Module 4 Flashcards

1
Q

A person is diagnosed with an alteration in arousal. Which clinical manifestation is typical of this diagnosis?

A

Vomiting without nausea

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2
Q

An APRN knows the onset of an acute confusion state?

A

Sudden

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3
Q

Seizures are initiated by:

A

hyperexcitability of neurons

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4
Q

An APRN recalls that increased intracranial pressure can occur because of:

A

cerebral edema

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5
Q

The APRN has an areflexic patient and understands this means the person has:

A

no tendon reflexes

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6
Q

An unconscious person is admitted to the hospital after a motorcycle accident. The person experienced a brief loss of consciousness at the scene followed by an awake, lucid period of 1 hour. The APRN suspects this individual has a:

A

extradural hematoma

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7
Q

An APRN knows that spinal shock results in:

A

poor venous circulation

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8
Q

The APRN recalls fusiform aneurysms are due to

A

arteriosclerotic changes

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9
Q

A person arrives at the clinic and reports a unilateral headache for 2 days that worsens with movement and light. No trauma has occurred. The APRN suspects:

A

migraine headaches

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10
Q

An APRN recalls that increased intracranial pressure with hydrocephalus may be the result of:

A

reduced reabsorption of CSF

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11
Q

A child has meningitis. An APRN observes flexion of the knees and hips when the child’s neck is rapidly flexed forward. Which sign did the APRN observe as positive?

A

Brudzinski sign

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12
Q

Which finding will help the APRN determine whether the febrile seizure is a simple febrile seizure?

A

The convulsion is generalized.

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13
Q

The most useful treatment for brain tumors in children is:

A

surgical therapy

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14
Q

Which vaccine may have prevented the boy’s contraction of bacterial meningitis?

A

H. influenza

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15
Q

Upon physical examination, the child shows resistance to knee extension in the supine position with the knees and hips flexed against the body. Which sign is the child displaying?

A

Kernig

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16
Q

Pattern of breathing:

A

apneustic, cluster, and ataxic

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17
Q

Pupillary changes – ischemia/hypoxia

A

dilated

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18
Q

Pupillary changes – opiates

A

pinpoint pupils

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19
Q

Brain death- body cannot maintain

A

internal homeostasis

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20
Q

Brain death is irreversible cessation of the

A

entire brain, including brainstem and cerebellum occurs.

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21
Q

Brain death (EEG characteristics)

