MSK Flashcards

(47 cards)

1
Q

Where does the MSK system develop from?

A

Mesodermal layer

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2
Q

What are the 5 steps involved in endochondrial ossification?

A
  1. Cartilage formation - the mesenchymal cells differentiate into chondrocytes and these secrete collagen and proteoglycans
  2. Chondrocyte proliferation and maturation
  3. Cartilage calcification
  4. Blood vessels and osteoblasts invade the calcified cartilage and leads to deposition of bone tissue
  5. Cartilage is replaced by bone
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3
Q

What is fusion of digits called?

A

Syndactyly

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4
Q

What is amniotic fluid band syndrome?

A

Some of the amniotic sac fibres pull away and wrap around the foetus during fetal development

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5
Q

Difference in postaxial hand polydactyly in african children vs white children

A

Autosomal dominant in black children and isolated disorder. In white children - autosomal recessive and usually syndromic

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6
Q

Risk factors for developmental dysplasia of the hip

A

Family hx, female gender, oligohydramnios, breech position, swaddling.The hip joint doesnt form properly and leads to a loose joint

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7
Q

What are drugs (especially when taken between 4-8 weeks gestation) can affect limb defects?

A

Thalidomide, warfarin, phenytoin, valproic acid and acetazolamide

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8
Q

What is amniotic band syndrome associated with?

A

Increased risk of cleft lip/palate and talipes equinovarus

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9
Q

How is developmental dysplasia of the hip diagnosed?

A

Ultrasound under 4 months and Hip X ray if older

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10
Q

How is DDH treated and which hip is more commonly affected?

A

Left hip and treated with pavlik harness

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11
Q

What is avsacular necrosis?

A

When the primary nutrient vessel to a bone is interuppted it can cause the cellular death of the bone.

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12
Q

Which age group does perthes disease affect?

A

Young boys 4-8 years

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13
Q

What is perthes?

A

Avascular necrosis of the femoral head

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14
Q

What is slipped upper femoral epiphyses and which age group does it affect?

A

Epiphysis of the femoral head displaces posteroinferiorly and needs prompt treatment. 10-15 years (obese boy or endorcine abnormalities )

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15
Q

What is felty syndrome?

A

Splenomegaly + rheumatoid arthritis + neutropenia

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16
Q

What is diffuse idiopathic pain syndrome?

A

Body responds abnormally to harmless stimuli and usually in different regions of the body. Can have stabbing pain, abdominal pain etc

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17
Q

What is affected in nursemaids elbow or pulled elbow?

A

The annular ligament which basically a fribous band of tissue that encircles the head of the radius

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18
Q

What is osteogenesis imperfecta?

A

Mutations in COL1A1 and COL1A2 result in abnormalities in the production of alpha chain of type 1 collagen

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19
Q

Type 1 vs Type 2 osteogensis imperfecta- name some features

A

Autosomal dominant and typical blue scelra appearance. Type 2 - lethal form and stillborns, multiple fractures before birth

20
Q

What is osteomalacia/ rickets?

A

Lack of vitamin D from dietary intake and sun exposure . Features include bossed forehead, bone pain, bowed limbs

21
Q

What is osteopetrosis?

A

Marbe bone disease, autosomal recessive and increased bone density. Bone marrow transplant can be curaive

22
Q

Name some clinical features of juvenile dermatomyositis

A

Heliotrope rash over face, periorbital oedema, gottrons papules, proximal muscle weakness

23
Q

Name some clinical features of Marfans (autosomal dominant connective tissue disorder)

A

Tall stature, long digits, hyperextensible joints, high arched palate, dislocation of the lenses of the eye, pneumothorax

24
Q

What is rhizomelic pattern of shortening and name a condition that has this

A

Proximal limbs such as upper arms and thighs are shorter, anchondroplasia (dwarfism)

25
When do children tend to develop heel strike in gait?
15-18 months
26
What is oligoarticular juvenile idiopathic arthritis?
4 or fewer joints in the first 6 months of disease- larger joints are affected, usually presents in early childhood 2-4 years of age
27
When do children develop running and change of direction?
After 2 years
28
Which antibody in SLE is most indicative of severe disease?
ant DSDNA
29
What is osgood sclatter disease and what population might we see it in?
Adolescents who play a lot of sport. The strength of the quadriceps muscle is greater than tibial tuberosity which means multiple fractures at the insertion point of the muscle to the tibial tuberosity
30
How does perthes appear on an Xray?
flattened and later a fragmented femoral head
31
How is clubfoot (talipes equinovarus) treated?
Serial casting via ponsetti method
32
What is the gold standard for diagnosing dermatomysitis?
Muscle biopsy
33
What could be a cause of toe walking?
Duchenne muscular dystrophy, juvenile idiopathic arthritis, tightness of achilles tendon
34
What is the most common organism causing septic arthritis?
Staph aureus
35
Which joints are the most commonly affected by septic arthrits?
1. Knee 2. Hip 3. Ankle
36
What is macrophage activation syndrome?
Complication of systemic juvenile idiopathic arthritis or SLE where there is a dramtic rise in ferritin and falling blood counts
37
What is CRP and what is its physiological role?
Acute phase protein produced by the liver in response to activated macrophages. It binds to phosphocholine which are expressed on dead/ dying cells thereby activating the complement system
38
What type of arthritis is HLA-B27 associated with?
psoriatic arthritis and enthesitis related arthritis
39
Which children are at highest risk of chronic anterior uveitis?
Children with oligoarticular juvenile idiopathic arthritis, especially ANA positive
40
Name some clinical features of Behcets
Recurrent painful mouth ulcers, genital ulcers and chronic bilateral uveitis , erythema nodosum, venous involvement- venous thrombosis
41
How does chronic anterior uveitis present in JIA?
Usually bilateral and aysmptomatic
42
What are some skin changes in complex regional pain syndrome?
Shiny and mottling skin
43
Where does Ewings sarcoma usually arise and what appearance may we see in the X ray?
Arises in the bone marrow so usually present in the diaphysis (shaft) of the bone. On X - ray there is an onion peel appearance
44
X ray with a raised periostem and sunburt appearance is indicative of?
Osteogenic sarcoma
45
Soap bubble appearance on X ray?
Osteoclastoma a.k.a giant cell tumour
46
ANA is positive in which rheumatological conditions?
SLE and oligoarticular JIA
47