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CFS-6300 Integrative Anatomy, Neurology, Histology, & Embryology > Module 2A: Anatomy of GI and Lymphatic System > Flashcards

Module 2A: Anatomy of GI and Lymphatic System Flashcards

(101 cards)

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1
Q

What is the digestive system composed of?

A

A long muscular tube from lips to anus, including:
* Oral cavity
* Pharynx
* Esophagus
* Stomach
* Small intestine
* Large intestine
* Rectum, anal canal
* Accessory glands (salivary glands, liver, pancreas)

The digestive system consists of various organs and glands that play a role in the breakdown and absorption of food.

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2
Q

What is the function of the labial frenulum?

A

A vertical fold of mucosa in the median plane of the mouth extending between the lips and gum

The labial frenulum helps anchor the lips to the gums.

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3
Q

What structures are included in the anatomy of the tongue?

A

The tongue includes:
* Apex
* Body
* Root
* Median sulcus
* Terminal sulcus

These structures define the shape and functionality of the tongue.

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4
Q

Which cranial nerves are involved in the afferent innervation of the tongue?

A

The afferent innervations are from:
* V (trigeminal nerve)
* VII (facial nerve)
* IX (glossopharyngeal nerve)
* X (vagus nerve)

These nerves are responsible for various sensations, including taste and pressure.

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5
Q

What are the basic tastes and their associated ions or receptors?

A

The basic tastes are:
* Salty - Na+
* Sour - H+
* Sweet - G protein-coupled receptor for glucose
* Bitter - G protein-coupled (varies)
* Umami - G protein-coupled, glutamate-binding
* Spicy - irritation of CN V3

Each taste sensation has a specific chemical or receptor associated with it.

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6
Q

Fill in the blank: The _______ is the part of the tooth covered by enamel.

A

Crown

The crown is the visible part of the tooth that is above the gum line.

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7
Q

What is the dental formula for permanent teeth?

A

I 2/2, C 1/1, B 2/2, M 3/3 = 16

This formula represents the arrangement of incisors, canines, bicuspids, and molars in one quadrant of the mouth.

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8
Q

What are the four parts of the large intestine?

A

The four parts are:
* Cecum
* Colon
* Rectum
* Anal canal

The large intestine plays a crucial role in water absorption and waste elimination.

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9
Q

What is the main function of the pyloric sphincter?

A

Guards the opening of the pylorus into the duodenum

The pyloric sphincter controls the passage of partially digested food from the stomach to the small intestine.

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10
Q

What is the length and diameter of the duodenum?

A

Length: ~10-12 inches; Diameter: ~1 inch

The duodenum is the first part of the small intestine and plays a role in digestion.

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11
Q

What is the role of the muscular coats in the intestines?

A

The muscular coats consist of:
* Inner oblique layer
* Middle circular layer
* Outer longitudinal layer

These layers facilitate the movement of food through peristalsis.

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12
Q

What is the significance of the epiglottis?

A

Guards the inlet to the larynx and diverts food through the piriform recess

The epiglottis prevents food from entering the airway during swallowing.

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13
Q

True or False: The stomach is a true anatomical sphincter.

A

False

The cardiac (esophageal) sphincter is a physiological sphincter, not a true anatomical one.

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14
Q

What attaches the ileum and jejunum to the posterior abdominal wall?

A

Mesentery

The root of the mesentery is where it attaches to the posterior abdominal wall.

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15
Q

What is the length and the number of parts of the large intestine?

A

5-6’, 4 parts

The four parts are cecum, colon, rectum, and anal canal.

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16
Q

What is the cecum?

A

Region inferior to ileocecal valve; anatomical or physiological classification is debatable

The cecum is the beginning of the large intestine.

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17
Q

What is the mesoappendix?

A

Mesentery of appendix

It suspends the cecum and appendix.

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18
Q

What are the four parts of the colon?

A
  • Ascending colon
  • Transverse colon
  • Descending colon
  • Sigmoid colon

Each part has specific anatomical features and functions.

