NBR 2 - Clinical Neurology Flashcards Preview

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Flashcards in NBR 2 - Clinical Neurology Deck (215)
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1

For questions 1 to 7. match the eye movement with the description. Each response may be used once. more than once. or not at all.
A. convergence nystagmus
B. dissociated nystagmus (internuclear ophthalmoplegia)
C. downbeat nystagmus
D. impairment of optokinetic nystagmus
E. ocular bobbing
F. seesaw nystagmus
G. spasmus mutans

1. a common sign of multiple sclerosis

B. dissociated nystagmus (internuclear ophthalmoplegia)

2

For questions 1 to 7. match the eye movement with the description. Each response may be used once. more than once. or not at all.
A. convergence nystagmus
B. dissociated nystagmus (internuclear ophthalmoplegia)
C. downbeat nystagmus
D. impairment of optokinetic nystagmus
E. ocular bobbing
F. seesaw nystagmus
G. spasmus mutans

2. most often associated with large destructive lesions of the

E. ocular bobbing

3

For questions 1 to 7. match the eye movement with the description. Each response may be used once. more than once. or not at all.
A. convergence nystagmus
B. dissociated nystagmus (internuclear ophthalmoplegia)
C. downbeat nystagmus
D. impairment of optokinetic nystagmus
E. ocular bobbing
F. seesaw nystagmus
G. spasmus mutans

3. seen exclusively in infants

G. spasmus mutans

4

For questions 1 to 7. match the eye movement with the description. Each response may be used once. more than once. or not at all.
A. convergence nystagmus
B. dissociated nystagmus (internuclear ophthalmoplegia)
C. downbeat nystagmus
D. impairment of optokinetic nystagmus
E. ocular bobbing
F. seesaw nystagmus
G. spasmus mutans

4. associated with lesions of the cervicomedullary junction

C. downbeat nystagmus

5

For questions 1 to 7. match the eye movement with the description. Each response may be used once. more than once. or not at all.
A. convergence nystagmus
B. dissociated nystagmus (internuclear ophthalmoplegia)
C. downbeat nystagmus
D. impairment of optokinetic nystagmus
E. ocular bobbing
F. seesaw nystagmus
G. spasmus mutans

5. associated with lesions of the parasellar region

F. seesaw nystagmus

6

For questions 1 to 7. match the eye movement with the description. Each response may be used once. more than once. or not at all.
A. convergence nystagmus
B. dissociated nystagmus (internuclear ophthalmoplegia)
C. downbeat nystagmus
D. impairment of optokinetic nystagmus
E. ocular bobbing
F. seesaw nystagmus
G. spasmus mutans


6. associated with lesions of the parietal lobe

D. impairment of optokinetic nystagmus

7

For questions 1 to 7. match the eye movement with the description. Each response may be used once. more than once. or not at all.
A. convergence nystagmus
B. dissociated nystagmus (internuclear ophthalmoplegia)
C. downbeat nystagmus
D. impairment of optokinetic nystagmus
E. ocular bobbing
F. seesaw nystagmus
G. spasmus mutans


7. associated with lesions of the pineal region

A. convergence nystagmus

8

8. Which of the following is false of seizure foci?
A. Epileptic foci are slower in binding and removing acetylcholine than normal cortex.
B. Firing of neurons in the focus is reflected by periodic spike discharges in the electroencephalogram (EEG).
C. If unchecked, cortical excitation may spread to the subcortical nuclei.
D. Neurons surrounding the focus are initially hyperpolarized and are GABAnergic.
E. The change in seizure discharge from the tonic phase to the clonic phase results from inhibition from the neurons surrounding the focus.

E. The change in seizure discharge from the tonic phase to the clonic phase results from inhibition from the neurons surrounding the focus.

9

9. An abnormal optokinetic response is more likely to be obtained by rotating the optokinetic nystagmus drum
A. away from an oCcipital lobe lesion
B. away from a parietal lobe lesion
C. toward an occipital lobe lesion
D. toward a parietal lobe lesion
E. toward a temporal lobe lesion

D. toward a parietal lobe lesion

10

For questions 10 to 14, match the EEG wave with the description. Each response may be used once more than once or not at all.
A. alpha
B. beta
C. delta
D. theta
E. 3-per-second spike and wave

10. 4 to 7 Hz

D. theta

11

For questions 10 to 14, match the EEG wave with the description. Each response may be used once more than once or not at all.
A. alpha
B. beta
C. delta
D. theta
E. 3-per-second spike and wave

11. normally may be present over the temporal lobes of the elderly

D. theta

12

For questions 10 to 14, match the EEG wave with the description. Each response may be used once more than once or not at all.
A. alpha
B. beta
C. delta
D. theta
E. 3-per-second spike and wave

12. recorded from the frontal lobes symmetrically

B. beta

13

For questions 10 to 14, match the EEG wave with the description. Each response may be used once more than once or not at all.
A. alpha
B. beta
C. delta
D. theta
E. 3-per-second spike and wave