A

isoelectric (flat) electroencephalography (EEG) for 6-12 hours

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22
Q

Brain death

A

can no longer maintain the body’s internal homeostasis

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23
Q

Alterations in awareness – pathophysiology - direct

A

direct destruction from direct ischemia and hypoxia

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24
Q

Alterations in awareness – pathophysiology - indirect

A

indirect destruction as a result of compression

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25
Alterations in awareness – pathophysiology
effects of toxins and chemicals of metabolic derangement
26
Agnosia (definition)
failure to recognize the form and nature of objects
27
Agnosia can be
can be tactile, visual, or auditory
28
Aphasia (definition)
loss of comprehension or production of language
29
Dysphasia
(impaired speech) – expressive vs receptive
30
Wernicke’s dysphagia
disturbance in understanding all language – verbal and reading comprehension
31
Conductive dysphagia
disruption of temporal lobe fibers with a failure to repeat words but an ability to initiate speech, writing, and reading aloud
32
Anomic
inability to name objects, people, numbers, or qualities
33
Transcoritcal dysphagia
ability to repeat and recite
34
Broca aphasia
xpressive dysphasia of speech and writing but with retention of comprehension
35
Global aphasia
involves anterior and posterior speech areas, with expressive and receptive aphasia
36
Delirium is 2 states
hyperkinetic confusional state acute state of brain dysfunction
37
Delirium is associated with the
right middle temporal gyrus or disruption of the left temporo-occipital junction
38
Hyperactive delirium
agitated delirium, excited delirium syndrome
39
Hypoactive delirium
hypoactive confusional state, is associated with the disruption of the right-sided, frontal-basal ganglion
40
Epilepsy-is a recurrence of
seizures and a disorder for which no cause can be found
41
During a seizure, ____ & ____ are depleted and ____ is accumulated.
oxygen & glucose. Lactate acid. This is why with progressive seizure activity, there is a potential for progressive brain injury and irreversible damage.
42
Generalized seizures (neurons)
bilaterally
43
Focal (partial) seizures (neurons)
unilaterally
44
Epilepsy syndromes - what are the cause
genetic/developmental cause
45
Unclassified epileptic seizures. etiology is
unknown
46
what is status epilepticus
a medical emergency, continuing/recurring seizures with incomplete recovery, unrelenting seizure activity that lasts 30 minutes or more and the main concern is hypoxia as oxygen decreases when having a seizure
47
Huntington’s disease Alterations in what? Also known as
alterations in movement, also known as chorea
48
Huntington’ disease is rare....
autosomal dominant hereditary degenerative disorder, short arm on chromosome 4
49
Huntington’s disease is severe degeneration of
striatum and basal ganglia
50
Huntington’s disease is abnormal movements that occur
without conscious effort, emotional lability, and dementia
51
Parkinson’s disease – severe degeneration of
the basal ganglia (corpus striatum) involving the dopaminergic nigrostriatal pathway
52
Pyramidal motor syndrome – upper
hypertonia/spasticy
53
Pyramidal motor syndrome - lower
hypotonia/flaccidity
54
ALS – amyotrophic lateral sclerosis
progressive muscle weakness leads to respiratory failure
55
ALS – lower motor neuron syndrome
flaccid paresis consists of a weakness of individual muscles, progressing to paralysis, hypotonia, and primary muscle atrophy (atrophy caused by denervation)
56
ALS – upper motor neuron syndrome
spastic paresis consists of a weakness of movement patterns, progressing to paralysis and atrophy
57
Moderate cerebral concussion
any loss of consciousness lasting more than 30 minutes, accompanied by post traumatic anterograde amnesia lasting 24 hrs or more
58
Diaphragm function may be impaired because
phrenic nerves exit at C3 to C5. Therefore an injury at C4 might impair breathing
59
Spinal shock - is the complete loss of
reflex function in all segments below the level of the lesion
60
Spinal shock manifestations
flaccid paralysis, sensory deficit, a disruption in thermal controls (faulty control of sweating), transient drop in BP, and loss of bladder and rectal control
61
Spinal shock may persist for
short a time as a few days or as long as 3 months
62
Neurogenic shock - is caused by the
absence of sympathetic activity from loss of supraspinal control and unopposed parasympathetic tone mediated by the intact vagus nerve
63
Autonomic hyperreflexia (dysreflexia) -
sudden massive reflex sympathetic discharge associated with a spinal cord injury at the thoracic level of T6 or above
64
Herniated intervertebral disk - clinical manifestation
pain radiating due to compression (called radiculopathy) along the nerve occurs
65
two types of cerebrovascular brain abnormalities
ischemia with/without infarction and hemorrhage
66
arteriovenous malformation can be
tangled vessels
67
tension-type headache
