1
Q
In flight, do not transmit on surveillance radar within _____ horizontally or _____ vertically from another aircraft.
Ref: T.O. 1E-3A-43-1-1 Pg: 1-3
A. 900 feet; 450 feet
B. 1300 feet; 650 feet
C. 2000 feet; 1000 feet
D. 1 mile; 1000 feet
A
B. 1300 feet; 650 feet
2
Q
If surveillance radar is operating on ground, observe following safety distance limits from rotodome: _____.
Ref: T.O. 1E-3A-43-1-1 Pg: 1-3
A. 1,300 feet for personnel not inside the airplane
B. 1,300 feet for refueling and defueling operations
C. 3,000 feet for personnel not inside the airplane
D. a and b
A
D. a and b
3
Q
Power to the frequency converter is controlled by a circuit breaker on the ______ panel.
Ref: T.O. 1E-3A-43-1-1 Pg: 1-8
A. P5
B. P66
C. P67-3
D. P67-2
A
D. P67-2
4
Q
The Electronic Support Measures (ESM) system is a passive detection system used to enhance E-3 surveillance capabilities. The purpose of the ESM System (ESMS) or ESM Group (ESMG) is to detect, identify and locate _____ RF emitters operating in a specific frequency range.
Ref: T.O. 1E-3A-43-1-1 Pg: 1-303
A. non communication
B. passive
C. only hostile
D. only airborne
A
A. non communication
5
Q
Selected UHF radios are capable of relaying _______ as needed.
Ref: T.O. 1E-3A-43-1-1 Pg: 1-380 A. CV (clear voice) B. NBSV (narrow band secure voice) C. WBSV (wide band secure voice) D. All of the above
A
D. All of the above
6
Q
Interlock circuitry prevents the following:
Ref: T.O. 1E-3A-43-1-1 Pg: 1-415
A. Simultaneous transmission on clear and secure
direct access radio nets with priority given to
secure transmission demands.
B. Direct access transmissions from a position
originating a PA message
C. Listening on any secure net, when transmitting on
any clear direct access net.
D. all of the above
A
D. all of the above
7
Q
The UHF equipment consists of the following:
Ref: T.O. 1E-3A-43-1-1 Pg: 1-454 A. Twenty (20) transceivers B. Two (2) high power amplifiers C. Thirteen (13) antennas D. all of the above
A
D. all of the above
8
Q
Joint Tactical Information Distribution System (JTIDS) (LINK 16) _. terminal operates in the frequency range of _____ thru _____ MHz
Ref: T.O. 1E-3A-43-1-1 Pg: 1-624 A. 225.000; 399.975 B. 350.000; 399.975 C. 1030; 1090 D. 960; 1215
A
D. 960; 1215
9
Q
The communications equipment receives its cooling from the _____ …
Ref: T.O. 1E-3A-43-1-1 Pg: 1-632 A. draw through B. forward forced air C. aft forced air D. All of the above
A
D. All of the above
10
Q
Where two or more crewmembers are needed to perform a procedure, the steps are coded using crewmember symbols enclosed within _____.
Ref: T.O. 1E-3A-43-1-1 Pg: 2-3 A. parentheses B. a circle C. a box D. none of the above
A
A. parentheses
11
Q
Steps requiring coordination between mission crewmembers and flight crewmembers are indicated by _____ the checklist item number….
Ref: T.O. 1E-3A-43-1-1 Pg: 2-3
A. an arrow pointing to
B. a plus next to
C. a circle around
D. an asterisk next to
A
C. a circle around
12
Q
If the crew launching is not the crew which cocked the airplane, MCC, ART, CDMT, CSO, and CT will _____ before engine start.
Ref: T.O. 1E-3A-43-1-1 Pg: 2-4
A. review AFTO Form 781, Sections A & K
B. complete oxygen and ADS panel preflight
C. verify correct template
D. monitor UHF for command post information
A
A. review AFTO Form 781, Sections A & K
13
Q
During OUTBOUND PROCEDURES, the flight engineer will clear the mission crew to power up mission systems once the following are complete:
Ref: T.O. 1E-3A-43-1-1 Pg: 2-13
A. rotodome turning at 6 rpm
B. TAT is 15 degrees C (59 degrees F) or less and not
rising
C. six generators on in parallel
D. all of the above
A
D. all of the above
14
Q
During PREPARATION FOR CONTACT (BEFORE 1/2 NM) (MCC) checklist, the ART informs MCC waveguide switch is _____, IFF is _____.
Ref: T.O. 1E-3A-43-1-1 Pg: 2-15
A. in LOAD; in standby LESS NGIFF and manual
control
B. in standby; OFF
C. OFF; in TEST MAINTENANCE
D. under DPAG CONTROL; OFF
A
A. in LOAD; in standby LESS NGIFF and manual control
15
Q
Emergency procedures should be _____ so that the crew will be familiar with the procedures.
Ref: T.O. 1E-3A-43-1-1 Pg: 3-3
A. rigid
B. unique and accomplished only for flight
evaluations
C. the highest priority of the mission
D. practiced often
A
D. practiced often
16
Q
MCC shall ensure _____ is aware that personnel are in _____.
Ref: T.O. 1E-3A-43-1-1 Pg: 3-4 A. flight; aft lower compartment only B. flight crew; forward lower compartment only C. flight crew; lower compartments D. flight and mission crew; lavatory
A
C. flight crew; lower compartments
17
Q
Crewmembers primarily involved with emergency will coordinate on _____. All other crewmembers will be on _____.
Ref: T.O. 1E-3A-43-1-1 Pg: 3-4
A. maintenance net; maintenance net
B. net 1; nets 2 and 3
C. maintenance net; mission nets 2 and 3
D. net 1; maintenance net
A
C. maintenance net; mission nets 2 and 3
18
Q
The mission crew has three designated fire fighters: _____.
Ref: T.O. 1E-3A-43-1-1 Pg: 5-14
A. CT, CDMT and ART
B. CSO, CT and CDMT
C. CSO, CT and ART
D. AWO, AST and ART
A
A. CT, CDMT and ART
19
Q
At least one member of refill team will maintain communications on _____.
Ref: T.O. 1E-3A-43-1-1 Pg: 3-18
A. Net 1
B. Net 2
C. Net 3
D. maintenance net
A
D. maintenance net
20
Q
During inflight refueling, from 1/2 mile before air refueling contact until _____ of refueling, or as directed by flight crew, the surveillance radar and the identification system will be put in standby.
Ref: T.O. 1E-3A-43-1-1 Pg: 5-2 Chap:
A. end
B. five minutes after end
C. thirty minutes after end
D. normal orbit altitude is established after end
A
B. five minutes after end
21
Q
The ROTODOME speed limits for proper AOCP operation is _____ RPM.
