Module 3 Flashcards
1
Q
The most common cause of hypoxemia
A
ventilation-perfusion mismatch
2
Q
Clinical manifestations of bronchiectasis
A
chronic productive cough that can lead to hemoptysis
3
Q
Bronchiolitis is the most common in
A
children
4
Q
What is the most common cause of bronchiolitis
A
RSV
5
Q
A person has pneumoconiosis. Which information would the APRN find in the person’s history?
A
inhaled inorganic dust particles, resulting in a change in the lungs
6
Q
Meaning of pneumoconiosis
A
inhaled inorganic matter into the lungs
7
Q
Asthma is a chronic
A
inflammatory disorder
8
Q
Asthma causes ____, constriction of the airways, and variable airflow obstruction that is reversible
A
bronchial hyper-responsiveness
9
Q
Asthma causes bronchial hyper-responsiveness, _____, and variable airflow obstruction that is reversible.
A
constriction of the airways
10
Q
Asthma causes bronchial hyper-responsiveness, constriction of the airways, and _____ that is reversible
A
variable airflow obstruction
11
Q
Asthma causes bronchial hyper-responsiveness, constriction of the airways, and variable airflow obstruction that is ____
A
reversible
12
Q
A child has asthma. What pathophysiologic process occurs in this disease? (3 characteristics)
A
Chronic inflammatory disorder
causing mucosal edema &
reversible airflow obstruction
13
Q
A person has pneumococcal pneumonia. Which pathophysiologic process has occurred? (3)
A
Inflammatory cytokines cause alveolar edema,
which causes a medium for microorganisms
that leads to consolidation.
14
Q
A person has a pulmonary embolism. What will the APRN find upon assessment ? (3 characteristics)
A
Sudden pleuritic chest pain
dyspnea
unexplained anxiety
15
Q
A child has laryngotracheobronchitis (croup). Which information should the nurse remember when planning care for this child? Laryngotracheobronchitis is caused by …
A
subglottic edema from infection
16
Q
Obstructive sleep apnea (OSA) is most commonly associated with
A
adenotonsillar hypertrophy
17
Q
What pathophysiologic response is correctly matched to its disease?
A
Bronchiolitis obliterans is caused by fibrotic obstruction of the respiratory bronchioles and alveolar ducts
18
Q
The APRN recalls that cystic fibrosis is associated with
A
defective epithelial chloride ion transport
19
Q
Cystic fibrosis is characterized by _______ that cause obstructive problems within the respiratory, digestive, and reproductive tracts.
A
abnormal secretions
20
Q
Cystic fibrosis is characterized by abnormal secretions that cause _____ within the respiratory, digestive and reproductive tracts.
A
obstructive problems
21
Q
Cystic fibrosis is characterized by abnormal secretions that cause obstructive problems within the _____, digestive and reproductive tracts.
A
respiratory
22
Q
Cystic fibrosis is characterized by abnormal secretions that cause obstructive problems within the respiratory, ____ and reproductive tracts.
A
digestive
23
Q
Cystic fibrosis is characterized by abnormal secretions that cause obstructive problems within the respiratory, digestive and _____ tracts.