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19
Q

Where does the ascending colon extend from and to?

A

From cecum to right colic (hepatic) flexure

It is retroperitoneal.

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20
Q

What suspends the transverse colon?

A

Transverse mesocolon

The transverse colon connects the right and left colic flexures.

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21
Q

What is the function of taenia coli?

A

Compress colon longitudinally forming haustra

Taenia coli are three bands of outer longitudinal smooth muscle layer.

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22
Q

What are haustra?

A

Sacculations formed by the taenia coli

They create the segmented appearance of the colon.

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23
Q

What are appendices epiploicae?

A

Small (or large) fat-filled pouches of peritoneum hanging from the free surface of colon

They are visible on the surface of the colon.

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24
Q

What is the length of the rectum?

A

6-8” of large intestine

The upper part of the rectum is retroperitoneal.

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25
Where does the rectum begin and end?
Begins at rectosigmoid junction (S3) and ends at anal canal ## Footnote It follows the curvatures of the sacrum and coccyx.
26
What are the transverse rectal folds also known as?
Valves of Houston ## Footnote They project into the lumen of the rectum.
27
What is the difference between the anatomical anal canal and the clinical anal canal?
Anatomical anal canal begins at upper surface of pelvic diaphragm, clinical anal canal begins at pectinate line ## Footnote The pectinate line is formed by anal columns and valves.
28
What is the function of the sphincter ani internus?
Part of inner smooth muscle layer ## Footnote It is involuntary.
29
What is the function of the sphincter ani externus?
Outer layer of skeletal muscle (voluntary) ## Footnote It controls the expulsion of feces.
30
What is the peritoneum?
Serous membrane that secretes serous fluid to lubricate peritoneal surfaces ## Footnote It allows for the free movement of certain viscera.
31
What are the two parts of the peritoneal cavity?
* Greater sac * Lesser sac/Omental bursa ## Footnote The greater sac is the main compartment, while the lesser sac lies behind the stomach.
32
What are retroperitoneal organs?
Certain organs that lie deep/posterior to parietal peritoneum ## Footnote Retroperitoneal organs do not have a mesentery.
33
List some retroperitoneal organs.
* Suprarenal glands * Abdominal aorta + IVC * Duodenum (2nd and 3rd parts) * Pancreas (not the tail) * Ureters * Colon (ascending & descending) * Kidneys * Esophagus * Rectum ## Footnote These organs are located behind the peritoneal cavity.
34
What is mesentery?
Double-layer of serous membrane that attaches viscus to abdominal wall ## Footnote It provides support and route for vessels, lymphatics, and nerves.
35
What is the greater omentum?
Extends from greater curvature of stomach, hangs like an apron anterior to small intestine ## Footnote It folds back on itself and attaches at the inferior border of the transverse colon.
36
What is the porta hepatis?
All structures entering or leaving liver pass through this opening ## Footnote It includes blood vessels and bile ducts.
37
What are the main lobes of the liver?
* Right lobe * Left lobe ## Footnote The liver has two main lobes and a total of four lobes.
38
What is the function of the gallbladder?
Stores and concentrates bile ## Footnote It has three parts: fundus, body, and neck.
39
What are the parts of the pancreas?
* Head * Neck * Body * Tail ## Footnote The head lies in the curvature of the duodenum.
40
What are the two types of ducts in the pancreas?
* Major (chief) duct (of Wirsung) * Minor (accessory) duct (of Santorini) ## Footnote These ducts are involved in the transport of digestive enzymes.
41
True or False: The pancreas is a retroperitoneal organ.
True ## Footnote It lies posterior to the peritoneum.
42
What type of cartilage covers the articular surfaces of the mandibular condyle and mandibular fossa in the TMJ?
Fibrocartilage ## Footnote Unlike hyaline cartilage, fibrocartilage provides additional strength and support.