Ref: T.O. 1E-3A-43-1-1 Pg: 5-9 A. 5 plus or minus 0.33 B. 5 plus or minus 0.25 C. 6 plus or minus 0.33 D. 6 plus or minus 0.25
A
C. 6 plus or minus 0.33
22
Q
If the rotodome RPM is out of tolerance by a substantial amount, approximately 3 RPM, _____ is displayed on the consoles.
Ref: T.O. 1E-3A-43-1-1 Pg: 5-9
A. mode control message
B. a single strobe
C. a wedge of targets
D. INVLD RPM
A
C. a wedge of targets
23
Q
Do not operate system M SEU for more than _____ without draw through cooling system in operation.
Ref: T.O. 1E-3A-43-1-1 Pg: 5-9 A. five seconds B. five minutes C. 10 seconds D. 10 minutes
A
B. five minutes
24
Q
The Iridium Communication System operates up to a cabin altitude of 25,000 feet and at temperatures from ____ F to ____ F.
Ref: T.O. 1E-3A-43-1-1 Pg: 5-14
A. 32 degrees; 100 degrees
B. 0 degrees; 120 degrees
C. 32 degrees; 122 degrees
D. 0 degrees; 100 degrees
A
C. 32 degrees; 122 degrees
25
UHF receivers in the E2, E3, E4, E13 and E19 cabinets can be expected to operate for _____ without cooling available.
```
Ref: T.O. 1E-3A-43-1-1 Pg: 5-18.1
A. 5 Seconds
B. 5 Minutes
C. 20 Seconds
D. 20 Minutes
```
B. 5 Minutes
26
UHF transmitters in the E2, E3, E4 and E19 cabinets can be expected to operate _____ without cooling available.
```
Ref: T.O. 1E-3A-43-1-1 Pg: 5-18.1
A. 5 Seconds
B. 5 Minutes
C. 20 Seconds
D. 20 Minutes
```
A. 5 Seconds
27
Prior to each flight, each crewmember and passenger will be briefed on the following:
Ref: AFI 11-202 V3 Para: 4.19.
A. Emergency signals and procedures
B. location and use of emergency exits, oxygen,
communications systems, and survival
equipment
C. Safety precautions and restrictions including
FOD hazards and electronic device
prohibitions
D. All of the above
D. All of the above
28
Ensure sufficient oxygen for the planned mission is available to all occupants before takeoff. Normally, aircrew will use supplemental oxygen any time the cabin altitude exceeds _____.
```
Ref: AFI 11-202 V3 Para: 3.14.1.
A. 10,000 ft MSL
B. 20,000 ft MSL
C. 10,000 ft AGL
D. None of the above
```
A. 10,000 ft MSL
29
The maximum flight duty period for battle management type aircraft (basic aircrew) is _____ hours.
```
Ref: AFI 11-202 V3 Para: 2.7.1.5.
A. 12 hours
B. 14 hours
C. 16 hours
D. 24 hours
```
C. 16 hours
30
The maximum flight duty period for battle management type aircraft (augmented aircrew) is _____ hours.
```
Ref: AFI 11-202 V3 Para: Table 2.1
A. 12
B. 14
C. 16
D. 24
```
D. 24
31
During _____, emergency situations, and special operations, the mission radar may be radiating at or below FL180 within equipment limitations.
```
Ref: AFI 11-2E3 V3 Para: 3.8.
A. continuation training sorties
B. pilot proficiency sorties
C. operational check flights
D. contingency operations
```
D. contingency operations
32
Do not radiate the mission radar at or below_________ due to the potential for conflict with VFR traffic that may pass closer than 650 feet vertically and 1300 feet horizontally.
```
Ref: AFI 11-2E3 V3 Para: 3.8.
A. bottom of the refueling blocks
B. transition flight level (FL)
C. RPA transition altitude
D. ultralight recovery altitude
```
B. transition flight level (FL)
33
The AWACS Monitor will pass track information with the following parameters or as modified by the PIC: For ATC-controlled airspace: Tracks that are within +/- _______ (IFF Mode C) or _______ feet radar measured of E-3 altitude....
```
Ref: AFI 11-2E3 V3 Para: 3.11.2.2.
A. 1000; 3000
B. 1000; 5000
C. 3000; 5000
D. 3000; 10,000
```
A. 1000; 3000
34
The AWACS monitor will pass track information with the following parameters or as modified by the PIC: For uncontrolled airspace: Tracks which are within +/-_____ feet of the E-3 altitude_
```
Ref: AFI 11-2E3 V3 Para: 3.11.2.2.
A. 1,000
B. 2,000
C. 3,000
D. 5,000
```
C. 3,000
35
Secure the aircraft as a Protection Level _____ resource according to AFI 31-101, The Air Force Installation Security Program, as supplemented by MAJCOM.
```
Ref: AFI 11-2E3 V3 Para: 3.15.1.
A. A
B. B
C. 1
D. 2
```
D. 2
36
The _____ is responsible for ensuring aircraft security at enroute stops.
```
Ref: AFI 11-2E3 V3 Para: 3.15.1.
A. AC
B. MCC
C. Base Security Police
D. All of the above
```
A. AC
37
The _____ , or AC if an MCC is not available, is responsible for the security of classified mission documents and software.
```
Ref: AFI 11-2E3 V3 Para: 3.15.2.
A. ASO
B. CDMT
C. CSO
D. MCC
```
D. MCC
38
Thoroughly plan, brief, and practice simulated crew coordination drills...during each training sortie when mission profile allows. The following procedures apply:
Ref: AFI 11-2E3 V3 Para: 3.19.
A. The AC and MCC will coordinate prior to initiation
B. Operational requirements will not be interrupted
C. Passengers will be briefed, but will not participate
D. all of the above
D. all of the above
39
The _____ is responsible for the leadership, management, supervision, and training of the mission crew.
```
Ref: AFI 11-2E3 V3 Para: 5.2.1.1.
A. AC
B. Chief, DOT
C. MCC
D. Section Lead
```
C. MCC
40
The _____ is responsible to the appropriate commander for the safe, efficient, and successful conduct of the E-3's air battle.
```
Ref: AFI 11-2E3 V3 Para: 5.2.1.1.
A. AC
B. BD
C. MCC
D. mission crew
```
C. MCC
41
The _____, after coordination with the AC on equipment issues which affect aircraft systems, must approve continued operations of malfunctioning equipment that would affect the mission.
```
Ref: AFI 11-2E3 V3 Para: 5.3.2.
A. AC
B. MCC
C. squadron commander
D. wing commander
```
B. MCC
42
If control of aircraft is anticipated, accomplish a _____ correlation check prior to assuming station if required by LOA.
```
Ref: AFI 11-2E3 V3 Para: 5.3.8.1.
A. mission crew commander
B. sensor
C. surveillance
D. b or c, above
```
B. sensor
43
MCC should call "OFF STATION" when _____.