A
reproductive
24
Q
CF: Because the lungs are the most critical site of involvement, _____ health is the primary concern
A
pulmonary
25
CF causes a persistent ______ which also causes bronchiectasis
chronic bronchial inflammation
26
CF causes a persistent chronic bronchial inflammation which also causes
bronchiectasis
27
___ is a sign/symptom of pulmonary disease
Cough
28
Cough is a sign/symptom of ____
pulmonary disease
29
____ is a protective reflex that helps clear the airways by an explosive expiration
cough
30
a cough is a protective reflex that helps
clear the airways by an explosive expiration
31
Acute cough resolves within
2-3 weeks
32
Chronic cough lasts longer than
3 weeks
33
3 causes of cough that are NOT related to respiratory issues are ____, GERD, and medications (ACEi)
post-nasal drip
34
3 causes of cough not related to respiratory issues are post-nasal drip, ____, & medications (ACEi)
GERD
35
3 causes of cough not related to respiratory issues are post-nasal drip, GERD, and _____
medications (i.e. ACEi)
36
Hypoventilation means the ____ is inadequate in relationship to metabolic demands
alveolar ventilation
37
Hypoventilation means the alveolar ventilation is ____ in relationship to the metabolic demands
inadequate
38
Hypoventilation means the alveolar ventilation is inadequate in relationship to the _____
metabolic demands
39
Hypoventilation means the _____ is _____ in relationship to the _____
alveolar ventilation;
inadequate;
metabolic demands
40
Hypoventilation leads to (which acid-base imbalance)
respiratory acidosis
41
Hyperventilation occurs when _____ exceeds the metabolic demands
alveolar ventilation
42
Hyperventilation occurs when alveolar ventilation _____ the metabolic demands.
exceeds
43
Hyperventilation occurs when the alveolar ventilation exceeds the ____
metabolic demands
44
Hyperventilation occurs when the _____ _____ the _____
alveolar ventilation;
exceeds;
metabolic demand
45
Hyperventilation leads to what acid-base imbalance?
respiratory alkalosis
46
What is clubbing ?
painless and grows over weeks to months due to chronic hypoxia
47
Painless and grows over weeks to months due to hypoxia is
clubbing
48
Causes of clubbing (causes of hypoxia leading to clubbing) _____, bronchiectasis, CF, pulmonary fibrosis, and congenital heart disease
COPD
49
Causes of clubbing (causes of hypoxia leading to clubbing) COPD, _____, CF, pulmonary fibrosis, and congenital heart disease
bronchiectasis
50
Causes of clubbing (causes of hypoxia leading to clubbing) COPD, bronchiectasis,_____, pulmonary fibrosis, and congenital heart disease
CF
51
Causes of clubbing (causes of hypoxia leading to clubbing) COPD, bronchiectasis, CF, _______ and congenital heart disease
pulmonary fibrosis
52
Causes of clubbing (causes of hypoxia leading to clubbing) COPD, bronchiectasis, CF, pulmonary fibrosis and _______
congenital heart disease
53
Clubbing is rarely _____
reversible
54
Hypoxemia vs hypoxia
hypoxemia is
reduced in arterial blood
55
Hypoxemia vs hypoxia
hypoxia is
ischemic related and reduced oxygen in the cells
56
Pneumothorax is the
presence of air or gas in the pleural space
57
Presence of air or gas in the pleural space is called a
pneumothorax
58
Pleural effusion is the
presence of fluid in the pleural space
59
The presence of fluid in the pleural space is called a
pleural effusion
60
Empyema is ____
pus
61
Empyema treatment is
antimicrobial medications
62
Another treatment for empyema is
drainage with a chest tube
63
Where does bronchiectasis occur
bronchial wall or lumen obstruction
64
Bronchiectasis is the
persistent abnormal dilation of bronchi
65
Bronchitis is the inflammation of
lining of the bronchial tubes
66
Where does bronchitis occur
in the bronchial tubes
67
Bronchitis is usually caused by _____
viruses
68
Bronchiolitis occurs where ?
in the smallest airways or bronchioles
69
Where are bronchioles located?
most distal end of bronchi before the alveoli
70
Bronchiectasis is the persistent abnormal _____ by destruction of the elastic or muscular components of the bronchial wall or lumen obstruction
dilation of the bronchi
71
Bronchiectasis is the persistent abnormal dilation of the bronchi by _______ of the bronchial wall or lumen obstruction
destruction of the elastic or muscular components
72
Asthma is the inflammatory
disorder of the bronchial mucosa
73
an inflammatory disorder of the bronchial mucosa is
asthma
74
Causes of asthma : (3)
1 ____
2 constriction of the airways
3 variable airflow obstruction that is reversible
bronchial hyper-responsiveness
75
Causes of asthma (3)
1 bronchial hyper-responsiveness
2 _____
3 variable airflow obstruction that is reversible
constriction of the airways
76
Causes of asthma (3)
1 bronchial hyper-responsiveness
2 constriction of the airways
3 _____
variable airflow obstruction that is reversible
77
What are a key component to asthma attacks?
