MTAP IS2 Flashcards
1
Q
Study of the fluid components in the blood, especially antibodies
A
Serology
2
Q
It is the removal of complement proteins in serum
A
Serum inactivation
3
Q
2 examples of serum inactivation
A
Heat to 56C for 30 mins
Chemical procedure: CHOLINE CHLORIDE
4
Q
True or False:
When more than 4 hours has elapsed, the specimen is heated to 56C for 15 mins
A
FALSE
10 mins
5
Q
What is added to the concentrate to make the reagent the proper strength for testing
A
Water/Saline
6
Q
Dilution formula:
A
Dilution = amount of solute/total volume
7
Q
Indicator of an antibody’s strength
A
Titer
8
Q
Titer is the highest division that gives a ___ result
A
Positive result
9
Q
The proportion of people who have a specific disease or condition and who have a positive test
A
Sensitivity
10
Q
Proportion of people who do not have the disease or condition and who have a negative test
A
Specificity
11
Q
Test that involves antigen-antibody reaction
A
Immunoassays
12
Q
Unknown is found in the _____
A
Specimen
13
Q
Known is found in the _____
A
Reagent
14
Q
Detect unknown antigen in specimen by using known or commercial anti-sera
A
DIRECT immunoassay
15
Q
Detect the presence of unknown antibodies in the serum of patient by using known commercial antigen
A
INDIRECT immunoassay
16
Q
Type of immunologic reaction which is a combination of antigen-antibody
A
Primary
17
Q
Primary immunologic reaction produces a _____ reaction
A
Non-visible
18
Q
Type of immunologic reaction which demonstrate antigen-antibody reaction
A
Secondary
19
Q
Secondary immunologic reaction occurs in vitro or in vivo?
A
IN VITRO
20
Q
Secondary immunologic reaction produces a _____ reaction
A
Visible
21
Q
Type of immunologic reaction which occurs in vivo
A
Tertiary
22
Q
Examples of Secondary immunologic reaction (2)
A
Agglutination
Precipation
23
Q
Examples of Tertiary immunologic reaction (2)
A
Phagocytosis
Opsonization
24
Q
Precipitation reaction is first noted by who?
A
Kraus
25
Involves combining soluble antigen with soluble antibody
Precipitation reaction
26
Optimum precipitation occurs in the _____
zone of equivalence
27
True or False:
In the zone of equivalence the reaction is visible
True
28
Zone of antibody excess
Prozone
29
Zone of antigen excess
Postzone
30
Precipitation reaction that occurs in a FLUID MEDIUM
Light scattering
31
2 Examples of Light Scattering
Turbidimetry
| Nephelometry
32
A measure of the turbidity or cloudiness of a solution
Turbidimetry
33
Measure light that is scattered in a particular angle
Nephelometry
34
Turbidimetry is recorded in what unit?
Absorbance units
35
Nephelometry is recorded in what unit?
mg/dL
| IU/mL
36
A purified high-molecular weight complex polysaccharide derived from seaweed
Agarose
37
No electrical current is used but produces a longer turn-around time
Passive immunodiffusion
38
Rate of diffusion is affected by (4)
Size of particles
Temp
Gel viscosity
Hydration
39
Single Diffusion, Single Dimension is also known as what test?
Ouidin test
40
End result of Ouidin test
Precipitin line
41
Ouidin test is semi-quantitative or semi-qualitative?
Semi-quantitative
42
Single Diffusion, Double Dimension is also known as what test?
Radial Immunodiffusion
43
End result of Radial immunodiffusion
Precipitin ring
44
2 methods of Radial Immunodiffusion
Fahey & McKelvey method
| Mancini method
45
Kinetic Diffusion is also known as?
Fahey & McKelvey method
46
Endpoint Diffusion is also known as?
Mancini method
47
Diameter is proportional to log of conc.
Fahey & McKelvey method
48
Square of diameter is
| proportional to the conc.
Mancini method
49
Double Diffusion, Double Dimension is also known as what test?