Ref: AFTTP 3-3.AWACS Para: 5.4.2.3.8
A. the minimum system requirements for on station are
no longer met
B. Relieving E-3 confirms ready to control the BMA
C. Relieving E-3 confirms 500 feet below relieved E-3
D. All of the above
A. the minimum system requirements for on station are
| no longer met
44
The _____ is the primary threat monitor for self-defense and coordinates with the ______ to recommend phases of retrograde.
```
Ref: AFTTP 3-3.AWACS Para: 6.1.3.1
A. SD; AC
B. MCC; AC
C. MCC; FE
D. MCC; SD
```
B. MCC; AC
45
To improve crew coordination, flight engineer should tie airplane maintenance net and mission maintenance net together during emergencies. Crewmembers primarily involved with emergency will coordinate on maintenance net. All other crewmembers will be on mission nets 2 and 3.
Ref: T.O. 1E-3A-43-1-1//T.O. 1E-3G-43-1-1 Pg: 3-4 // 3-4
A. True
B. False
A. True
46
Air-to-Air Refueling Control (AR17 / SQ78): Crewmember mission plans, executes, and debriefs the control and or tracking and ID of aircraft, not including the E-3, conducting air refueling operations.
Ref: AFI 11-2E-3 V1 Pg: 23
A. True
B. False
A. True
47
OUTBOUND PROCEDURES (MCC). The Flight Engineer (FE) will clear the Mission Crew Commander (MCC) to power up Mission Systems after the following condition(s) have been met
Ref: T.O. 1E-3A-43-1-1//T.O. 1E-3G-43-1-1 Pg: 2-13 / 2-13
A. Flight engineer has rotodome turning at 6 rpm
B. at least six generators on in parallel
C. forward forced air cooling system operating
D. TAT (total air temperature) is 15°C (59°F) or
less and not rising
E. all of the above
E. all of the above
48
The word ________ is used to define operating procedures, techniques, etc., which can result in personal injury or loss of life if not carefully followed.
```
Ref: T.O. 1E-3A-43-1-1//T.O. 1E-3G-43-1-1 Pg: xiv//xvi
A. NOTE
B. HAZARD
C. CAUTION
D. WARNING
```
D. WARNING
49
The word ________ is used to define operating procedures, techniques, etc., which can result in damage to equipment if not carefully followed.
```
Ref: T.O. 1E-3A-43-1-1//T.O. 1E-3G-43-1-1 Pg: xiv//xvi
A. NOTE
B. HAZARD
C. CAUTION
D. WARNING
```
C. CAUTION
50
The word ________ is used to define an operating procedure, technique, etc., which is considered essential to emphasize.
```
Ref: T.O. 1E-3A-43-1-1//T.O. 1E-3G-43-1-1 Pg: xiv//xvi
A. NOTE
B. HAZARD
C. CAUTION
D. WARNING
```
A. NOTE
51
The word(s) used to express that the requirements are binding and mandatory is/are:
```
Ref: T.O. 1E-3A-43-1-1//T.O. 1E-3G-43-1-1 Pg: xiv//xvi
A. SHALL or WILL
B. SHOULD or COULD
C. MAY
D. MIGHT
```
A. SHALL or WILL
52
If a circuit protective device (circuit breaker, Electronic Load Control Unit (ELCU), or power contactor) trips and the cause is not known, how many times may it be reset?
```
Ref: T.O. 1E-3A-43-1-1//T.O. 1E-3G-43-1-1 Pg: 1-7//1-11
A. One
B. Two
C. Three
D. As many times as necessary
```
A. One
53
In addition to the flight deck intercom, classified information will not be discussed on ________.
```
Ref: T.O. 1E-3A-43-1-1//T.O. 1E-3G-43-1-1 Pg: 1-414//1-699
A. Nets 1, 2, 3
B. Selective intercom
C. Mission and airplane
maintenance nets
D. Both b and c
```
D. Both b and c
54
Safety straps will be fastened across door opening if door is _____ .
```
Ref: T.O. 1E-3A-43-1-1//T.O. 1E-3G-43-1-1 Pg: 1-664//1-942
A. Closed
B. Open
C. Open and no stairs are in place
D. Closed and no stairs are in
place
```
C. Open and no stairs are in place
55
When opening entry or galley doors after emergency landing or ditching, _________ and check for possible entry of fire, smoke or water.
```
Ref: T.O. 1E-3A-43-1-1//T.O. 1E-3G-43-1-1 Pg: 1-644//1-942
A. Open door fully
B. Stop when door handle is in the
vertical position
C. Stop when door handle is in the
horizontal position
D. look through the window
```
B. Stop when door handle is in the vertical position
56
When opening entry or galley doors during an emergency landing or ditching, if fire, smoke or water enters the airplane at the top or bottom of the door, _____ .
```
Ref: T.O. 1E-3A-43-1-1//T.O. 1E-3G-43-1-1 Pg: 1-644//1-942
A. return handle to locked position
and use another exit if possible
B. rotate handle to full open
position and exit quickly
C. return to your seat and wait for
firefighters
D. wait 2 minutes, if it stops, exit
quickly
```
A. return handle to locked position and use another exit if possible
57
Areas around the entry and galley doors will be kept clear of obstructions during _____ .
```
Ref: T.O. 1E-3A-43-1-1//T.O. 1E-3G-43-1-1 Pg: 1-644//1-942
A. takeoff
B. landing
C. ground operations
D. all of the above
```
D. all of the above
58
Unless crew duties prohibit, seat belt and shoulder harness will be fastened, seat back in full upright position, and _____ locked for maximum crash protection.
```
Ref: T.O. 1E-3A-43-1-1//T.O. 1E-3G-43-1-1 Pg: 1-670//1-948
A. inertia reel
B. adjustment handles
C. console table tops
D. MA-1 portable oxygen bottles
```
A. inertia reel
59
Do not operate crew rest area ___________ if fuel vapor is present.
```
Ref: T.O. 1E-3A-43-1-1//T.O. 1E-3G-43-1-1 Pg: 1-674//1-951
A. Reading light switches
B. Flush toilet
C. Apply power to galley equipment
D. All of the above
```
D. All of the above
60
Bunks will not be occupied during _____, or be used for cargo tie-down at any time.
```
Ref: T.O. 1E-3A-43-1-1//T.O. 1E-3G-43-1-1 Pg: 1-674//1-951
A. takeoff
B. landing
C. inflight refueling
D. all of the above
```
D. all of the above
61
The hot cup ___________ if operated dry.
```
Ref: T.O. 1E-3A-43-1-1//T.O. 1E-3G-43-1-1 Pg: 1-676// 1-953
A. will automatically shutdown
B. heating element can explode
C. will melt
D. none of the above
```
B. heating element can explode
62
If unable to determine whether a bottle is depleted to 10psi or less for over two hours, or if the time of depletion cannot be determined, what procedure will be performed?
