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pharm 2 > midterm 1 > Flashcards

midterm 1 Flashcards

1
Q

what do you give for microcytic anemia

A

iron preparations

  • iron dextran(IM/SQ)
  • ferrous salts (oral)

copper preparation

  • copper sulfate (orally)
  • copper glycinate (SQ/IM)
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2
Q

what is macocytic anemia in ruminants due to?

A

cobalt deficiency

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3
Q

what can you give for IMHA?

A
  • supportive treatment
  • blood transfusion (oxyglobine)
  • immunosuppressives (pred) (azathiprine & cyclocphosphamide) danazal, cyclosprosin A
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4
Q

what do you give for CRF or BM suppression?

A

EPO, iron, anabolic steroids

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5
Q

what treats anti-cancer chemo & stimulates progenitor cells of Neutrophils

A

filgrastim

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6
Q

what treats anti-cancer chemo & stimulates progenitor cells of Neutrophils & macrophages

A

sargramostim

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7
Q

what adverse effects does sargramostim cause?

A

bone pain, fever, cardipulonary tox

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8
Q

styptic -vasoconstrictor

A

epi

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9
Q

styptic- astringents

A

tannic acid, ferric chloride

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10
Q

styptics- surgical

A

oxidized cellulose, gelatin sponge, collagen

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11
Q

styptics-physiological

A

thromboplastin, thrombin*, fibrinogen, fibrin foam

NOT PROTHROMBIN

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12
Q

provides blood volume along with all factors needed for normal hemostasis

A

blood transfusion, fresh frozen plasma

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13
Q

Vk1=?

A

phytonadione

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14
Q

txt for warfarin poison, sweet clover toxicty, epistaxic horses?

A

vk1

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15
Q

stimulate formation of prothrombin and 2,7,9,10

A

vk1

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16
Q

txt for heparin poison?

A

protamine sulfate..be careful it can have an anticoagulant effect

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17
Q

txt for hemorrhage due to hyperfibrinolysis?

A

aminocaproic Acid

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18
Q

txt for degenerative myelo in germans

A

amicocaproic Acid

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19
Q

MOA for aminocaproic acid

A

inhibits conversion of plasminogen to plasmin to stop bleeding due to too much fribin

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20
Q

what controlls bleeding in dogs wtih vWD?

A

desmopressin aka analgoue of vasopressin(ADH)

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21
Q

what are the systemic hemostatics?

A
  • blood transfusion/plasma
  • vitK
  • protamine sulfate
  • aminocaproic acid
  • desmopressin
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22
Q

Which of the following agents is MOST effective in treating severe anemia caused by renal disease or bone marrow suppression?

a. anabolic steroids
b. ferrous sulfate
c. copper sulfate
d. vitamin B12
e. erythropoeitin

A

epo

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23
Q

Used for rapid reversal of warfarin effects

a. aminocaproic acid
b. whole plasma
c. protamine sulfate
d. vitamin K1
e. vitamin K3

A

whole plasma

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24
Q

what activates antithrobim III resulting in inhibition of thrombin

A

heparin

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25
Q

what is the anticoagulant choice during prego?

A

heparin

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26
Q

what inhibits prothrombin and coag factors

A

warfarin

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27
Q

Heparin is used in acute thromboembolism to directly break down an existing clot.

a. True
b. False

A

false

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28
Q

Mechanism of action of heparin

a. blocks fibrinogen receptors
b. competitively inhibits binding of plasmin and plasmiongen to fibrin’s lysin residues
c. competitively antagonizes vitamin k
d. stimulates conversion of plasminogen to plasmin
e. activates antithrombin III

A

activates antithrombin III

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29
Q

The antithrombotic action of aspirin is due to

a. activating antithrombin III
b. antagonizing vitamin K
c. inhibiting platelet aggregation
d. activating conversion of plasminogen to plasmin

A

inhibiting platelet aggregation

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30
Q
  1. Mechanism of action of streptokinase is

a. inhibiting prothrombin and factors VII, IX and X
b. activating antithrombin III
c. stimulating conversion of plasminogen to plasmin
d. inhibiting platelet aggregation
e. inhibiting conversion of plasminogen to plasmin

