiesterase inhibitors (aminophylline, inamrine, milrinone)
48
txt of LOCALIZED cerebral edema
mannitol
49
txt of ACUTE glaucoma
mannitol
50
what are the osmotic diuretic?
mannitol, urea, glycerin, isosrbide.....give mannitol and urea IV
51
txt of GENERALIZED edema?
furosemide
52
txt of exercise-induced pulmonary hemorrgae in horses
furosemide
53
txt of hypercalcemia when combo with isotonic saline
furosemide
54
side effets of loop diuretics
ototoxicity
hypokalemia
hyperglycemia
systemic alkalosis
55
what are the loof diuretics?
furosemide
bumetanide
ethacrynic acid
56
txt of Ca nephyrolithiasis
thiazides
57
txt of nephrogenic diabetes
thiazides
58
what are the thiazides
hydrocholorthiazide
| chlorothiazide
59
what are the potassium sparing diuretics
spironolactone
triamterene
amiloride
60
txt of prim and secd hyperaldosterone
sprio
61
side effects sprio, triameterene, amiloride
hyperkalemia
| systemic acidosis
62
treatment of CHRONIC glaucome
acetazolamide, methazolamide, dorzolame, brinzolamide
63
The following are therapeutic uses of thiazide diuretics EXCEPT
a. congestive heart failure
b. hypertension
c. diabetes insipidus
d. prevention of calcium oxalate uroliths in dogs
e. hypercalcemia
hypercalcemia
64
All of the following drugs can aggravate hyperkalemia EXCEPT
a. amiloride
b. spironolactone
c. enalapril
d. triamterene
e. furosemide
furosemide
65
21. Which of the following diuretics is LEAST likely to affect electrolyte transport at the nephron epithelium?
a. hydrochlorthiazide
b. acetazolamide
c. mannitol
d. furosemide
e. spironolactone
mannitol
66
Which of the following diuretics is MOST likely to cause hypotension, shock and cardiac arrhythmias?
a. spironolactone
b. triamterene
c. hydrochlorothiazide
d. furosemide
e. mannitol
furosemide
67
Which of the following diuretics is LEAST effective?
a. loop diuretics
b. thiazide diuretics
c. potassium-sparing
d. carbonic anhydrase inhibitors
potassium-sparing
68
Loop diuretics are the drugs of choice for the treatment of acute pulmonary edema.
a. True
b. False
true
69
A diuretic that acts directly by blocking sodium channels is
a. furosemide
b. hydrochlorothiazide
c. acetazolamide
d. amiloride
e. spironolactone
amiloride
70
19. The MOST commonly used drug for treatment of excercise-induced pulmonary hemorrhage (EIPH) in the horse is
a. hydrochlorothiazide
b. furosemide
c. spironolactone
d. mannitol
e. triamteren
furosemide
71
For which of the following conditions is mannitol indicated?
a. inflammation
b. increased intraocular pressure
c. diabetes insipidus
d. hypokalemia
e. urinary retention
intraocular pressure
72
Which of the following diuretics is LEAST likely to affect electrolyte transport at the nephron epithelium?
a. furosemide
b. acetazolamide
c. hydrochlorothiazide
d. triamterene
e. mannitol
mannitol
73
Which of the following diuretics is LEAST likely to increase the risk of digitalis-induced tachyarrhythmias?
a. furosemide
b. spironolactone
c. hydrochlorothiazide
d. acetazolamide
e. bumetanide
Spiro
74
Which of the following diuretics is MOST likely to be used for the treatment of hypercalcemia?
a. aminophylline
b. mannitol
c. spironolactone
d. furosemide
e. hydrochlorothiazide
furosimide
75
Which of the following diuretics are LEAST likely to be useful in treating conditions associated with sodium retention?
a. loop diuretics
b. thiazide diuretics
c. osmotic diuretics
d. carbonic anhydrase inhibitor diurtics
e. potassium-sparing diuretics
osmotic
76
The drug of choice for treatment of central diabetes insipidus (CDI) in dogs and cats is
a. hydrochlorothiazide
b. desmopressin (DDAVP)
c. chlorpropamide
d. furosemide
e. insulin
depsmo
77
Spironolactone causes diuresis by competitive antagonism of antidiuretic hormone (ADH) receptors.
a. True
b. False
false
78
All of the following are clinical uses of thiazide diuretics EXCEPT
a. treatment of edema of chronic heart failure
b. treatment of diabetes insipidus
c. treatment of hypertension
d. treatment of oliguria of acute renal failure
treatment of oliguria of acute renal failure
79
Which of the following diuretics is used to treat hypokalemia?
a. furosemide
b. hydrochlorothiazide
c. amiloride
d. mannitol
miloride
80
Which of the following drugs is used to treat glaucoma and acts by inhibiting formation of aqueous humor?
a. mannitol
b. dorzolamide
c. furosemide
d. hydorchlorothiazide
dorzo