allergies b/c many attacks are due to an allergic reaction
78
COPD is an airflow _____
limitation that is not fully reversible
79
COPD is usually ______ and associated with chronic bronchitis and emphysema
progressive
80
COPD is usually progressive and associated with _____ & emphysema
chronic bronchitis
81
COPD is usually progressive and associated with chronic bronchitis & ____
emphysema
82
Emphysema is the abnormal ____ accompanied by the destruction of the alveolar walls without obvious fibrosis
permanent enlargement of the gas-exchange airways
83
Emphysema is the abnormal permanent enlargement of the gas-exchange airways accompanied by the _____
destruction of the alveolar walls without obvious fibrosis
84
Chronic bronchitis is (3)
1 _____
2 infection/inflammation of the airways or bronchii
3 self-limiting
caused by virus 90% of the time
85
Chronic bronchitis is (3)
1 caused by a virus 90% of the time
2 _____
3 self-limiting
infection/inflammation of the airways or bronchii
86
Chronic bronchitis is (3)
1 caused by virus 90% of the time
2 infection/inflammation of the airways or bronchii
3 _____
is self-limiting
87
community acquired pneumonia is
streptococcus pneumonia
88
Pulmonary embolism commonly (90%) arisies from
the deep veins in the legs
89
Virchow Triad is (3)
venous stasis
hypercoagulability
& injuries to the endothelial cells that line the vessels
90
Cor pulmonale is the enlargement of what chamber ?
right ventricular
91
Right ventricular enlargement is known as
Cor Pulmonale
92
Cor Pulmonale is _____, creating chronic pressure overload in the right ventricle
pulmonary hypertension
93
Cor pulmonale is pulmonary hypertension, creating ____
chronic pressure overload in the right ventricle
94
Cor Pulmonale clinical manifestations:
heart appears normal at rest but with exercise decreased cardiac output and chest pain
95
S/S of pulmonary edema:
____, hypoxia, dullness to percussion over bases, & inspiratory crackles
dyspnea
96
S/S of pulmonary edema:
dyspnea, _____, dullness to percussion over bases, & inspiratory crackles
hypoxia
97
S/S of pulmonary edema:
dyspnea, hypoxia, _____ , & inspiratory crackles
dullness to percussion over bases
98
S/S of pulmonary edema:
dyspnea, hypoxia, dullness to percussion over bases, &
inspiratory crackles
99
S/S of severe pulmonary edema
pink frothy sputum
100
Laryngeal cancer clinical manifestations: (3)
hoarseness
dypnea
cough
101
_____ cancer is the most frequent cause of cancer death in the USA
lung
102
TNM classification:
T (primary tumor)
N (nodal)
M (metastasis)
103
Surfactant maintains
alveolar expansion
104
_____ maintains alveolar expansion
surfactant
105
Surfactant is produced by _____ weeks gestation
20-24
106
Surfactant is secreted into the
fetal airways by 30 weeks gestation
107
Babies born before ______ are at risk for inadequate surfactant in the lungs
30 weeks
108
Babies born before 30 weeks are at risk for ....