43
What structure divides the TMJ cavity into upper and lower compartments?
Articular fibrocartilaginous disc (meniscus) ## Footnote This disc plays a crucial role in joint movement and stability.
44
What type of joint is formed in the upper compartment of the TMJ?
Plane joint
45
What type of joint is formed in the lower compartment of the TMJ?
Ginglymus joint
46
What ligament connects the zygomatic arch to the lateral neck of the mandible?
Lateral (TM) Ligament
47
What ligament connects the spine of the sphenoid to the lingula of the mandible?
Sphenomandibular Ligament
48
What ligament connects the styloid process to the lower posterior edge of the mandibular ramus?
Stylomandibular Ligament
49
What is the primary action of the Masseter Muscle?
Closes lower jaw by elevating the mandible; very small amount of protraction
50
What is the origin of the Temporalis Muscle?
Temporal fossa
51
What is the function of the Lateral Pterygoid Muscle?
Protraction of mandible; chin moves straight forward or to opposite side ## Footnote It plays a role in grinding food.
52
Fill in the blank: The deepest of the four muscles of mastication is the _______.
Medial Pterygoid Muscle
53
What are the two simultaneous movements involved in opening the jaw?
* Protraction * Depression of Mandible
54
What muscle primarily accomplishes the protraction of the mandible?
Lateral Pterygoid Muscle
55
What type of movement occurs when the mandibular condyle rotates in the lower compartment of the TMJ?
Hinge movement
56
What muscles are responsible for the opposition or occlusion of teeth when closing the jaw?
* Masseter * Temporalis * Medial Pterygoid
57
What generally produces the depression of the mandible?
Gravity
58
Which muscles can be used to indirectly depress the mandible?
* Suprahyoid Muscles * Infrahyoid Muscles
59
Name the suprahyoid muscles involved in opening the mouth.
* Mylohyoid * Geniohyoid * Digastric
60
True or False: The Platysma is a hyoid muscle.
False
61
What is the relationship between TMJ dysfunction and upper cervical dysfunction?
Upper cervical mobilization/manipulation can affect TMJ pain and function.
62
What are the three major systems of vascular supply in the abdominal region?
Aorta, Caval (systemic venous system), Portal venous system
63
What is the origin and significance of the celiac trunk?
Upper border of L1; supplies the stomach, spleen, and pancreas
64
List the three branches of the celiac trunk.
* Left gastric a * Splenic a * Common Hepatic a
65
What does the left gastric artery supply?
Cardiac stomach, lesser omentum, left half of small curvature of stomach
66
What is the function of the splenic artery?
Supplies the spleen and parts of the stomach and pancreas
67
Which artery supplies the liver?
Proper hepatic artery
68
What does the superior mesenteric artery supply?
Pancreas, small intestine, ascending and transverse colon
69
Fill in the blank: The inferior mesenteric artery supplies the _______.
Descending colon, sigmoid colon, rectum
70
What are the paired visceral branches of the abdominal aorta?
* R & L middle suprarenal aa * R & L renal aa * R & L inferior suprarenal a * Gonadal aa
71
True or False: The common iliac arteries are terminal branches of the abdominal aorta.
True
72
What is collateral arterial circulation?
Several routes in event of aortic obstruction
73
What is the significance of the marginal artery?
Anastomoses parallel to the inner margin of colon
74
What does the inferior vena cava receive?
Veins corresponding to paired visceral and parietal branches
75
Fill in the blank: The portal vein is formed by the confluence of the _______ and _______.
Superior mesenteric vein, splenic vein
76
What is the typical flow of blood in the portal venous system?
Artery → capillary → portal vein → capillary (liver sinusoids) → vein → heart
77
What happens in case of portal vein obstruction?
Rectal veins (hemorrhoids) and esophageal veins (varices) become prominent
78
What is 'caput medusa'?
Formation of superficial veins around the umbilicus due to portal hypertension
79
List the areas of portal-caval anastomoses.
* Superior rectal and middle/inferior rectal * Esophageal plexus * Paraumbilical area
80
What do the gonadal arteries supply in males?