```
Ref: T.O. 1E-3A-43-1-1//T.O. 1E-3G-43-1-1 Pg: 1-685//2-8
A. Portable Oxygen Bottle Preflight
Procedure
B. Portable Oxygen Bottle Purging
Procedure
C. Portable Oxygen Bottle
Charging Procedure
D. There is no procedure, contact
ground maintenance
```
B. Portable Oxygen Bottle Purging Procedure
63
Prior to servicing portable oxygen bottles, ensure oxygen bottle filler port and oxygen recharger outlet are free of oil and grease. If not, _________________.
```
Ref: T.O. 1E-3A-43-1-1//T.O. 1E-3G-43-1-1 Pg: 1-690//1-970
A. combustion or contamination
could result
B. oxygen bottle filler port and
oxygen recharger outlet will not
engage
C. pressure regulator will become
clogged
D. pressure gauge will indicate an
erroneous PSI
```
A. combustion or contamination could result
64
The altitude selector knob on the MA-1 portable oxygen bottle can be unintentionally moved from the desired position because _____ .
```
Ref: T.O. 1E-3A-43-1-1//T.O. 1E-3G-43-1-1 Pg: 1-684//2-7
A. The bottles are located near the
floor
B. A positive lock is not provided
C. It is on top of the bottle
D. All of the above
```
B. A positive lock is not provided
65
The fire fighter's smoke mask should not be used at cabin altitudes above _____ feet.
```
Ref: T.O. 1E-3A-43-1-1//T.O. 1E-3G-43-1-1 Pg: 1-694//1-969
A. 23000
B. 30000
C. 35000
D. 43000
```
D. 43000
66
The escape slide is unusable unless retaining bar passes through slide harness and through the loop on the _____.
```
Ref: T.O. 1E-3A-43-1-1//T.O. 1E-3G-43-1-1 Pg: 1-698//1-980
A. Inflation handle
B. Floor fitting
C. Retaining hook assembly
D. Both a and c
```
C. Retaining hook assembly
67
Attempting to inflate escape slides inside the airplane could cause _____ .
```
Ref: T.O. 1E-3A-43-1-1//T.O. 1E-3G-43-1-1 Pg: 1-698//1-980
A. Injury to crewmembers
B. Damage to slides
C. A misunderstanding among
crewmembers
D. Both a and b
```
D. Both a and b
68
The escape slide hooks must be connected to the floor fitting _____ , remaining there until the airplane _____ .
Ref: T.O. 1E-3A-43-1-1//T.O. 1E-3G-43-1-1 Pg: 1-698//1-980
A. When entry door is closed and stand is removed; is parked and engines are off
B. Before engine start; is parked and FE has cleared slide hooks disconnect
C. Prior to take off; engines are shut down and the parking brake is set
D. Before engine start; disembarking stands are in place.
B. Before engine start; is parked and FE has cleared slide hooks disconnect
69
The slides __________when the door is opened, if the slide fitting has been attached to the floor.
```
Ref: T.O. 1E-3A-43-1-1//T.O. 1E-3G-43-1-1 Pg: 1-698//1-980
A. deploy automatically
B. deploy automatically and inflate
C. create a vacuum
D. both b and c
```
A. deploy automatically
70
The escape slides are installed on _____ .
Ref: T.O. 1E-3A-43-1-1//T.O. 1E-3G-43-1-1 Pg: 1-698//1-980
A. each main entry door and the cargo doors
B. the galley door and the cargo doors
C. each main entry door and the galley door
D. the cargo doors, each main entry door, and the galley door
C. each main entry door and the galley door
71
The life rafts can be released manually by ________.
Ref: T.O. 1E-3A-43-1-1//T.O. 1E-3G-43-1-1 Pg: 1-699//1-980
A. Getting the water activated batteries wet
B. Pulling the associated circuit breaker
C. Switch at the engineer's panel
D. Pulling the manual release handle at the overwing exit hatch
D. Pulling the manual release handle at the overwing exit hatch
72
The fire extinguishers are suitable for use _____ .
```
Ref: T.O. 1E-3A-43-1-1//T.O. 1E-3G-43-1-1 Pg: 1-697//1-979
A. on smoking electrical equipment
B. on any class of fire
C. only on electrical fires
D. only on trash fires
```
B. on any class of fire
73
Crewmembers using fire extinguishers will _____ .
Ref: T.O. 1E-3A-43-1-1//T.O. 1E-3G-43-1-1 Pg: 1-697//1-979
A. Wait for the pilot's command
B. Wear their nomex flight jacket and gloves
C. Use smoke mask
D. Both a and b are correct
C. Use smoke mask
74
Which of the following statements is/are true concerning the onboard fire extinguisher?
Ref: T.O. 1E-3A-43-1-1//T.O. 1E-3G-43-1-1 Pg: 1-698//1-980
A. Do not use the extinguisher on smoking electrical equipment unless flames are actually visible
B. The primary action is to smother the fire
C. The extinguisher agent is non-toxic, but it can form toxic byproducts when exposed to fire or high temperature
D. All the above
D. All the above
75
If a fire extinguisher leaks, _______, cover the nozzle with a cloth to catch any liquid discharge. Then press trigger to release pressurizing gas __________ of agent.
Ref: T.O. 1E-3A-43-1-1//T.O. 1E-3G-43-1-1 Pg: 1-698//1-980
A. turn it upside down; with minimum release
B. turn it upside down; until extinguisher is empty
C. hold extinguisher in upright position; with minimum release
D. hold extinguisher in upright position; until extinguisher is empty
A. turn it upside down; with minimum release
76
A checklist item that has a circled number indicates it requires coordination between
Ref: T.O. 1E-3A-43-1-1//T.O. 1E-3G-43-1-1 Pg: 2-3//3-3
A. Firefighters
B. Mission crewmembers assigned on different mission nets
C. The E-3 and external agencies
D. Mission crewmembers and flight crewmembers
D. Mission crewmembers and flight crewmembers
77
Personnel seated in crew rest seats________ will perform crew service unit oxygen regulator preflight procedure.
```
Ref: T.O. 1E-3A-43-1-1//T.O. 1E-3G-43-1-1 Pg: 2-9//2-9
A. 31 through 38
B. 24, 33, 35, 36
C. 35, 36
D. 5, 14, 16, 33, 35, 36
```
A. 31 through 38
78
To prevent damage to seat locking pins, do not release seat adjustment handles while seat is in ______.
```
Ref: T.O. 1E-3A-43-1-1//T.O. 1E-3G-43-1-1 Pg: 2-44//2-11
A. the up position
B. a reclined position
C. motion
D. crash position
```
C. motion
79
All personnel entering lower compartments in flight shall ____ .
Ref: T.O. 1E-3A-43-1-1//T.O. 1E-3G-43-1-1 Pg: 3-4//3-4
A. wear oxygen
B. don flight gloves
C. wear ear protection
D. maintain communications with the flight deck
C. wear ear protection
80
Because of excessive background noise, crewmembers in lower compartment should avoid using _____ .