most common headache, mild-to-moderate bilateral headache with a sensation of a tight band around the head.
68
tension-type headaches
acute and chronic forms
69
Migraine
unilateral, photophobia, phonophobia, can last for days
70
Tension (location, description)
up the back of the head, gradually goes to top, feels like band around the head
71
Cluster (description, location)
very short, several in a day, often pain behind the eye
72
infection/inflammation of the central nervous system
caused by bacteria, viruses, fungi, parasites, or mycobacteria
73
meningitis clinical manifestation
bacterial - throbbing headache, increasing in severity, increasing photophobia, nuchal rigidity, positive Kernig sign,& positive Brudzinski, projectile vomiting, neck stiffness
74
Multiple sclerosis (CNS)
progressive, chronic, inflammatory, demyelinating, autoimmune disorder to the CNS - occurs in white and gray matter
75
Plexus injuries
distal to the spinal roots but proximal to the formation of peripheral nerves
76
Myasthenia Gravis (description)
chronic autoimmune disease, defect in nerve impulse transmission at the neuromuscular junction
77
Myasthenia Gravis - clinical manifestations
exertional fatigue and weakness that worsens with activity, improves with rest, and recurs with resumption of activity
78
Clinical manifestations of tumors/meningiomas
seizures
79
brain metastases - clinical manifestations
include headache, seizures, and alterations in cognition, mental status, and behavior
80
in fetuses, nervous system develops
middle of the third gestational week
81
craniosynostosis
premature close of one or more of the cranial sutures during the first 18-20 months of life
82
An APRN recalls the reflex withdrawal of an affected body part from painful stimuli before the pain is perceived is controlled by
myelinated A fibers
83
Which finding would an APRN expect to recognize during the assessment of a person with chronic pain. The person is
depressed (they burn up serotonin)
84
Fever is stimulated by
tumor necrosis factor-a
85
An APRN recalls the majority of the sleep cycle is spent in stage
N2
86
A person is admitted to the hospital after experiencing delusions. The APRN knows that a delusion is:
a persistent belief that is contrary to the background of the individual
87
Which food item would be most appropriate for a person taking a monoamine oxidase inhibitor?
ham
88
A patient has excessive and persistent worrying for longer than 6 months. Which diagnosis will the APRN observe documented on the chart?
generalized anxiety disorder
89
processing of pain - (4 stages)
transduction, transmission, perception, and modulation
90
neuroanatomy of pain
Myelinated A-delta -transmission is fast and causes reflex withdrawal of affected body part from stimulus before pain sensation is perceived
91
unmyelinated C polymodal fibers
transmission is slower and conveys dull, aching, or burning sensations
92
segmental inhibition
inhibitory interneuron
93
Acute pain is a
protective mechanism
94
Acute pain alerts an individual to a condition or experience that is
Immediately harmful to the body
95
Acute pain lasts
less than 3 months
96
Clinical manifestations of acute pain
sympathetic nervous notable, tachycardia, hypertension, diaphoresis, dilated pupils, and anxiety
97
Acute somatic pain
arises from joints, muscle, bone, and skin
98
Acute visceral pain - transmitted by
C fibers and pain arises from the internal organs and lining of body cavities
99
Acute visceral pain - pain is
poorly localized as a result of the fewer number of nociceptors
100
Acute visceral pain- (description)
aching, gnawing, throbbing, or intermittent in quality
101
Chronic pain lasts at
least 3 months. Is poorly understood. Chronic pain does not respond to usual therapy.
102
Chronic pain serves
no protective purpose
103
Chronic pain is thought to be caused by
dysregulation of nociception and pain modulation processes (peripheral and central sensitization) so not easily controlled
104
Chronic pain - neuroplasticity
maintenance of pain (brain's ability to form and reorganize synaptic connection in response to learning or experiencing)
105
Chronic pain may cause
behavioral and psychological changes, such as depression and anxiety
106
Chronic pain - suffering
usually increases with time
107
Temperature regulation: thermoregulation is controlled by the
hypothalamus
108
Heat is distributed by
the circulatory system
109
Heat is produced by
chemical reactions of metabolism and skeletal muscle tone and contraction
110
Vasodilation is a mechanism
of heat loss
111
Vasoconstriction is a mechanism
of heat conservation
112
Pathogenesis of fever:
temporary resetting of the hypothalamic thermostat
113
Benefits of fever
aids infectious response, kills many organisms, decreases the serum levels of iron, zinc, and copper, deprives bacteria of food, promotes lysosomal breakdown and autodestruction of cells , and increases lymphocytic transformation and phagocyte motility
114
Tissue hypothermia
slows chemical reactions, increases blood viscosity and slows blood through the microcirculation; facilitates blood coagulation; stimulates vasoconstriction