Ouchterlony Technique
50
Pattern produce when there is a common epitope
Smooth curve
51
Pattern produced when compared antigens share no common epitopes
Intersection
52
Pattern produced when there is a partial identity
Spur formation
53
4 Examples of Electrophoretic techniques
Rocket Electrophoresis
Immuno- electrophoresis (IEP)
Immunofixation Electrophoresis
Counter Immuno- electrophoresis (CIE)
54
Other names of Rocket Electrophoresis (2)
Laurell Technique
| One Dimension Electroimmunodiffusion
55
RID + electrophoresis
Rocket Electrophoresis
56
It is founded by Grabar + Williams
Immuno- electrophoresis (IEP)
57
Double diffusion + electrophoresis
Immuno- electrophoresis (IEP)
58
Immuno- electrophoresis (IEP) is useful in the identification of _____
Monoclonal proteins
59
Immunoprecipitation + electrophoresis
Immunofixation Electrophoresis
60
In Immunofixation Electrophoresis, serum samples are electrophoresed in ____ separate lanes on an agarose gel
Six (6)
61
It will exhibit faintly staining bands
HYPOGAMMAGLOBULINEMIAS
62
It will show darkly staining bands in
| the gamma region
Polyclonal hypergammaglobulinemias
63
It will will result in dark and narrow
| bands in specific lane
Monoclonal antibody
64
Used for difficult to characterize anomalous proteins
Immunofixation Electrophoresis
65
Better for typing large monoclonal gammopathies
Immuno- electrophoresis (IEP)
66
True or False:
Immuno- electrophoresis (IEP) is more challenging than Immunofixation Electrophoresis
TRUE
67
Ag and Ab are placed on the well directly opposite each other
Counter Immuno- electrophoresis (CIE)
68
In Counter Immuno- electrophoresis (CIE) the Antibody will go to ______ and the Antigen will go to _____
```
Antibody = cathode (-)
Antigen = anode (+)
```
69
Process by which particulate antigens such as cells aggregate to form larger complexes when a specific antibody is present.
Agglutination reactions
70
Antibodies that cause agglutination
Agglutinins
Especially IgM
71
2 step process of agglu reaction:
1. Sensitization
| 2. Lattice formation
72
Types of Agglutination reactions (5)
```
Direct Agglutination
Passive-Indirect Agglutination
Reverse Passive Agglutination
Co-agglutination
Agglutination- Inhibition
```
73
Antigens are found naturally on the surface of the particles
Direct Agglutination
74
Used to serotype Salmonella species
Kauffman and White Serotyping
75
Used for Typhoid fever
Widal Test
76
Used for Typhus
Weil-Felix
77
Test for detecting cold agglutinins in
| Mycoplasma infection
Cold Agglutinin Test
78
Antigen is artificially attached to a particulate carrier
Passive-Indirect Agglutination
79
Detects: antibodies to viruses
Passive-Indirect Agglutination
80
Antibody are attached to particulate carriers
Reverse Passive Agglutination
81
Often used to detect microbial antigens
Reverse Passive Agglutination
82
Uses antibodies bound to a particle to enhance the visibility of agglutination.
Co-agglutination
83
Carrier used in Co-agglutination
Bacterium
84
Based on competition between particulate and soluble antigens for limited antibody combining sites
Agglutination- Inhibition
85
Measuring the number of residual non agglutinating particles in a specimen.
Particle-Counting Immunoassay (PACIA)
86
Specific type of precipitation that occurs over a narrow range of antigen concentrations
Flocculation
87
Non treponemal tests (2)
VDRL & RPR
88
Reagin is derected using ____
Cardiolipin
89
Measures the ability of the patient's antibody to neutralize infectivity
Neutralization
90
2 Types of Neutralization tests:
Toxin neutralization
| Virus neutralization
91
True or False:
Precipitation and agglutination are considered labeled assays
FALSE
unlabeled assays
92
Antibody that can trigger complement
| activation
complement-fixing antibody
93
Postive and Negative result in Complement Fixation Test
Positive: No hemolysis
Negative: Hemolysis
94
Designed for antigens and antibodies that may be small in size or present in very low concentrations
Labelled Immunoassay
95
In Competitive immunoassay the amount of bound label is ______ to the concentration of the labeled
antigen
Inversely proportional
96
In Non-Competitive immunoassay the amount of label measured is ____ to the amount of patient antigen
Directly proportional
97
Do not need a separation step
Homogenous
98
Types of Labeled Immunoassays (5)
```
Radio immunoassay
Fluorescent immunoassay
Enzyme immunoassay
Rapid immunoassay
Chemiluminescent immunoassay
```
99
Pioneered by Yalow and Berson
Radio immunoassay
100
Most common radioactive substance
125I – gamma counter
101
It uses SCINTILLATION COUNTER
Radio immunoassay
102
He discovered Fluorescent immunoassay
Albert Coons
103
FITC stands for?
Fluorescein isothiocyanate
104
It produces a Green color
FITC (Fluorescein isothiocyanate)
105
It produces an orange-red color
Tetramethyl rhodamine
106
One disadvantage of this immunoassay is Quenching
Fluorescent immunoassay
107
Process that decreases intensity of fluorescence
Quenching
108
ANTIBODY that is conjugated with a fluorescent tag is added directly to UNKNOWN ANTIGEN that is fixed to a microscope slide
Direct Immunofluorescent
109
FTA-ABS stands for?
fluorescent treponemal antibody-absorption test
110
It is a specific test for syphilis
FTA-ABS: fluorescent treponemal
| antibody-absorption test
111
Naturally occurring molecules that catalyze certain biochemical reactions
Enzymes
112
Assays in a PLASTIC CARTRIDGE
Rapid immunoassay
113
Emission of light caused by a chemical reaction
Chemiluminescent immunoassay
114
Uses a Luminometer
Chemiluminescent immunoassay