```
Ref: T.O. 1E-3A-43-1-1//T.O. 1E-3G-43-1-1 Pg: 3-4//3-4
A. net 1
B. HOT MIC
C. smoke masks
D. all of the above
```
B. HOT MIC
81
The _____ may designate any crewmember to perform a procedure if the emergency requires.
```
Ref: T.O. 1E-3A-43-1-1//T.O. 1E-3G-43-1-1 Pg: 3-3//3-3
A. MCC
B. Co-pilot
C. Pilot
D. Firefighter
```
C. Pilot
82
The signal to prepare for CRASH LANDING or DITCHING is________.
Ref: T.O. 1E-3A-43-1-1//T.O. 1E-3G-43-1-1 Pg: 3-4//3-4
A. alarm bell on five to ten seconds
B. announcement over the interphone system
C. announcement over the PA and illumination of CRASH LANDING signs
D. both a and c
C. announcement over the PA and illumination of CRASH LANDING signs
83
When jumping into a slide,____________ .
Ref: T.O. 1E-3A-43-1-1//T.O. 1E-3G-43-1-1 Pg: 3-5//3-5
A. jump far enough to clear the door sill
B. remove sharp objects from pockets
C. jump halfway down the slide
D. all of the above
A. jump far enough to clear the door sill
84
If flaps are not at 40 or 50 degree position and landing gear is extended, use extreme care if evacuating by overwing exits. ____________________.
Ref: T.O. 1E-3A-43-1-1//T.O. 1E-3G-43-1-1 Pg: 3-5//3-5
A. Over-wing hatches may have jagged edges
B. Jagged edges of flaps may cause injury
C. Injury could result when jumping from flap to ground
D. All of the above
C. Injury could result when jumping from flap to ground
85
To avoid injury do not exit through overwing hatches or aft doors until _____ .
```
Ref: T.O. 1E-3A-43-1-1//T.O. 1E-3G-43-1-1 Pg: 3-5//3-5
A. cleared by the MCC
B. Flaps are at 60 degrees
C. galley is powered down
D. engines have been shut down
```
D. engines have been shut down
86
Primary exits during GROUND EVACUATION are the ____ .
Ref: T.O. 1E-3A-43-1-1//T.O. 1E-3G-43-1-1 Pg: 3-5//3-5
A. entry and galley doors
B. pilot's windows and overwing hatches
C. cargo doors and overwing hatches
D. pilot's windows and cargo doors
A. entry and galley doors
87
GROUND EVACUATION is initiated _____ .
Ref: T.O. 1E-3A-43-1-1//T.O. 1E-3G-43-1-1 Pg: 3-5//3-5
A. at the pilot's command over PA and interphone, if possible, and by continuous (5 to 10 second) sounding of the alarm bell
B. at ASO's announcement over the PA to evacuate the airplane
C. at MCC's command to evacuate the airplane
D. when any crewmember makes an announcement over the PA
A. at the pilot's command over PA and interphone, if possible, and by continuous (5 to 10 second) sounding of the alarm bell
88
If evacuating the aircraft after an aborted takeoff or heavyweight landing, depart directly forward or aft of the aircraft _____ .
Ref: T.O. 1E-3A-43-1-1//T.O. 1E-3G-43-1-1 Pg: 3-9//3-9
A. to avoid engine exhaust
B. to avoid firefighting personnel
C. to avoid possible tire/wheel burst area if fuse plugs do not melt
D. because only main and cargo entry doors may be used for evacuation
C. to avoid possible tire/wheel burst area if fuse plugs do not melt
89
When using the _____ for emergency exit, ensure the strap is securely fastened and the strap is extended fully (green band on the strap is at the window sill).
```
Ref: T.O. 1E-3A-43-1-1//T.O. 1E-3G-43-1-1 Pg: 3-11//3-11
A. escape slide
B. pilot's sliding windows
C. overwing escape hatch
D. restraint harness
```
B. pilot's sliding windows
90
If using the pilot's sliding windows for emergency evacuation, use care to avoid ____ when descending along the side of the airplane.
```
Ref: T.O. 1E-3A-43-1-1//T.O. 1E-3G-43-1-1 Pg: 3-12//3-12
A. engine intakes
B. nose gear tires
C. probes and pitot heads
D. all of the above
```
C. probes and pitot heads
91
Crewmember handling escape hatch in flight must wear a restraint harness. Secure harness by safety lanyard _____ .
```
Ref: T.O. 1E-3A-43-1-1//T.O. 1E-3G-43-1-1 Pg: 3-14//3-14
A. To base of a mission crew seat
B. To the handle next to the hatch
C. Held by two other crewmembers
D. Both A and C are correct
```
A. To base of a mission crew seat
92
How can a crewmember detect the presence of SF-6 gas in the AFT lower compartment?
Ref: T.O. 1E-3A-43-1-1//T.O. 1E-3G-43-1-1 Pg: 3-17//3-17
A. By its odor
B. By its color
C. With an ohm meter
D. It cannot be detected by crewmembers
D. It cannot be detected by crewmembers
93
If SF-6 is inhaled _____ and provide _____ oxygen.
Ref: T.O. 1E-3A-43-1-1//T.O. 1E-3G-43-1-1 Pg: 3-17//3-17
A. place crewmember with head lower than lungs; 100%
B. place crewmember with head lower than lungs; NORMAL
C. place crewmember with head higher than lungs; 100%
D. place crewmember with head higher than lungs; NORMAL
A. place crewmember with head lower than lungs; 100%
94
If a crewmember has inhaled SF-6 gas and is unconscious, assist breathing by setting oxygen regulator to _____ for 2 to 3 seconds, then _____ for 2 to 3 seconds, repeating until crewmember is conscious.
```
Ref: T.O. 1E-3A-43-1-1//T.O. 1E-3G-43-1-1 Pg: 3-17//3-17
A. EMERGENCY; NORMAL
B. OFF; EMERGENCY
C. OFF; NORMAL
D. ON; OFF
```
A. EMERGENCY; NORMAL
95
Firefighter coordination will be conducted on maintenance net _________.
Ref: T.O. 1E-3A-43-1-1//T.O. 1E-3G-43-1-1 Pg: 3-18//3-18
A. To clear net 1 for MCC
B. Because mission nets are for classified use only
C. Because flight deck does not have any mission nets assigned
D. To allow freedom of movement
D. To allow freedom of movement
96
If source of fire, smoke, or fumes is in _____ , immediate use of necessary emergency equipment is authorized.
```
Ref: T.O. 1E-3A-43-1-1//T.O. 1E-3G-43-1-1 Pg: 3-18//3-18
A. Galley equipment
B. Crew trash bags
C. At lower compartment
D. Both A and B
```
D. Both A and B
97
All fires will be fought by a minimum of _____ firefighters, with _______ in close proximity ready to assist.
```
Ref: T.O. 1E-3A-43-1-1//T.O. 1E-3G-43-1-1 Pg: 3-18//3-18
A. 1; second
B. 2; third
C. 3; fourth
D. 3; with bottle refill team member
```
B. 2; third
98
The _________ will be primary firefighter.