115
NREM sleep
N1-light sleep-3-8%; N2-longest stage-45-55%; N3-slow wave sleep 13-23%
116
REM is (what percentage) of sleep
20-25%
117
REM is also known as paradoxical as the
EEG pattern is similar to that of a natural awaken pattern where the brain is very active with dreaming
118
Vivid dreaming occurs during
REM
119
REM occurs
every 90 minutes, beginning after 1-2 hours of sleep
120
Insomnia
inability to fall or stay asleep
121
Obstructive sleep apnea syndrome & restless leg syndrome
sleep disorders
122
Obesity hypoventilation syndrome due to
leptin resistance
123
Conductive hearing loss
cannot be conducted through the middle ear
124
Sensorineural hearing loss-can be caused by
ototoxic drugs, impaired organ of Corti or its central connections
125
Presbycusis is
age related hearing loss
126
Mixed hearing loss
combination of conductive and sensorineural losses
127
Functional hearing loss
no organic cause
128
Schizophrenia is alterations
of brain dopamine pathways
129
Schizophrenia - glutamate hypothesis
underactivation of glutamate receptors
130
Schizophrenia - type of episodes
psychotic episode, hallucinations, delusions, disorganized behavior
131
Schizophrenia clinical manifestations - negative symptoms
characterized by disruptions in normal emotional states and expressions
132
Schizophrenia clinical manifestations- cognitive symptoms
problems with thought process, inability to perform daily tasks requiring attention and planning
133
Schizophrenia clinical manifestations - negative dimensions
flattened affect (near absence of facial expressions or emotions); anhedonia (cannot experience emotions like pleasure or pain and feel detached from environment); alogia (absence of speech and the ability to answer questions or express themselves); avolition (not able to complete simple goals or tasks like bathing or dressing)
134
Bipolar 1
Depression with mania
135
bipolar 2
Depression with hypomania
136
Depression - deficits
in norepinephrine, dopamine, and/or serotonin, leading to depression
137
Mania - elevated
concentration of monoamines
138
PTSD -
persistent dysregulation of fear-based memory system
139
PTSD- DSM5 needs 6 symptoms
re-experience, avoidance, negative cognitions, and mood and arousal
140
A person has rhabdomyolysis. Which typical clinical manifestations will the APRN find upon assessment?
Dark urine
141
Which information is correct regarding the pathophysiologic process of osteomyelitis?
Osteomyelitis produces sequestrum
142
The primary defect in osteoarthritis is:
loss of articular cartilage
143
A person has gout. Which typical clinical manifestation may the APRN find upon assessment?
tophi
144
An infant has a positive Ortolani sign. Which condition is the infant experiencing?
development dysplasia of the hip
145
Structural scoliosis may be caused by:
neuromuscular disease
146
A preadolescent arrives at the clinic and reports pain and swelling in the left knee after playing sports. The nurse suspects:
Osgood-Schlatter disease
147
A child newly diagnosed with Duchenne muscular dystrophy. Because of this diagnosis, the APRN expects:
the child will be a boy
148
Duchenne muscular dystrophy is the most common of the muscular dystrophies and occurs only in boys. It is a progressive
weakness associated with large calf muscles that are said to be : pseudohypertrophic
149
What is the most likely reason why Foley catheter insertion is needed in DMD:
the patient is experiencing incontinence
150
Fracture classifications
complete (bone is broken all the way through), incomplete (bone is damaged but still in one piece), incomplete (
151
Fracture- closed or simple (complete or incomplete)
skin is intact
152
Fracture - open or compound (complete or incomplete)
skin is broken
153
Fracture-comminuted
bone breaks into more than 2 fragments
154
Fracture - linear
fracture runs parallel to the long axis of the bone
155
Fracture - oblique
fracture of the shaft of the bone is slanted
156
Fracture - spiral
encircles the bone
157
Fracture-transverse
occurs straight across the bone
158
Fracture - greenstick
perforates one cortex and splinters the spongy bone
159
Fracture-torus
cortex buckles but does not break
160
Fracture-bowing
longitudinal force is applied to a bone
161
Fracture-pathologic
break occurs at the site of a preexisting abnormality
162
Fracture-stress
fatigue and insufficiency, transchondral
163
Bone fractures clinical manifestations
impaired function, unnatural alignment, swelling, muscle spasms, tenderness, pain, impaired sensation
164
Rhabdomyolysis
release of intracellular potassium into circulation creating high K levels which might require dialysis to correct if extensive
165
Rhabdomyolysis-protein
pigment myoglobin into extracellular space and bloodstream - causing cola colored urine
166
Classic triad of complications rhabdomyolysis
muscle pain, weakness, and dark urine (from myoglobin)
167
rhabdomyolysis - Treatment
rapid intravenous hydration
168
Osteomalacia -deficiency of
vitamin D lowers the absorption of calcium from the intestines, results in soft bones
169