A

. stimulating conversion of plasminogen to plasmin

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31
Q

All of the following statements about warfarin are true EXCEPT

a. It has a relatively slow onset of action
b. It is used to prevent thromboembolism
c. It inhibits factors II, VII, IX and X
d. It can be used safely during pregnancy
e. It has a narrow safety margin

A

It can be used safely during pregnancy

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32
Q

Which of the following drugs is PREFERRED for chronic anticoagulation therapy?

a. heprin
b. vitamin k1
c. warfarin
d. aminocaproic acid
e. streptokinase

A

wafarin

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33
Q

Which of the following agents is MOST effective in treating severe anemia caused by renal disease or depression of the bone marrow?

a. anabolic steroids
b. ferrous sulfate
c. copper sulfate
d. vitamin B12
e. erythropoeitin

A

epo

34
Q

Action of streptokinase is

a. anticoagulant
b. procoagulant
c. thrombolytic
d. antiplatelet
e. vasodilator

A

thrombolytic

35
Q

Which of the following statements about the mechanism of action of anticoagulant rodenticides is TRUE?

a. They inhibit production of precursor proteins of clotting factors II, VII, IX, and X
b. They increase metabolism of vitamin K-dependent clotting factors
c. They activate precursor proteins of clotting factors II, VII, IX, and X
d. They stimulate carboxylation of vitamin K-dependent clotting factors
e. They inhibit vitamin K epoxide reductase

A

They inhibit vitamin K epoxide reductase

36
Q

. All of the following agents can be used for control of bleeding EXCEPT

a. aminocaproic acid
b. fresh frozen plasma (FFP)
c. phytonadione
d. thrombin (topically)
e. tissue plasminogen activator (tPA)

A

tissue plasminogen activator (tPA)

37
Q

Glucocorticoids are the main drugs used in the treatment of immune-mediated hemolytic anemia (IMHA) in dogs because if their immunosuppressive action.

a. True
b. False

A

true

38
Q

Heparin

a. is effective when given orally
b. interferes with the formation of prothrombin
c. is an active thrombolytic agent
d. has a long duration of action
e. can be used in the treatment of pulmonary thromboembolism in dogs

A

be used in the treatment of pulmonary thromboembolism in dogs

39
Q

Which of the following agents is used for controlling bleeding due to systemic hyperfibrinolysis?

a. fresh frozen plasma (FFP)
b. vitamin K1
c. thrombin
d. aminocaproic acid
A

aminocaproic acid

40
Q

Which of the following statements about the mechanism of action of warfarin is TRUE?

a. It inhibits production of precursor proteins of clotting factors II, VII, IX, and X
b. It increases metabolism of vitamin K-dependent clotting factors
c. It stimulates carboxylation of vitamin K-dependent clotting factors
d. It inhibits vitamin K epoxide reductase
A

It inhibits vitamin K epoxide reductase

41
Q

what activates conversion of plasminogen to plasma resulting in fibrinolysis?

A

streptokinase
urokinase
anistreplase
tissue plasminogen activator

42
Q

what blocks GPIIB

A

abciximade

43
Q

what increases cAMP

A

dipyridamole

44
Q

what binds to thrombin

A

lepirudin

45
Q

what inhibits ADP binding –> plavid

A

clopidorgrel

46
Q

at lose dose it can prevent thrombotic disorders

A

aspirin

47
Q

treatment of edema associated with CHF

A

digitalis, phosphodiesterase inhibitors (aminophylline, inamrine, milrinone)

48
Q

txt of LOCALIZED cerebral edema

A

mannitol

49
Q

txt of ACUTE glaucoma

A

mannitol

50
Q

what are the osmotic diuretic?

A

mannitol, urea, glycerin, isosrbide…..give mannitol and urea IV

51
Q

txt of GENERALIZED edema?

A

furosemide

52
Q

txt of exercise-induced pulmonary hemorrgae in horses

A

furosemide

53
Q

txt of hypercalcemia when combo with isotonic saline

A

furosemide

54
Q

side effets of loop diuretics

A

ototoxicity
hypokalemia
hyperglycemia
systemic alkalosis

55
Q

what are the loof diuretics?