Ref: T.O. 1E-3A-43-1-1//T.O. 1E-3G-43-1-1 Pg: 3-18//3-18
A. CT
B. CDMT
C. ART
D. technician responsible for affected equipment
D. technician responsible for affected equipment
99
If inspection shows a fire, smoke or fumes source is in an identifiable system or unit, _____ .
Ref: T.O. 1E-3A-43-1-1//T.O. 1E-3G-43-1-1 Pg: 3-17//3-17
A. use fire extinguisher
B. begin SMOKE EVACUATION procedures
C. notify pilot and wait for further instructions
D. remove all power from affected equipment immediately
D. remove all power from affected equipment immediately
100
During a ditching procedure, the order of preference for evacuation is _____________.
Ref: T.O. 1E-3A-43-1-1//T.O. 1E-3G-43-1-1 Pg: 3-18//3-18
A. flight deck windows, overwing hatches, and main deck doors if above water level
B. overwing hatches, main deck doors if above water level, and flight deck windows
C. main deck doors if above water level, flight deck windows, and overwing hatches
D. overwing hatches, cargo doors, and flight deck windows
B. overwing hatches, main deck doors if above water level, and flight deck windows
101
Report to the _____ for headcount, _______ of the aircraft after a GROUND EVACUATION.
```
Ref: T.O. 1E-3A-43-1-1//T.O. 1E-3G-43-1-1 Pg: 3-23//3-23
A. Pilot; downwind
B. FE; upwind
C. MCC; downwind
D. ASO; upwind
```
D. ASO; upwind
102
At first sign of loss of cabin pressure (audible warning or LOSS OF PRESSURE signs illuminated) all crew members will _________.
Ref: T.O. 1E-3A-43-1-1//T.O. 1E-3G-43-1-1 Pg: 3-57//3-25
A. don oxygen masks and set regulators to ON and 100%
B. sit quietly and wait for an announcement from the AC
C. don jacket and gloves
D. report damage to the MCC
A. don oxygen masks and set regulators to ON and 100%
103
When is oxygen required for personnel entering the AFT lower compartment?
Ref: T.O. 1E-3A-43-1-1//T.O. 1E-3G-43-1-1 Pg: 3-59//4-13
A. When an SF-6 leak is suspected
B. To perform maintenance on a mission radar component pressurized with SF-6
C. When pressurization is in manual operation
D. All of the above
D. All of the above
104
______________ lower compartment in flight shall maintain intercom communication with flight crew or mission crew.
Ref: T.O. 1E-3A-43-1-1//T.O. 1E-3G-43-1-1 Pg: 3-59//4-38
A. All personnel, while in the
B. At least one person per
C. All personnel, except the ART, while in the
D. none of the above, communications are not required except in emergencies
B. At least one person per
105
Do not remain in the AFT lower compartment for more than _____ per _____ while mission radar is transmitting.
```
Ref: T.O. 1E-3A-43-1-1//T.O. 1E-3G-43-1-1 Pg: 3-59//4-38
A. 1 hour; mission
B. 15 minutes; mission
C. 15 minutes; hour
D. 1 hour; mission
```
C. 15 minutes; hour
106
If equipment has a switch, set switch to ______ prior to setting associated circuit protective device and applying power.
```
Ref: T.O. 1E-3A-43-1-1//T.O. 1E-3G-43-1-1 Pg: 1-8//1-11
A. OFF
B. OPERATE
C. ON
D. TEST
```
A. OFF
107
Always verify diluter lever is set to _________ when setting SUPPLY lever to ___.
```
Ref: T.O. 1E-3A-43-1-1//T.O. 1E-3G-43-1-1 Pg: 1-684//1-966
A. 100% OXYGEN; OFF
B. NORMAL; OFF
C. 100% OXYGEN; ON
D. NORMAL; ON
```
A. 100% OXYGEN; OFF
108
To properly use the Halon fire extinguisher, position it vertically about _______ feet from fire. Remove pull ring pin. Aim nozzle at _______ of fire. Squeeze trigger and sweep agent across the fire with a(n) __________ motion.
```
Ref: T.O. 1E-3A-43-1-1//T.O. 1E-3G-43-1-1 Pg: 1-698//1-980
A. 8, base, side to side
B. 6, base, up and down
C. 8, top, top to bottom
D. 4, point, side to side
```
A. 8, base, side to side
109
Halon 1211 byproducts become ___________ if exposed to ___________.
```
Ref: T.O. 1E-3A-43-1-1//T.O. 1E-3G-43-1-1 Pg: 1-698// 1-979
A. corrosive / moisture
B. corrosive / oxygen
C. toxic / oxygen
D. corrosive / high temperature
```
A. corrosive / moisture
110
The MA-1 portable oxygen cylinder when charged to 300 psi, provides enough oxygen for about _____ of moderate activity at 25,000 feet.
```
Ref: T.O. 1E-3A-43-1-1//T.O. 1E-3G-43-1-1 Pg: 1-684//1-966
A. 5 minutes
B. 10 minutes
C. 20 minutes
D. 45 minutes
```
B. 10 minutes
111
To avoid possible injury to personnel on boarding stands, ensure _____ before ______.
Ref: T.O. 1E-3A-43-1-1//T.O. 1E-3G-43-1-1 Pg: 1-663//1-941
A. door handle is in vertical position and check for entry of fire, smoke, or water / inflating escape slide
B. raft compartment door has separated from kit / allowing raft to approach the vortex generators
C. safety straps are fastened across door / inflating escape slide
D. escape slides are disconnected from the floor / opening personnel doors
D. escape slides are disconnected from the floor / opening personnel doors
112
Both the forward and aft lower deck cargo doors open the same way. To open from the inside, rotate handle one-eighth turn clockwise to unlock and then ______.
Ref: T.O. 1E-3A-43-1-1//T.O. 1E-3G-43-1-1 Pg: 1-644//1-942
A. kick it hard to activate the panic release mechanism
B. pull it inward about six inches then slide it forward
C. push the aft edge outward and then pivot the door toward the front of the aircraft
D. push it out about six inches and then slide it aft
B. pull it inward about six inches then slide it forward
113
When using the MA-1 portable oxygen bottle, the regulator must be set to ______ at all times, unless another setting is needed to clear mask of smoke, or for pressure breathing.
Ref: T.O. 1E-3A-43-1-1//T.O. 1E-3G-43-1-1 Pg: 1-684//1-966
A. the regulator altitude (30M or 42M) closest to the E-3 altitude
B. the regulator altitude (30M or 42M) which is closest but not less than actual E-3 altitude
C. NORM
D. EMER
C. NORM
114
If portable oxygen bottles are not properly secured, bottles ______.
