MSK: Flashcards

1
Q

Posterior cord of brachial plexus gives rise to:

A

axillary and radial nn.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Medial cord of brachial plexus gives rise to:

A

ulnar n.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Lateral AND medial cord of brachial plexus gives rise to:

A

median n.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

can’t abduct arm above horizontal position

A

long thoraic nerve damage; innervated the serratus anterior

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

winged scapula

A

serratus anterior damage (C5-C7) “wings of heaven”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

problems extending 4th and 5th digits

A

distal ulnar nerve injury

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

problem making a fist with the 4th and 5th digits

A

proximal ulnar nerve injury (can’t make a fist, the lesion in farther away)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

problem making a fist with thumb, index and middle finger

A

proximal median nerve lesion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

problem extending the thumb, index, and middle finger

A

distal median nerve lesion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

sensory innervation to the suprapubic region

A

iliohypogastric n (T12-L1)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

sensory innervation to the scrotum/labia majors, inner thing

A

genitofemoral n. (L1-L2)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

responsible for cremasteric reflex

A

genitofemoral n. (L1-L2)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

decreased sensation to the anterior thigh below the inguinal ligament

A

damage to genitofemoral n. (L1-L2)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

nerve damaged with an anterior hip dislocation or pelvic surgery

A

obturator n. (L2-4)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

sensory to the dorsum of foot (except webspace b/w 1st and 2nd toes):

A

superficial peroneal n. branch of the common peroneal n.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

motor innervation to the hamstring muscles (semi tendinosus, semimembranousus, biceps femoris) and adductor magnus

A

sciatic n. (L4-S3)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

nerve most commonly compressed in anterior compartment syndrome

A

deep peroneal n.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

what direction do intervertebral discs herniate

A

posteriorlaterally d/t thin posterior longitudinal ligament

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

weakness of knee extension, decreased patellar reflex

A

L3-L4 disc herniation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

weakness of dorsiflexion and difficulty heel walking

A

L4-L5 disc herniation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

weakness of plantarflexion , difficulty toe walking, decrease Achilles reflex

A

L5-S1 disc herniation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

artery running with long thoracic n.

A

lateral thoracic a.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

artery running with axillary n.

A

posterior circumflex a. of the arm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

artery running with the radial n.

A

deep brachial a.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

artery running with the median n. in the cubital fossa at the distal humerus

A

brachial a.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

artery running with the tibial n. in the popliteal fossa

A

popliteal a.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

artery running with the tibial n. posterior to the medial malleolus

A

posterior tibial a.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

type of bone formation in long bones

A

endochondral ossification

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

bone formation defective in achondroplasia

A

endochondral ossification

30
Q

cartilaginous model of bone made by chondrocytes, then osteoclasts and osteoblast replace later with woven bone and then remodeled to lamellar bone

A

endochondral ossification

31
Q

bone formation that happens in the bones of the skull, facial bones, and clavicle

A

membranous ossification

32
Q

woven bone formed directly without cartilage, later remodeled to lamellar bone

A

membranous ossification

33
Q

inflammation of plantar aponeurosis with heel pain on the first steps in the morning.

A

plantar fasciitis

34
Q

characterized by bone resorption that outpaces bone formation in the tibial cortex

A

medial tibial stress syndrome (shin splints)

35
Q

overuse injury of the lateral knee seen in runners

A

IT band syndrome

36
Q

pain develops secondary to friction of IT band against lateral femoral epicondyle

A

IT band syndrome

37
Q

abnormal development of acetabulum in newborns resulting in hip instability and dislocation

A

developmental dysplasia of the hip

38
Q

how to treat developmental dysplasia of the hip

A

splint/harness

39
Q

idiopathic avascular necrosis of the femoral head

A

Legg-Calve-Perthes disease

40
Q

insidious onset of hip pain that may cause the child to limp

A

Legg-Calve-Perthes disease

41
Q

obese child with hip/knee pain and altered gain

A

Slipped capital femoral epiphysis

42
Q

increased axial force on femoral head causing the epiphysis to displace relative to the femoral neck

A

slipped capital femoral epiphysis

43
Q

repetitive strain and chronic avulsion of the secondary ossification center of the proximal tibial tubercle

A

Osgood Schlatter Dz (traction apophysitis)

44
Q

how to treat SCFE:

A

surgery

45
Q

caused by a sudden pull on the arm

A

nursemaid’s elbow (radial subluxation)

46
Q

arm held in flexed and pronated position

A

radial subluxation

47
Q

injury d/t an immature annular ligament that slips over the head of the radius

A

radial subluxation

48
Q

inflammation of the prepatellar bursa

A

prepatellar bursitis

49
Q

caused by repeated trauma or pressure from excessive kneeling

A

prepatellar bursitis

50
Q

fluid collectioin in the gastrocnemius-semimembranosus bursa commonly communicating with synovial space

A

Baker’s cyst

51
Q

cyst related to chronic joint disease (OA or RA)

A

Baker’s cyst

52
Q

inflammation of the gluteal tendon and bursa lateral to the greater trochanter of the femur

A

trochanteric bursitis

53
Q

how to tx trochanteric bursitis

A

NSAIDs, heat, stretching

54
Q

types of crystals seen in gout on joint aspiration

A

monosodium urate crystals

55
Q

drugs that can exacerbate gout:

A

loop or thiazide diuretics

56
Q

acute gout tx:

A

NSAIDs (indomethacin), glucocorticoids, colchicine (if first 2 CI)

57
Q

type of crystal precipitation seen on joint aspiration in pseudogout:

A

calcium pyrophosphate

58
Q

conditions associated with pseudogout:

A

hemochromatosis, hyperparathyroidism, joint trauma

59
Q

cartilage calcification see on XR:

A

associated with pseudogout

60
Q

acute tx of pseudogout:

A

NSAIDs, steroids, colchicine

61
Q

prophylaxis of pseudogout:

A

colchicine

62
Q

which side of cartilage is lost first in OA of the knee:

A

medial

63
Q

osteophytes, joint space narrowing, subchondral sclerosis and cysts

A

OA

64
Q

involves DIPs and PIPs

A

OA

65
Q

Involves DIPs, PIPs, NCO, or 1st CMC

A

RA

66
Q

inflammatory synovial fluid

A

RA

67
Q

erosions, juxta-articular osteopenia, soft tissue swelling, subchondral cysts, joint space narrowing

A

RA

68
Q

fibrinoid necrosis with palisading histiocytes in subcutanoues tissues

A

rheumatoid nodules in RA

69
Q

+ anti-SSA in pregnant woman with SLE leads to…

A

increased risk of congenital heart block in the newborn

70
Q

best long term improvement for symptomatic osteoporosis…

A

bisphosphonates