A

furosemide
bumetanide
ethacrynic acid

56
Q

txt of Ca nephyrolithiasis

A

thiazides

57
Q

txt of nephrogenic diabetes

A

thiazides

58
Q

what are the thiazides

A

hydrocholorthiazide

chlorothiazide

59
Q

what are the potassium sparing diuretics

A

spironolactone
triamterene
amiloride

60
Q

txt of prim and secd hyperaldosterone

A

sprio

61
Q

side effects sprio, triameterene, amiloride

A

hyperkalemia

systemic acidosis

62
Q

treatment of CHRONIC glaucome

A

acetazolamide, methazolamide, dorzolame, brinzolamide

63
Q

The following are therapeutic uses of thiazide diuretics EXCEPT

a. congestive heart failure
b. hypertension
c. diabetes insipidus
d. prevention of calcium oxalate uroliths in dogs
e. hypercalcemia

A

hypercalcemia

64
Q

All of the following drugs can aggravate hyperkalemia EXCEPT

a. amiloride
b. spironolactone
c. enalapril
d. triamterene
e. furosemide

A

furosemide

65
Q
  1. Which of the following diuretics is LEAST likely to affect electrolyte transport at the nephron epithelium?

a. hydrochlorthiazide
b. acetazolamide
c. mannitol
d. furosemide
e. spironolactone

A

mannitol

66
Q

Which of the following diuretics is MOST likely to cause hypotension, shock and cardiac arrhythmias?

a. spironolactone
b. triamterene
c. hydrochlorothiazide
d. furosemide
e. mannitol

A

furosemide

67
Q

Which of the following diuretics is LEAST effective?

a. loop diuretics
b. thiazide diuretics
c. potassium-sparing
d. carbonic anhydrase inhibitors

A

potassium-sparing

68
Q

Loop diuretics are the drugs of choice for the treatment of acute pulmonary edema.

a. True
b. False

A

true

69
Q

A diuretic that acts directly by blocking sodium channels is

a. furosemide
b. hydrochlorothiazide
c. acetazolamide
d. amiloride
e. spironolactone

A

amiloride

70
Q
  1. The MOST commonly used drug for treatment of excercise-induced pulmonary hemorrhage (EIPH) in the horse is

a. hydrochlorothiazide
b. furosemide
c. spironolactone
d. mannitol
e. triamteren

A

furosemide

71
Q

For which of the following conditions is mannitol indicated?

a. inflammation
b. increased intraocular pressure
c. diabetes insipidus
d. hypokalemia
e. urinary retention

A

intraocular pressure

72
Q

Which of the following diuretics is LEAST likely to affect electrolyte transport at the nephron epithelium?

a. furosemide
b. acetazolamide
c. hydrochlorothiazide
d. triamterene
e. mannitol

A

mannitol

73
Q

Which of the following diuretics is LEAST likely to increase the risk of digitalis-induced tachyarrhythmias?

a. furosemide
b. spironolactone
c. hydrochlorothiazide
d. acetazolamide
e. bumetanide

A

Spiro

74
Q

Which of the following diuretics is MOST likely to be used for the treatment of hypercalcemia?

a. aminophylline
b. mannitol
c. spironolactone
d. furosemide
e. hydrochlorothiazide

A

furosimide

75
Q

Which of the following diuretics are LEAST likely to be useful in treating conditions associated with sodium retention?

a. loop diuretics
b. thiazide diuretics
c. osmotic diuretics
d. carbonic anhydrase inhibitor diurtics
e. potassium-sparing diuretics

A

osmotic

76
Q

The drug of choice for treatment of central diabetes insipidus (CDI) in dogs and cats is

a. hydrochlorothiazide
b. desmopressin (DDAVP)
c. chlorpropamide
d. furosemide
e. insulin

A

depsmo

77
Q

Spironolactone causes diuresis by competitive antagonism of antidiuretic hormone (ADH) receptors.

a. True
b. False

A

false

78
Q

All of the following are clinical uses of thiazide diuretics EXCEPT

a. treatment of edema of chronic heart failure
b. treatment of diabetes insipidus
c. treatment of hypertension
d. treatment of oliguria of acute renal failure
A

treatment of oliguria of acute renal failure

79
Q

Which of the following diuretics is used to treat hypokalemia?

a. furosemide
b. hydrochlorothiazide
c. amiloride
d. mannitol
A

miloride

80
Q

Which of the following drugs is used to treat glaucoma and acts by inhibiting formation of aqueous humor?

a. mannitol
b. dorzolamide
c. furosemide
d. hydorchlorothiazide
A

dorzo

pharm 2 (11 decks)

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