13. associated with absence seizures

B. beta

14

For questions 10 to 14, match the EEG wave with the description. Each response may be used once more than once or not at all.
A. alpha
B. beta
C. delta
D. theta
E. 3-per-second spike and wave

14. attenuated or abolished with eye opening or mental activity

A. alpha

15

15. Which of the following drugs is least effective in the treatment of trigeminal neuralgia?
A. baclofen
B. carbamazepine
C. clonazepam
D. phenytoin
E. ketorolac tromethamine (Toradol)

E. ketorolac tromethamine (Toradol)

16

16. Which of the following is true of papilledema?
A. Absence of venous pulsations is a reliable indicator of papilledema.
B. Pupillary light reflexes remain normal.
C. The congested capillaries derive from the central retinal vein.
D. Unilateral edema of the optic disk is never seen.
E. Visual acuity usually decreases.

B. Pupillary light reflexes remain normal.

17

neuralgia?
I. pain in the throat
II. syncope
III. pain in the ear
IV. bradycardia
A. I, II, III
B. I, III
C. II, IV
D. IV
E. all of the above

E. all of the above

18

18. Features of trisomy 13 (Patau's syndrome) include
I. microcephaly
II. hypertonia
III. cleft lip and palate
IV. dextrocardia
A. I, II, III
B. I, III
C. II, IV
D. IV
E. all of the above

E. all of the above

19

19. Which of the following is not a feature of Parinaud's syndrome?
A. dissociated light-near response
B. lid retraction
C. nystagmus retractorius
D. paralysis of upgaze
E. third nerve palsy

E. third nerve palsy

20

20. Which of the following is true of tuberculous meningitis?
A. Headache is usually absent.
B. If untreated, the clinical course is self-limited.
C. The inflammatory exudate is confined to the subarachnoid space.
D. The inflammatory exudate is found mainly at the convexities.
E. The protein content ofthe cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) is almost always elevated.

E. The protein content ofthe cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) is almost always elevated.

21

21. Which ofthe following (SF findings is least suggestive of acute multiple sclerosis?
A. an IgG index greater than 1.7
B. increased myelin basic protein
C. increased protein to 200 mg/dL
D. presence of oligoclonal bands
E. slight to moderate monocytic pleocytosis

C. increased protein to 200 mg/dL

22

22. Each of the following is true of myasthenia gravis except
A. A decrementing response to peripheral nerve stimulation is typical.
B. Aminoglycoside antibiotics may worsen the symptoms.
C. Females are more frequently affected in the

D. Females predominate in the subset of patients with a thymoma.

23

23. A defect in mitochondrial DNA is found in each of the following disorders except
A. Kearns-Sayre syndrome
B. Leber's hereditary optic atrophy
C. Leigh's subacute necrotizing encephalopathy
D. Mitochondrial myopathy, encephalopathy,lactic acidosis, and stroke (MEIAS)
E. Menkes' syndrome

E. Menkes' syndrome

24

24. Symptoms of spontaneous carotid artery dissection include
I. dysgellisia
II. eye pain
III. tongue weakness
IV. Horner's syndrome
A. I, II, III
B. I, III
C. II, IV
D. IV
E. all of the above

E. all of the above

25

25. Memory impairment is caused by discrete bilateral lesions of which of the following structures?
I. amygdala
II. hippocampal formation
III. mammillary bodies
IV. dorsomedial nuclei of the thalamus
A. I, II, III
B. I, III
C. II, IV
D. IV
E. all of the above

C. II, IV

26

26. Genes responsible for cavernous malformations have been mapped to chromosomes
A. 1 and 3
B. 3 and 5
C. 3 and 7
D. 4and5
E. 5and7

C. 3 and 7

27

27. Each of the following is characteristic of a diabetic third nerve palsy except that
A. it develops over a few hours
B. it spares the pupil
C. it is usually painless
D. the lesion involves the center of the nerve
E. the prognosis for recovery is good

C. it is usually painless

28

For questions 28 to 36, provide the best match of the toxicities with the description. Each response may be used once, more than once, or not at all.
A. arsenic poisoning
B. lead poisoning
C. manganese poisoning
D. mercury poisoning
E. phosphorus poisoning

28. transverse white lines in the fingernails

A. arsenic poisoning

29

For questions 28 to 36, provide the best match of the toxicities with the description. Each response may be used once, more than once, or not at all.
A. arsenic poisoning
B. lead poisoning
C. manganese poisoning
D. mercury poisoning
E. phosphorus poisoning

29. black lines at the gingival margins

B. lead poisoning

30

For questions 28 to 36, provide the best match of the toxicities with the description. Each response may be used once, more than once, or not at all.
A. arsenic poisoning
B. lead poisoning
C. manganese poisoning
D. mercury poisoning
E. phosphorus poisoning

30. Later symptoms resemble those of Parkinson's disease.

C. manganese poisoning