inadequate surfactant in the lungs
109
Croup clinical manifestations:
_____, hoarse voice, & inspiratory stridor
seal-like barking cough
110
Croup clinical manifestations:
seal-like barking cough, ____ & inspiratory stridor
hoarse voice
111
Croup clinical manifestations:
seal-like barking cough, hoarse voice, & _____
inspiratory stridor
112
In bronchiolitis, _____ is the most common associated pathogen
RSV
113
Most common cause of viral pneumonia
RSV
114
In bacterial pneumonia, these are the 2 most common causes of infection
Streptococcal and staphylococcal microorganisms
115
Cystic fibrosis (in children) is an
autosomal recessive multisystem disease
116
Cystic fibrosis in the lungs:
_____ & predispose the lungs to chronic infection
thick secretions obstruct the bronchioles
117
Cystic fibrosis in the lungs:
thick secretions that obstruct the bronchioles & _____
predispose the lungs to chronic infection
118
Cystic fibrosis also has chronic _____
inflammation
119
Cystic fibrosis also has _____ inflammation
chronic
120
Which statement is correct regarding disorders of motility?
a succussion (sloshing sound) splash from jarring of the abdomen occurs in pyloric obstruction
121
Which finding is typical for Crohn's disease?
noncaseating granulomas
122
Which intervention if most appropriate for a person with portal hypertension?
monitor for hematemesis
123
A person has alcoholic liver disease. What is the sequence of the development of this disease?
1. steatosis (fatty liver)
2. steatohepatitis (fatty liver w/inflammation)
3. fibrosis
124
A person has cancer in the left descending colon. What will the nurse typically find upon assessment?
narrow and pencil-shaped stools
125
What is pyloric stenosis associated with?
muscle hyperplasia
126
An infant arrives in the emergency dept with a diagnosis of intussusception. Which data will the nurse typically find during the assessment?
currant-jelly stools
127
What is the pathophysiologic process that occurs in a person with a gluten-sensitive enteropathy?
T-cell mediated autoimmune injury to the intestinal epithelial cells
128
Which disease is correctly matched to its pathophysiologic process?
necrotizing enteropathy-noxious substances damage to the intestines
129
Intrahepatic portal hypertension is associated with ?
cirrhosis
130
Severe acute malnutrition is a stage of starvation associated with food shortages. Severe deficiency of all nutrients is also known as
marasmus
131
The major pathophysiologic characteristic of gluten sensitivity is an ?
autoimmune injury to the intestinal epithelial cells
132
Pathophysiology of constipation - 4 types
1. normal transit/functional
2. slow-transit
3. pelvic floor dysfunction
4. secondary (opioids)
133
3 types of diarrhea:
1. osmotic - nonabsorbable substance
2. secretory - excessive mucosal secretion
3. motility - excessive motility
134
Systemic manifestations of diarrhea include: ______, inflammatory, & malabsorption
acute bacterial or viral infection
135
Systemic manifestations of diarrhea include: acute bacterial or viral infection, _____, & malabsorption
inflammatory
136
Systemic manifestations of diarrhea include : acute bacterial or viral infection, inflammatory, &
malabsorption
137
Biochemical mediators of the inflammatory response (histamine, bradykinin, & serotonin) stimulate pain nerve endings
producing abdominal pain
138
Conditions that increase the abdominal pressure can contribute to
GERD
139
Conditions that increase abd pressure and GERD :
coughing, lifting, bending, obesity or pregnancy, reclining after a meal
140
what is a clinical manifestation of GERD :
chronic cough
141
Pain with duodenal ulcer
pain begins 30 minutes to 2 hours after eating when the stomach is empty
142
How is pain relieved in a duodenal ulcer
foods and antacid
143
Stress related mucosal disease (3)
is a peptic ulcer related to a severe illness
multisystem organ failure
or trauma
144
What is dumping syndrome
rapid emptying of hypertonic chyme from the stomach to the small intestine
145
3 causes of dumping syndrome: ____, bariatric procedure, or pyloroplasty
partial gastrectomy
146
3 causes of dumping syndrome: partial gastrectomy, ____ or pyloroplasty