Ref: T.O. 1E-3A-43-1-1//T.O. 1E-3G-43-1-1 Pg: 1-684//1-966
A. can vibrate out of holder in flight, possibly causing injury to crew members
B. could be inaccessible during an actual emergency
C. will not have the quick release feature and acquisition delay might result during an actual emergency
D. may need to be purged
A. can vibrate out of holder in flight, possibly causing injury to crew members
115
Continual use of an oxygen filler hose under adverse conditions can cause ____to form on the connector resulting in slow bottle filling and/or continuous oxygen leakage from that filler port after a bottle is removed.
```
Ref: T.O. 1E-3A-43-1-1//T.O. 1E-3G-43-1-1 Pg: 1-690//1-970
A. oil
B. frost
C. dirt
D. grease
```
B. frost
116
The Emergency Passenger Oxygen System may only provide breathable oxygen for as short as _______.
```
Ref: T.O. 1E-3A-43-1-1//T.O. 1E-3G-43-1-1 Pg: 1-685//1-977
A. seven minutes
B. five minutes
C. eight minutes
D. three minutes
```
B. five minutes
117
What two actions must be taken to completely separate an inflated escape slide from the E-3 when it is to be used as a raft after ditching?
Ref: T.O. 1E-3A-43-1-1//T.O. 1E-3G-43-1-1 Pg: 1-698//1-980
A. Pull the deployment handle then pull the release mechanism before boarding
B. Manually separate the slide compartment then untie the lanyard after boarding
C. Activate the emergency release piston then press the door jettison switch before boarding
D. Pull ditching release strap then cut lanyard after boarding
D. Pull ditching release strap then cut lanyard after boarding
118
When the raft is ______, the ______ should be clamped off to prevent complete loss of pressure if one tube is punctured.
Ref: T.O. 1E-3A-43-1-1//T.O. 1E-3G-43-1-1 Pg: 1-699//1-981
A. inflating slowly due to a cold-soaked condition / equalization tube
B. not inflating / inflation cylinder inlet port
C. fully inflated / equalizer tube
D. completely separated from the E-3 / inflation cylinder relief valve
C. fully inflated / equalizer tube
119
If possible, launch rafts over the ______ to avoid damage from flaps. Do not allow raft to contact the ______.
Ref: T.O. 1E-3A-43-1-1//T.O. 1E-3G-43-1-1 Pg: 1-699//1-981
A. horizontal stabilizer / discharge probes
B. wing tips / outboard spoilers
C. outboard trailing edge of wing / ailerons
D. leading edge of wing / vortex generators
D. leading edge of wing / vortex generators
120
During ditching, the T.O. says you should inflate your LPU ______.
Ref: T.O. 1E-3A-43-1-1//T.O. 1E-3G-43-1-1 Pg: 1-699//1-981
A. immediately after leaving the airplane
B. immediately before leaving the airplane
C. when notified over PA that ditching is imminent
D. after loading the 20-man raft
A. immediately after leaving the airplane
121
Ensure ______ before pulling the survival kit into the 20-man life raft.
Ref: T.O. 1E-3A-43-1-1//T.O. 1E-3G-43-1-1 Pg: 1-699//1-981
A. the raft has fully inflated
B. the raft has separated from the E-3
C. there is room for all survivors
D. the raft compartment door has separated from the kit
D. the raft compartment door has separated from the kit
122
_____ shall ensure the flight crew is aware that personnel are in lower compartments.
```
Ref: T.O. 1E-3A-43-1-1//T.O. 1E-3G-43-1-1 Pg: 3-4//3-4
A. CSO
B. SD
C. ASO
D. MCC
```
D. MCC
123
When an emergency situation occurs in the airplane, the T.O. says to ______ then ______.
Ref: T.O. 1E-3A-43-1-1//T.O. 1E-3G-43-1-1 Pg: 3-4//3-4
A. handle the emergency / make a PA announcement
B. notify the SD or MCC at once / handle the emergency
C. notify the flight crew at once / perform emergency procedures as directed
D. turn to the applicable section of the yellow pages / respond accordingly
C. notify the flight crew at once / perform emergency procedures as directed
124
If an escape slide fails to inflate, it can still be used for egress. The T.O. recommends accomplishing this by ______.
Ref: T.O. 1E-3A-43-1-1//T.O. 1E-3G-43-1-1 Pg: 3-5//3-5
A. orally inflating the slide
B. having two crew members exit by climbing down the escape strap or by another exit, and holding the slide in the extended position
C. using the emergency escape strap (available at all main deck exits) to assist while descending the uninflated slide
D. using the nearest MA-1 portable oxygen bottle set to EMERGENCY to inflate the slide
B. having two crew members exit by climbing down the escape strap or by another exit, and holding the slide in the extended position
125
If the 20-man life raft has been cold-soaked at temperatures below -20 degrees Celsius, it can take 20 to 30 minutes for the raft to inflate. If this occurs, what should you do?
Ref: T.O. 1E-3A-43-1-1//T.O. 1E-3G-43-1-1 Pg: 1-699// 1-981
A. Abandon the rafts because the sinking E-3 will pull an uninflated raft down with it
B. Place raft package in water to warm raft and inflation cylinder.
C. Pull the manual inflation strap located above the overwing hatch exit.
D. Clamp equalizer tube until one of the two chambers inflates completely.
B. Place raft package in water to warm raft and inflation cylinder.
126
When boarding the life raft, be sure no sharp objects such as rings, pencils, buckles, and similar objects contact the raft. Remain seated on the floor without sliding. In heavy seas, move more people to the __________of the raft.
```
Ref: T.O. 1E-3A-43-1-1//T.O. 1E-3G-43-1-1 Pg: 1-699//1-981
A. upwind side
B. downwind side
C. center
D. outer ring
```
A. upwind side
127
Do not heat canned food in the oven without first _____ end of each container.
```
Ref: T.O. 1E-3A-43-1-1//T.O. 1E-3G-43-1-1 Pg: 1-675//1-952
A. puncturing
B. removing
C. Either a or b
D. None of the above
```
C. Either a or b
128
The COMSEC kit is built and maintained within the COMSEC vault. The kit will contain the necessary authenticators, callsign documents, crypto key tapes, and equipment for the mission employment area. Following a review of mission tasking and COMSEC callout messages, the _____ will determine additional COMSEC requirements for the Kit.
Ref: AFI 11-2E-3 V3 552OG/513ACG SUP 1 Para: 6.2.10
A. MCC, SD, ASO, ECO, CT, and CSO
B. MCC and AC
C. SD, ASO and CT
D. MCC, SD, ECO and ASO
A. MCC, SD, ASO, ECO, CT, and CSO
129
The minimum planned time from landing to subsequent takeoff will be ____ hours, unless waived by the applicable group commander.
```
Ref: AFI 11-2E-3 V3 552OG/513ACG SUP 1 Para: 6.3.1
A. 12
B. 14
C. 16
D. 18
```
C. 16
130
If the crew flies three consecutive sorties with minimal mission turn time they will be given at least _____ hours of non duty time prior to reporting for non-flying duties or entering crew rest for a subsequent mission (waiverable by the applicable group Commander).