Osteoarthritis-most common
form of joint disease and is a disorder of synovial joints
170
Osteoarthritis- inflammatory
(new evidence and cytokines) joint disease. No single patho
171
Osteoarthritis- loss of
articular cartilage, sclerosis of underlying bone, and formation of bone spurs (osteophytes)
172
Osteoarthritis - also called
degenerative joint disease
173
Osteoarthritis- incidence
increases with age
174
Osteoarthritis - leading cause of
disability in middle aged and older populations
175
Osteoarthritis - clinical manifestations
pain, stiffness, enlargement of the joint, tenderness, limited motion, and deformity
176
Osteoarthritis - clinical manifestations- nodes
joint swelling in the fingers - Heberden and Bouchard nodes
177
Heberden nodules
very end of the fingers, groups of 2
178
Bouchard nodules
in the middle of the fingers
179
Rheumatoid arthritis - clinical manifestations
rheumatoid nodules in organs
180
Ankylosing Spondylitis
chronic inflammatory joint disease in the spine or sacroiliac joints, causing stiffening and fusion of the joints
181
gout - clinical manifestations - pain
in the great toe (usually, but not always); worse at night often in the metatarsophalangeal joint
182
gout clinical manifestations - increase
in serum urate concentration, hyperuricemia
183
gout clinical manifestations - recurrent
attacks of monoarticular arthritis: inflammation of a single joint
184
gout clinical manifestations- deposits
of monosodium urate monohydrate (tophi) in and around the joints
185
gout clinical manifestations - renal
disease, involving glomerular, tubular, and interstitial tissues and blood vessels
186
gout clinical manifestations - formation
of renal stones
187
Polymyositis and Dermatomyositis -
inflammation of connective tissue and muscle fibers
188
myopathy -
a primary muscle disorder
189
Genu varum (arrogant cowboy)
bowlegged
190
genu valgum
knock kneed
191
Ricketts causes
insufficient vitamin D insensitivity to vitamin D renal wasting of vit D inability to absorb calcium or vit D in the gut
192
Ricketts disorder causing
mineralization failure, "soft bones", and skeletal deformity
193
Osgood-Schlatter disease
tendinitis of the anterior patellar tendon and osteochondrosis of the tubercle of the tibia
194
Duchenne muscular dystrophy is the
most common muscular dystrophy
195
Duchenne muscular dystrophy definition
poorly anchored fibers tear apart under the repeated stress of contraction, free calcium then enters the muscle cell, causing cell death and fiber necrosis
196
Duchenne muscular dystrophy clinical manifestations
appear by age 3-4 years of age gait abnormalities progressive weakness - muscles, respiratory insufficiency, cardiomyopathy, scoliosis
197
Duchenne muscular dystrophy clinical manifestations
waddling gait gower sign (climbing up the legs when rising) cognitive dysfunction
198
Dermal appendages that are important in body temperature regulation are
eccrine sweat glands
199
Allergic contact dermatitis is associated with
delayed hypersensitivity
200
Which information is correct regarding acne rosacea ?
is likely an immune-mediated inflammation
201
A person has verrucae. Which microorganism is the causative agent?
virus
202
Basal cell carcinoma is associated with
depressed center and rolled borders
203
Acne vulgaris is
associated with excessive sebum production
204
Which information is correct regarding bacterial skin infections
impetigo causes small vesicles with a honey-colored crust
205
A child is seen at the local clinic with an erythematous maculopapular rash, high fever, enlarged lymph nodes, and a barking cough. Which diagnosis will the nurse observe documented on the chart?
rubeola
206
Salmon patches
result from distended dermal capillaries that fade over time
207
Which microorganism is the cause of the baby's rash that is now worse in comparison to the original diaper rash?
candida albicans
208
Which type of medication has the healthcare provider most likely prescribed for the baby
topical antifungal
209
Pruritis
itching & most common symptom of primary skin disorders
210
atopic dermatitis is also called
atopic eczema
211
atopic dermatitis is common in
childhood and infancy, but can last into adult life
212
What is the presenting symptom of atopic dermatitis
pruritis
213
what is a herald patch
circular, demarcated, salmon-pink
214
erythema multiforme is associated with
allergic or toxic reactions to drugs or microorganisms
215
erythema multiforme is caused by
immune complexes formed and deposited around dermal blood vessels, basement membranes, and keratinocytes
216
Bulls eye (target lesion)
erythematous regions surrounded by rings of alternating edema and inflammation
217
honey-crusted - impetigo is caused by what organism
staphylococcus
218
Tinea corporis definition
ringworm of the body
219
Tinea corporis characteristics of lesion
round oval or circular, central clearing with raised red borders, borders may have vesicles, papules, or pustules, scaling, itching, burning
220
candiadiasis is caused by
candida albicans
221
candiadiasis is normally found
on the skin, in the GI tract, and in the vagina