bariatric procedure
147
3 causes of dumping syndrome: partial gastrectomy, bariatric procedure, or ____
pyloroplasty
148
conjugated bile salts are needed to
disperse and absorb fats and are synthesized from cholesterol in the liver
149
Ulcerative colitis is _____, are limited to the mucosa, & are not transmural (not full wall thickness)
lesions are continuous with no skipped lesions
150
Ulcerative colitis is lesions are continuous with no skipped lesions, ____ , & are not transmural (not full wall thickness)
are limited to the mucosa
151
Ulcerative colitis is lesions are continuous with no skipped lesions, are limited to the mucosa, & _____
are not transmural (not full wall thickness)
152
Crohn's disease _____, inflamed areas mixed with uninflamed areas, noncaseating granulomas, fistulas, deep penetrating ulcers
causes skip lesions
153
Crohn's disease causes skip lesions, _____, noncaseating granulomas, fistulas, deep penetrating ulcers
inflamed areas mixed with uninflamed areas
154
Crohn's disease causes skip lesions, inflamed areas mixed with uninflamed areas, ____, fistulas, deep penetrating ulcers
noncaseating granulomas
155
Crohn's disease causes skip lesions, inflamed areas mixed with uninflamed areas, noncaseating granulomas, ____
fistulas, deep penetrating ulcers
156
Crohn's mnemonic
Crohn's skips on down the road
157
Hepatitis A is usually transmitted by
fecal-oral route
158
Define cirrhosis
an irreversible inflammatory fibrotic disease that disrupts liver function and even liver structure
159
Primary biliary cirrhosis involves (2)
1. mitochondrial antibody destruction of the small intrahepatic bile ducts
2. thought to be autoimmune
160
Secondary biliary cirrhosis
obstruction of the common bile duct
161
Cholelithiasis clinical manifestations: ____, intolerance to fatty foods, biliary colic, and jaundice
epigastric and right hypochondrium pain
162
Cholelithiasis clinical manifestations: epigastric and right hypochondrium pain, _____, biliary colic, and jaundice
intolerance to fatty foods
163
Cholelithiasis clinical manifestations: epigastric and right hypochondrium pain, intolerance to fatty foods, ______ , and jaundice
biliary colic
164
Cholelithiasis clinical manifestations: epigastric and right hypochondrium pain, intolerance to fatty foods , biliary colic, and ____
jaundice
165
Cholelithiasis biliary colic -
where is stone located?, 2 instances of pain
lodging of stones in the cystic or common duct.
has pain after eating a fatty meal
usually 30 min after eating meal
166
Cholelithiasis jaundice
stone in the common bile duct
167
Intussusception is
telescoping or invagination of approximal segment of the intestine into a distal section of intestine which causes obstruction
168
Clinical manifestation of Intussusception
currant jelly stool, which appear dark and gelatinous because of their blood and mucous content
169
Child diarrhea worldwide - what causes it
rotavirus is the leading cause of severe diarrhea in infants and young kids
170
Rotavirus invades _____
enterocytes of intestinal mucosa and releases enterotoxins that damage the cells
171
Wilson's disease is an _____ defect of copper metabolism, causing toxic levels of copper to accumulate in the liver, brain, kidneys & cornea
autosomal recessive
172
Wilson's disease is an autosomal recessive defect of _____, causing toxic levels of ___ to accumulate in the liver, brain, kidneys, & cornea
copper metabolism;copper
173
Wilson's disease in children. Define Kayser-Fleisher rings:
accumulation of copper in the limbus of the cornea, causing a greenish-yellow ring
174
A woman has secondary amenorrhea. What is the most probable cause for this finding?
preganancy
175
PID (pelvic inflammatory disease) is associated with
infertility
176
One characteristic of uterine leiomyomas is that they are associated with
nulliparty (never given birth) and obesity
177
Which information is correct regarding ovarian cancer? The cancer has often ... prior to . . .
ovarian cancer has often metastasized prior to diagnosis
178
While taking a history from a postmenopausal woman, which finding will place this woman at the greater risk for breast cancer?