```
Ref: AFI 11-2E3 V3 ACW Supp 1 Para: 6.3.1
A. 12
B. 24
C. 72
D. 48
```
B. 24
131
Fast-fill bottles should be prioritized for firefighter and runner duties (on firefighter masks including those in the lower lobes and above seats 9, 12, 15 and ____.
```
Ref: AFI 11-2E-3 V3 552OG/513ACG SUP 1 Para: 6.3.8.4.2
A. 5
B. 22
C. 17
D. the AC
```
B. 22
132
If a takeoff is delayed from Tinker AFB and the crew leaves the aircraft, the RMAs/OOMs _____.
Ref: AFI 11-2E-3 V3 552OG/513ACG SUP 1 Para: 6.3.7.2
A. can be left on the aircraft since it is in a secure area
B. will be removed unless one crewmember stays on the aircraft to safeguard them
C. must be returned to the computer group if the expected delay is more than 3 hours
D. can be left on the aircraft if maintenance agrees to guard them
B. will be removed unless one crewmember stays on the aircraft to safeguard them
133
Maintenance pre-flights on the E-3 remain valid for ______.
```
Ref: AFI 11-2E-3 V3 552OG/513ACG SUP 1 Para: 6.3.8.2
A. one week
B. one day
C. 72 hours
D. 24 hours
```
C. 72 hours
134
Severe Weather Advisories. Base Weather will issue a "Lightning Watch" approximately _______ minutes prior to anticipated thunderstorm activity within 10 nm of Tinker.
```
Ref: AFI 11-2E-3 V3 552OG/513ACG SUP 1 Para: 6.4.3.3
A. 30
B. 15 and every 10 after
C. 61
D. 10
```
A. 30
135
During critical phases of flight_ the maximum number of flight crew instructors/evaluators standing will be limited to _______.
```
Ref: AFI 11-2E-3 V3 552OG/513ACG SUP 1 Para: 6.4.3.6
A. one
B. two
C. three
D. four
```
B. two
136
At Tinker AFB, the timelines _ will normally be adhered to in order to affect an on time takeoff (552 ACW only). Timing may be modified by the _____, with Ops Supervisor approval, to meet operational requirements.
```
Ref: AFI 11-2E-3 V3 552OG/513ACG SUP 1 Para: 6.3.3.2
A. PIC
B. PIC or MCC
C. SQ/DO
D. DETCO
```
A. PIC
137
Time logged by a member occupying a designated duty station identified in AFI 65-503, and actively performing the duty associated with their aircrew specialty. Only qualified aircrew members and aircrew members obtaining qualification in the aircraft will log primary time when performing in-flight duties. Non-rated/non-CEA aircrew members and operational support personnel who do not have an established crew duty station will log primary time only when actually performing required in-flight duty. (AFI11-401_ACCSUP_1) The above describes:
```
Ref: AFI 11-401 ACC SUP1 Pg: 74 Chap: 3.3.1
A. Primary Flight Time
B. Secondary Flight Time
C. Instructor Flight Time
D. Evaluator Flight Time
E. Other Flight Time
```
A. Primary Flight Time
138
Flight time logged by a crewmember who is performing inflight duties related to the crewmember's specialty, but who is not controlling the function of that specialty. Except as listed below, the total secondary time logged in each specialty will not exceed the total flight time. When crewmembers are in excess of the authorized crew complement, annotate in the remarks of the AFTO Form 781 the secondary duties performed by additional aircrew. The member must be maintaining or obtaining qualification in the aircraft to log secondary time. For other aircrew specialties, log secondary time when actually performing inflight duties of the specialty, but not at the primary duty station established for that specialty dictated by mission requirements. (AFI11-401_ACCSUP_1) The above describes:
```
Ref: AFI 11-401 ACC SUP1 Pg: 77 Chap: 3 Para: 3.3.2
A. Primary Flight Time
B. Secondary Flight Time
C. Instructor Flight Time
D. Evaluator Flight Time
E. Other Flight Time
```
B. Secondary Flight Time
139
Flight time logged by a designated and qualified instructor while actively performing authorized instructional duties. Includes "hands on" time during demonstration activities that are part of instructional duties. The instructor is not required to occupying a primary duty station established for that specialty, but must be actually performing instructor duties. (AFI11-401_ACCSUP_1) The above describes:
```
Ref: AFI 11-401 ACC SUP1 Pg: 77 Chap: 3 Para: 3.3.3
A. Primary Flight Time
B. Secondary Flight Time
C. Instructor Flight Time
D. Evaluator Flight Time
E. Other Flight Time
```
C. Instructor Flight Time
140
Flight time flown by a designated and certified flight evaluator while actively performing authorized flight evaluation duties. Includes "hands on" time if coincident with performance of flight evaluator duties. The member is not required to occupy a primary duty station established for that specialty, but must be actually performing evaluator duties. Evaluators will also log instructor, primary, secondary, or other time, depending on their activity, when not performing evaluator duties. (AFI11-401_ACCSUP_1) The above describes:
```
Ref: AFI 11-401 ACC SUP1 Pg: 79 Chap: 3 Para: 3.3.4
A. Primary Flight Time
B. Secondary Flight Time
C. Instructor Flight Time
D. Evaluator Flight Time
E. Other Flight Time
```
D. Evaluator Flight Time
141
Flight time flown by members who are on the flight authorization, but who are not occupying a designated duty station or conforming to the requirements of primary, secondary, instructor, or evaluator time. For example: additional or extra crewmembers taking part in the flight, required for the mission to augment the crew or perform mission-related observation or evaluator duties (not qualified in the aircraft). Indoctrination fliers log other time. Crewmembers will log other time during periods of crew rest or sleep. (AFI11-401_ACCSUP_1) The above describes:
```
Ref: AFI 11-401 ACC SUP1 Pg: 79 Chap: 3 Para: 3.3.5
A. Primary Flight Time
B. Secondary Flight Time
C. Instructor Flight Time
D. Evaluator Flight Time
E. Other Flight Time
```
E. Other Flight Time
142
Use Programming factors when you need to identify the manpower compositions of various aircraft for costing purposes. Detailed instructions on the use of these factors [for Authorized Aircrew Composition - Active] are included in ... Table A36-1. Per Table A36-1, the following composition is established for C2/ISR/EW (AWACS): 2x Pilot (11RxA); 1 x Navigator (12RxA); 1 x MCC (13BxB); 1 x SD (13BxB); 1 x ASO (13BxB); 1 x ECO (13BxB); 4 x AWOs (13BxB); 1 x Flight Engineer (1A1x1); 1 x NORAD Certified SST (1A3x1); 11 x Abn Mission Sys Operators (1A3x1).
Ref: AFI 65-503 Financial Management Pg: 5 Chap: 4 Para: 4.2
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
A. TRUE
Tinker MQF/LOP '18
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