222
C. albicans causes thrush which is
local environment of moisture and warmth, systemic administration of antibiotics, pregnancy, diabetes mellitus, Cushing's disease, debilitated states, age younger than 6 months, immunosuppression, and neoplastic diseases
223
candiadiasis clinical manifestations
thin-walled pustule that produces a whitish-yellow curd like substance
224
candiadiasis treatment
topical antifungal medication
225
seborrheic keratosis
cutaneous basal cells
226
actinic keratosis is
premalignant lesion composed of aberrant proliferations of epidermal keratinocytes caused by prolonged exposure to UV radiation
227
acne vulgaris - non-inflammatory acne - blackheads
comedones are open
228
acne vulgaris-non-inflammatory acne-whiteheads
comedones are closed
229
inflammatory acne is caused by
follicular wall rupture in closed comedones
230
pustules are inflammation
close to the surface
231
papulas and cystic nodules are inflammation
is deeper and may cause scarring
232
inside out-immunologic dysregulation
leading to an epidermal barrier abnormality
233
outside-in
explanation with primary barrier dysfunction as the cause
234
atopic dermatitis clinical manifestations -
frequent exacerbations, severe pruritis (itching is the hallmark sign), and characteristics eczematoid appearance with redness, edema, and scaling
235
atopic dermatitis in infants
rash (red scaly lesions) appearing on the face, scalp, trunk, and extensor surfaces of the arms and legs
236
atopic dermatitis in children and adults
tendency of rash to appear on the neck, antecubital, and popliteal fossae, hands and feet
237
atopic dermatitis common lab finding
eosinophilia
238
Lichenification is the
thickening of the epidermis from constant scratching
239
atopic dermatitis is common
with adults with chronic eczema
240
irritant contact dermatitis
candida infection (diaper rash)
241
skin infection caused by bacteria
impetigo
242
impetigo contagiosum is a
common condition in children
243
impetigo transmission is by
both direct and indirect contacts
244
impetigo is characterized by
honey-crusted lesions
245
impetigo is a superficial infection usually caused by
staphylococcus aureus or streptococcus pyogenes
246
impetigo incidence is high
in hot,humid climates
247
impetigo types
nonbullous and bullous
248
bullous impetigo produces
staphylococci produce a bacterial toxin called exfoliative toxin (ET)
249
bullous impetigo causes a disruption
in desmosomal adhesion molecules with blister formation
250
molluscum contagiosum is
pox-like scales, highly contagious
251
rubeola red measles clinical manifestations
high fever malaise enlarged lymph nodes runny nose conjunctivitis barking cough
252
rubeola red measles skin description
erythematous purple to red or brown maculopapular rash, developing over the head and spreading distally over the trunk, extremities, hands and feet
253
rubeola red measles - Koplik spots
mouth lesions- pinpoint white spots surrounded by an erythematous ring over the buccal mucosa, lasts 3-5 days
254
what help the prevention of rubeola ?
vaccines
255
rubeola red measles treatment
same as rubella (vaccine)
256
roseola is
erythematous, nonpruritic macular rash that lasts approximately 24-48 hours and develops over trunk, neck, and arms
257
chicken pox/varicella is the same as
herpes zoster (shingles)
258
chickenpox both diseases are produced by
the same virus
259
varicella-zoster virus (VZV) is a
deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) virus
260
chickenpox infection occurs within the
keratinocytes
261
chickenpox is highly contagious
spread by person to person contact and airborne droplets
262
chickenpox clinical manifestations -
itching or the appearance of vesicles, usually on the trunk, scalp or face; later spreading to the extremities
263
chicken pox clinical manifestations lesions
in various stages of maturation with macules, papules, and vesicles present in a particular area at the same time
264
children chickenpox clinical manifestations
children with chickenpox are at risk for developing shingles as an adult
265
who does hand/foot/mouth disease affect
infants and young children
266
hand/foot/mouth disease is caused by
coxsackievirus
267
hand/foot/mouth disease clinical manifestations
fever vesicular ulcerous lesions in the mouth vesicular rashes on hands, feet, buttocks, meningitis encephalitis acute flaccid paralysis neuro respiratory syndrome
268
hand/foot/mouth disease treatment
supportive care
269
Scabies is a contagious disease caused by
the itch mite, sarcoptes scabiei
270
Scabies is transmitted by
personal contact and infected clothing and linens
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scabies - female mites
tunnels into the stratum corneum and deposits eggs
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scabies primary lesions -
burrows, papules, and vesicular lesions with severe itching (worse at night)
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scabies treatment
scabicide or oral ivermectin (for severe scabies), all clothing/linens must be washed in hot cycles or dry cleaned