estrogen therapy
179
Precocious puberty
sexual maturation in boys before the age of 9
180
central precocious puberty
HPG axis is working normally but prematurely
181
Peripheral puberty
sex hormones are produced by some mechanism of than stimulation by the gonadtropins
182
A man is admitted to the hospital with a urethral stricture. Which clinical manifestation is typical of this disorder?
double urine stream
183
A man is admitted to the hospital with a torsion of the testis. The APRN understands this indicates?
blood vessels to the testis are twisted in the spermatic cord
** medical emergency, OR within 6 hrs **
184
Which of the following is true about BPH?
it produces what type of symptoms?
produces obstructive and irritative symptoms
185
An individual has syphilis, secondary stage. What will the APRN typically find upon assessment?
low-grade fever, malaise, and sore throat
186
3 stages of syphilis
Primary:
chancres & swollen lymph nodes
Secondary:
rash, sores
Latent:
no symptoms, contagious in 1st year of latent stage
187
A woman has chlamydial cervicitis. What will the APRN typically find upon assessment?
yellow, mucopurulent discharge
188
An individual has herpes simplex virus (HSV). Which treatment will the APRN prepare to prescribe?
oral acyclovir
189
An individual has intense itching and works in a nursing home. Where is the 1st place the APRN should inspect to find if scabies are present?
between the fingers
190
Case study: what is the possible explanation for her infertility?
destruction of lactobacillus acidophilus from douching and vaginal deodarants
191
Urethritis may lead to
urethral stricture
192
A person has a lesion on the lower neuron that involves the sacral maturation center. Which condition is the person experiencing?
detrusor areflexia
193
Mechanisms that protect the urinary tract from infection include?
acidic urine
194
Nephrotic syndrome produces
susceptibility to infection
195
A person with acute kidney injury is prescribed glucose and insulin. The APRN understands this prescription is intended to?
reduce serum potassium concentration (pushes K+ from bloodstream back into the cells)
196
Individuals with chronic renal failure often develop
hypocalcemia
197
Which statement is correct regarding fluid and electrolyte balance in the infant?
the infant produces a more dilute urine when compared with an adult
198
A child with unilateral renal agenesis is seen in the clinic. The APRN realizes the child has ...
a hypertrophied kidney
199
Edema with nephrotic syndrome is associated with increased ....
aldosterone activity
200
A child has a UTI. Which assessment finding is most typical in this condition.
incontinence in a previously dry child
201
Platelet clustering in the damaged vessels produces?
thrombocytopenia
202
In the normal kidney, within the various segment of the nephron tubules, cells responsible for the function of reabsorption and secretion are:
endothelial
203
delayed puberty in girls is no sign of ____ & has begun by ____ years of age
no sign of menarche
15-16 years of age
204
primary dysmenorrhea is
painful menstruation associated with prostaglandin release in ovulatory cycles but not associated with pelvic disease
205
secondary dysmenorrhea is menstruation related to
pelvic pathologic condition at any time in the menstrual cycle
206
primary amenorrhea
failure of menarche and the absence of menstruation by 13 years without development of secondary sex characteristics; or by age 15 regardless of presence or absence of secondary sex characteristics
207
secondary amenorrhea
absence of menstruation in women who have previously menstruated
208
metorrhagia vs menorrhagia
metor=irregular bleeding
menor= excessive bleeding
209
polycystic ovarian syndrome is _____ ovulation, can even be ....
irregular ovulation, can even be anovulation
210
leading cause of infertility in the US is
polycystic ovarian syndrome
211
Polycystic ovarian syndrome is associated with _____
metabolic disorder and often insulin resistance
212
polycystic ovarian syndrome clinical manifestations (5)
dysfunctional bleeding/amenorrhea, hirsutism, acne, acanthosis nigricans, and infertility
213
vaginitis caused by
candida albicans
214
cystocele (location)
descent of a portion of the posterior bladder wall and trigone (area at the base of the bladder & between the openings of the ureter and the urethra) into the vaginal canal
215
benign ovarian cysts are
common and are unilateral
216
benign ovarian cysts are a results of
follicles being stimulated but no dominant follicle develops and reaches maturity
217
Infertility is the inability to conceive after ....
