Misc Questions Flashcards Preview

Fall2014 - Pharm ID/Pulm > Misc Questions > Flashcards

Flashcards in Misc Questions Deck (53):
1

Which drugs have an interaction with warfarin?

-metronidazole
-FQs
-TMP/SMX
-macrolides

2

Which drugs are CI in pregnancy?

-FQs
-TCNs
-sulfa (TMP/SMX)

3

What are the common intracellular pathogens?

-3 types atypical pneumonia: Mycoplasma, Chlamydia, Legionella
-Mycobacterium
-Rickettsiae

4

Which abx classes have activity against intracellular pathogens?

-FQs
-TCNs
-macrolides

5

Which abx require adjusted dosing for renal dysfunction?

-penicillins (except nafcillin)
-most cephs (except ceftriaxone)
-vancomycin
-TMP/SMX
-aminogylcosides
-TCNs (except doxy and minocycline)
-FQs

6

Describe vancomycin monitoring.

-peak trough levels
-obtain around 4th dose (both or trough only)
-10-15 mcg/mL recommended
-peak is controversial so many hospitals only do trough

7

Which abx class requires use of double coverage to treat Pseudomonas?

cephalosporins

8

What drug is used in treatment of CF?

monobactams

9

How is vancomycin administered and why?

-IV for systemic infections
-it is NOT absorbed via the GI tract

10

What are some ways to prevent vancomycin resistance?

Discouraged use in:
-prophylaxis for infection of vascular catheters
-eradication of MRSA/CA-MRSA
-primary tx for C diff
-routine prophylaxis for VLBW infants
-routine prophylaxis for peritoneal dialysis

11

What can be used to treat HCA-MRSA?

**vancomycin DOC**
-TMP/SMX
-Linezolid
-Daptomycin
-Televancin
-Ceftaroline

12

What can be used to treat CA-MRSA?

-mild to moderate: TMP/SMX, clindamycin, doxy
-severe: vancomycin

13

What can be used to treat VRE?

-Linezolid
-Quinupristin/Dalfopristin
-Daptomycin

14

What drug interactions must be avoided with FQ use?

-chelation (decreased absorption) with metal cations eg antacids, iron salts (take 2 hrs before or after)
-theophylline (cipro)
-warfarin
-any meds that prolong QT interval (moxifloxacin)

15

What drugs can get to the CSF?

-TMP/SMX
-metronidazole

16

What are aminoglycosides used in combination with and why?

-beta lactams
-beta lactams affect bacterial cell wall
-weaker cell wall allows AGs to get in and affect protein synthesis

17

Which abx act on the 30S ribosome?

-aminoglycosides
-tetracyclines

18

Which abx act on the 50S ribosome?

-macrolides
-clindamycin

19

Which abx can be used to treat P. acnes?

-TCNs --> doxycycline

20

What is important to remember about erythromycin absorption?

-destroyed by gastric acid
-food decreases absorption

21

Which drugs may cause QT prolongation and must be administered carefully?

-macrolides and FQs

22

Which abx has C. diff as a potential adverse effect?

-clindamycin

23

What drug has a bad interaction w/ EtOH and what happens?

-metronidazole
-get a build up of acetaldehyde
-causes nausea and flushing
-no EtOH during tx or 3 days after

24

What is the chief avoidable cause of illness and death in the US?

smoking/tobacco use

25

What is the most common infectious cause of death in the US?

community acquired pneumonia

26

What are the top 2 nosocomial infections in the US?

1. UTI
2. HAP

27

What 2 drugs are used to treat Enterococcus?

IV ampicillin and gentamicin

28

Which macrolide has the highest bioavailability?

clarithromycin

29

What are three respiratory FQs?

Levofloxacin
Moxifloxacin
Gemifloxacin

30

What is the dosage for an oral prednisone burst for COPD exacerbation?

40 mg PO qday x5 days

31

What are the options for H. pylori treatment?

amoxicillin
TCN
clarithromycin
metronidazole

32

What is used to treat Trichomoniasis?

metronidazole

33

Which abx require pharmacokinetic monitoring? Why?

vancomycin and AGs
due to ototoxicity and nephrotoxicity side effects

34

What is the FQ of choice for Pseudomonas?

cipro

35

Which macrolide has the most significant drug interactions?

erythromycin

36

Which macrolide has the fewest significant drug interactions?

azithromycin

37

Common Cervicitis/Proctitis/Urethritis Pathogens

Neisseria and Chlamydia

38

In asthma treatment, what are thrush, dysphonia and coughing side effects of?

Inhaled Corticosteroids

39

What are the 4th generation cephalosporins?

Cefipime
Ceftaroline

40

What asthma intervention prevents inflammation but does not treat it?

Leukotriene modifiers (Singulair/Montelukast)

41

What treatment can be used for nighttime asthma sxs or with prolonged exercise?

LAB2A

42

What is the treatment for atypical pneumonia?

resp FQs (eg moxifloxacin)
macrolides
doxycycline

43

What disease is caused by Rickettsiae?

Rocky Mtn Spotted Fever

44

What drug has good Gm+ and anaerobe coverage?

Clindamycin

45

For a decreased asthma response to PRN SABA, what is the treatment?

prednisone burst 3-10 days

46

Red Neck Syndrome is a side effect of what drug?

Vancomycin

47

Which cephalosporin has activity against MRSA?

Ceftaroline

48

What is indicated in Tx and Px of influenza A and B?

Oseltamivir and Zanamivir

49

Which cephalosporins has pseudomonas activity?

Ceftazidime, Cefipime

50

Which drug is most likely to cause seizures?

Imipenem

51

Which antibiotic has no absorption when given orally? What is the only indication for giving this drug orally?

-vancomycin
-c diff if it is unresponsive to metronidazole

52

What is essential therapy for persistent asthma?

ICS and PRN SAB2A

53

What agent is used to treat Chlamydia (STI)?

azithromycin or doxy