Testes, ureter, cremaster, spermatic cord
81
What do the gonadal arteries supply in females?
Ovaries, labia majora, ureter, uterine tubes
82
Fill in the blank: The lumbar arteries supply the _______ and _______.
Skin and muscles of the back, abdominal wall
83
What is the role of the hepatic veins?
Drain blood from the liver into the inferior vena cava
84
What is a significant clinical application of portal hypertension?
Enlargement of veins leading to hemorrhoids and varices
85
What is the primary function of the lymphatic system?
Drains fluid from tissue spaces, absorbs & transports fats, provides immune defense mechanism ## Footnote The lymphatic system plays a crucial role in maintaining fluid balance and supporting the immune system.
86
What are the main components of the lymphatic system?
Lymph vessels, lymph nodes, lymph organs (tonsils, spleen, thymus) ## Footnote Lymph organs include solitary or aggregated lymphatic nodules such as Peyer's patches.
87
What is the difference between superficial and deep lymphatic vessels?
Superficial vessels are located in superficial fascia near superficial veins; deep vessels are fewer, larger, and follow deep arteries & veins ## Footnote Superficial vessels are found in the head, neck, and limbs, while deep vessels are in the thorax and abdomen.
88
What is lymph?
Tissue fluid inside lymphatic vessels ## Footnote Lymph is crucial for transporting nutrients and waste products.
89
What is chyle?
Fat-laden lymph ## Footnote Chyle is formed in the intestines after the digestion of fats.
90
What mechanisms control lymph flow?
Contraction of surrounding muscles, pulsation of adjacent arteries, respiratory movements, contraction of smooth muscle in lymphatic vessel walls, hydrostatic pressure of blood ## Footnote The rate of lymph flow through the thoracic duct is about 1.25 liters/day.
91
What are the superficial groups of lymph nodes in the head and neck?
Parotid nodes, pre- & postauricular nodes, occipital nodes, submental nodes, submandibular nodes, superficial cervical nodes ## Footnote These nodes are located along superficial lymphatic vessels.
92
What is the drainage pathway for the right set of lymph nodes in the head and neck?
Deep cervical nodes → Right lymphatic duct → Venous system at junction of right subclavian & right internal jugular veins ## Footnote This pathway allows for the proper drainage of lymphatic fluid.
93
Where are the superficial inguinal nodes located?
Inferior to inguinal ligament; drain lymphatic vessels of lower limb, inguinal area, lower external abdomen, & superficial parts of external genitalia ## Footnote These nodes are essential for draining lymph from the lower regions.
94
What are the deep inguinal nodes associated with?
Located near upper proximal femoral vein; drain deep lymphatic vessels of lower limb ## Footnote These nodes are part of the deeper lymphatic drainage system.
95
What is the cisterna chyli?
Dilated, inferior part of the thoracic duct located at L2 vertebral level ## Footnote It collects lymph from the lower body before it enters the thoracic duct.
96
What are the bronchial nodes associated with?
Associated with the bronchial tree ## Footnote These nodes play a role in draining lymph from the lungs.
97
What is the drainage pathway for the left set of bronchial and mediastinal nodes?
Left bronchial & mediastinal nodes → Thoracic duct → Venous system at junction of left subclavian & left internal jugular veins ## Footnote This pathway is crucial for lymphatic drainage from the left thoracic region.
98
What is the location of the spleen?
Upper left quadrant ## Footnote The spleen is involved in filtering blood and immune responses.
99
What are the components of the thymus?
Two lobes, medulla, cortex, capsule ## Footnote The thymus is essential for T-cell development and immune function.
100
What is thymic involution?
Fat replacement of the thymus with age ## Footnote This process leads to a decrease in thymus size and function over time.
101
What is the role of thymocytes?
Elimination of self-reactive T and B cells (central tolerance) ## Footnote This process is crucial for preventing autoimmune diseases.

CFS-6300 Integrative Anatomy, Neurology, Histology, & Embryology (14 decks)

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