1 year
218
Mutations most likely to cause breast cancer
BRCA 1
BRCA 2
219
delayed puberty in males
secondary sex characteristics have not appeared in boys by age 14
220
what are 95% of causes in boys with delayed puberty
physiologic factors :
hormonal delay
HPG axis delay
220
Precocious puberty in boys is
sexual maturation before 9 years of age
221
urethritis & urethral structures
what is the meaning of each
inflammation &
fibrotic narrowing of urethra
222
phimosis is the
foreskin cannot be retracted back over the glans
223
phimosis causes
poor hygiene and chronic infections
224
Paraphimosis is the
foreskin is retracted and cannot be moved forward (reduced) to cover the glans
225
Peyronie disease is
penile curvature during erection
226
Balanitis is the inflammation of
the glans penis
227
Balanitis causes are (4)
phimosis
inadequate cleaning under the foreskin
skin disorders
infections
228
Balanitis is most commonly in men with
poorly controlled diabetes mellitus and candidiasis
229
Penile cancer is ___ & mostly
rare; squamous cell carcinoma
230
varicocele occurs in
10% of men and is usually on the left side
231
Varicocele is the
inflammation and dilation of the veins in the spermatic cord
232
varicocele is described as a
bag of worms
233
Causes of varicocele are
inadequate or absent valves in the spermatic vein
234
hydrocele is most often the cause of. . . in newborns
scrotal swelling and occurs in 6% of male newborns
235
hydrocele is
scrotal swelling caused by the collection of fluid and transilluminates
236
spermatocele is a
benign cystic collection of fluid of the epididymis located between the head of the epididymis and the testis
237
torsion of testis
rotation, causing twisting of the blood vessels in the spermatic cord
238
testicular torsion is
a medical emergency, must be in ER within 6 hours after onset of symptoms to preserve normal testicular function
239
orchitis
acute infection of the testis
240
cancer of the testis is among
the most curable cancers
241
testicular cancer is common between ages of
15-35
242
causes of epididymitis
pathogenic microorganism reaches the epididymis by ascending the vas deferens from an already infected bladder or urethra
243
gynocomastia
overdevelopment of breast tissue in a man, results from hormone alterations
244
bacterial STIs
gonorrhea, syphilis
245
clinical manifestations of gonorrhea - men
sudden onset of painful urination or purulent penile discharge or both
246
clinical manifestations of gonorrhea - women
asymptomatic
dysuria
increased vaginal discharge
increased flow or dysmenorrhea
dyspareunia (painful intercourse)
lower abdominal/pelvic pain
fever
mucopurulent discharge from the cervical os
247
syphilis is caused by
treponema pallidum
248
4 stages of syphilis
Primary
Secondary
Latent
Tertiary
249
Primary stage of syphilis (3)
when, duration, manifestation
12 days - 12 weeks after exposure
average duration of 3 weeks
granulomatous tissue reaction (hard chancre, painless,firm)
250
Secondary stage of syphilis
systematic manifestations
6 weeks after the 1st appearance of chancre
low-grade fever
malaise
sore throat
condylomata lata
251
Latent stage of syphilis (3)
duration as short as 1 year or as long as a lifetime
divided into early and late stages
medical evidence of the infection or asymptomatic
252
Tertiary stage of syphilis (5)
appearing after the latent stage
most severe stage
formation of gummas (destructive skin,bone,&soft tissue lesions)
destructive systematic manifestations
neurosyphilis
253
chancroid
painful, tender, soft chancre
254
chancroid in women
asymptomatic but can have dysuria, dysparenuria, vaginal dischage, pain on defecation, or rectal bleeding
255
chancroid in men
unilateral,
painful genital ulcers,
local lymphadenopathy
inguinal buboes
256
bacterial vaginosis is
a sexually associated condition, not always an STI
257
causes of bacterial vaginosis
gardnerella vaginalis and other anaerobes
258
clinical manifestations of bacterial vaginosis
gray vaginal discharge
presence of "clue" cells on wet mount
(bacterial catalytic enzymes degrade proteins and elevate the vaginal pH to produce a fishy odor)
259
cause of chlamydia is/ bac or vir/ gram what / important stat
chlamydia trachomatis, bacterial, gram-negative, most common STI in the US
260
chlamydia clinical manifestations
often asymptomatic
261
chlamydia clinical manifestations in men (2)
clear mucus discharge
mild burning with urination
262
chlamydia clinical manifestations in women (3)
leading cause of tubal infertility
acute urethral syndrome (dysuria, frequency, sterile pus in urine)
yellow mucopurulent discharge with cervicitis
263
STI viral infections
genital herpes
264
genital herpes virus remains
latent until reactivation
265
HSV1
remain in the latent stage after oral infection in the trigeminal nerve
266
HSV2
after infection, remains in the dorsal sacral nerve roots
267
HPV types & the 2 most at-risk
120 different types of HPV, divided into high risk (18&20)
268
HPV is associated with
cervical dysplasia and cancer
269
HPV test (women)
papanicolaou test (Pap smear)
270
STI parasites
scabies, trichomoniasis
271
Where is the 1st sign of scabies
between the finger webs
272
Cause of trichomoniasis
trichomonas vaginalis
273
trichomoniasis clinical manifestations - in women (5)
vaginal discharge (copious, malodorous, yellow/green - gray/green)
internal pruritis
most common complaints - dyspareunia & dysuria
strawberry spots on cervix
274
composition of mineral salts (which make up kidney stones) are
calcium oxalate & calcium phosphate, 70-80%
275
hematuria is . .. & it is a sign of what ?
blood in urine, sign of renal tumors
276
biggest risk factor for bladder tumors
smoking
277
clinical manifestation of bladder tumors
painless microscopic hematuria
278
most common pathogens of UTIs
escherichia coli (e. coli) & staphylococcus saprophyticus
279
acute glomerulonephritis pathophysiology
decreased glomerular filtration rate (GFR)
280
definition of oliguria
urine output of < 30mL/hr
281
nephrotic syndrome clinical manifestations
contains massive amounts of proteins and lipids and either microscopic amount of blood or no blood
282
nephrotic syndrome makes the person . . .
susceptible to infections and results in edema
283
chronic kidney disease clinical manifestations do not occur until
renal function declines to less than 25% of normal
284
signs of uremia and chronic kidney disease (6)
hypotension
edema
anorexia
pruritis (skin itches)
darkening/abnormal pigmentation of skin
anemia
285
hypospadias is . . .
urethral meatus is located on the ventral side or undersurface of the penis
286
epispadias is . . .
(top side), urethral opening is on the dorsal side of the penis
287
Hemolytic-uremic syndrome (HUS) is most common . . .
community acquired cause of acute renal failure in children, most occur in those younger than 4 years of age
288
HUS is associated with . . .
bacterial, viral, & endotoxin agents
289
HUS is associated with the particular agent . . .
escherichia coli (e. coli) O157:H7
290
Wilms tumor is most common between the ages of
1-5
291
Wilms tumor is an . . .
embryonal tumor of the kidney
292
Wilms tumor is the most common . . .
solid type of tumor of childhood
293
UTI in kids - most common pathogen is
e. coli
294
cystitis in kids is . . .
inflammatory edema of the bladder wall stimulating stretch receptors which cause the most common symptom - urgency
