Nursing 3 Test 1 Practice questions Flashcards
(38 cards)
In Leopold’s maneuver step #1, you palpated a soft broad mass that moves with the rest of the mass. The correct interpretation of this finding is:
A)The mass palpated at the fundal part is the head part.
B) The presentation is breech.
C) The mass palpated is the back
D) The mass palpated is the buttocks.
The palpated mass is the fetal buttocks since it is broad and soft and moves with the rest of the mass.
In Leopold’s maneuver step # 3 you palpated a hard round movable mass at the supra pubic area. The correct interpretation is that the mass palpated is:
A) The buttocks because the presentation is breech.
B) The mass palpated is the head.
C) The mass is the fetal back.
D) The mass palpated is the fetal small part
When the mass palpated is hard round and movable, it is the fetal head.
The hormone responsible for a positive pregnancy test is: A) Estrogen B) Progesterone C)Human Chorionic Gonadotropin D) Follicle Stimulating hormone
Human chorionic gonadotropin (HCG) is the hormone secreted by the chorionic villi which is the precursor of the placenta. In the early stage of pregnancy, while the placenta is not yet fully developed, the major hormone that sustains the pregnancy is HCG.
The hormone responsible for the maturation of the graafian follicle is: A) Follicle stimulating hormone B) Progesterone C) Estrogen D) Luteinizing hormone
The hormone that stimulates the maturation if the of the graafian follicle is the Follicle Stimulating Hormone which is released by the anterior pituitary gland.
Which of the following findings in a woman would be consistent with a pregnancy of two months duration?
A) Weight gain of 6-10 lbs. and presence of striae gravidarum
B) Fullness of the breast and urinary frequency
C) Braxton Hicks contractions and quickening
D) Increased respiratory rate and ballottement
Fullness of the breast is due to the increased amount of progesterone in pregnancy. The urinary frequency is caused by the compression of the urinary bladder by the gravid uterus which is still within the pelvic cavity during the first trimester.
Which of the following is a positive sign of pregnancy? A) Fetal movement felt by mother B) Enlargement of the uterus C) (+) pregnancy test D) (+) ultrasound
A positive ultrasound will definitely confirm that a woman is pregnant since the fetus in utero is directly visualized.
What event occurring in the second trimester helps the expectant mother to accept the pregnancy? A) Lightening B) Ballottement C) Pseudocyesis D) Quickening
Quickening is the first fetal movement felt by the mother makes the woman realize that she is truly pregnant. In early pregnancy, the fetus is moving but too weak to be felt by the mother. In the 18th-20th week of gestation, the fetal movements become stronger thus the mother already feels the movements.
The diet that is appropriate in normal pregnancy should be high in A) Protein, minerals and vitamins B) Carbohydrates and vitamins C) Proteins, carbohydrates and fats D) Fats and minerals
In normal pregnancy there is a higher demand for protein (body building foods), vitamins (esp. vitamin A, B, C, folic acid) and minerals (esp. iron, calcium, phosphorous, zinc, iodine, magnesium) because of the need of the growing fetus.
You want to perform a pelvic examination on one of your pregnant clients. You prepare your client for the procedure by:
A) Asking her to void
B) Taking her vital signs and recording the readings
C) Giving the client a perineal care
D) Doing a vaginal prep
A pelvic examination includes abdominal palpation. If the pregnant woman has a full bladder, the manipulation may cause discomfort and accidental urination because of the pressure applied during the abdominal palpation. Also, a full bladder can impede the accuracy of the examination because the bladder (which is located in front of the uterus) can block the uterus.
When preparing the mother who is on her 4th month of pregnancy for abdominal ultrasound, the nurse should instruct her to:
A) Observe NPO from midnight to avoid vomiting
B) Do perineal flushing properly before the procedure
C)Drink at least 2 liters of fluid 2 hours before the procedure and not void until the procedure is done
D) Void immediately before the procedure for better visualization
Drinking at least 2 liters of water 2 hours before the procedure will result to a distended bladder. A full bladder is needed when doing an abdominal ultrasound to serve as a “window” for the ultrasonic sound waves to pass through and allow visualization of the uterus (located behind the urinary bladder).
The nursing intervention to relieve “morning sickness” in a pregnant woman is by giving A) Dry carbohydrate food like crackers B) Low sodium diet C) Intravenous infusion D) Antacid
Morning sickness maybe caused by hypoglycemia early in the morning thus giving carbohydrate food will help.
Mrs. Santos is on her 5th pregnancy and has a history of abortion in the 4th pregnancy and the first pregnancy was a twin. She is considered to be A) G 4 P 3 B) G 5 P 3 C) G 5 P 4 D) G 4 P 4
B) Gravida refers to the total number of pregnancies including the current one. Para refers to the number of pregnancies that have reached viability(past 2o weeks). Thus, if the woman has had one abortion, she would be considered Para 3. Twin pregnancy is counted only as 1 for parity and gravida because twins are considered one birth. total of 5 pregnancies=G5
The following are skin changes in pregnancy EXCEPT: A) Chloasma B) Striae gravidarum C) Linea nigra D) Chadwick’s sign
Chadwick’s sign is bluish discoloration of the vaginal mucosa as a result of the increased vascularization in the area.
Which of the following statements is TRUE of conception?
A) Within 2-4 hours after intercourse conception is possible in a fertile woman
B) Generally, fertilization is possible 4 days after ovulation
C) Conception is possible during menstruation in a long menstrual cycle
D) To avoid conception, intercourse must be avoided 5 days before and 3 days after menstruation
The sperms when deposited near the cervical os will be able to reach the fallopian tubes within 4 hours. If the woman has just ovulated (within 24 hours after the rupture of the graafian follicle), fertilization is possible.
Smoking is contraindicated in pregnancy because
A) Nicotine causes vasodilation of the mother’s blood vessels
B) Carbon monoxide binds with the hemoglobin of the mother reducing available hemoglobin for the fetus
C) The smoke will make the fetus and the mother feel dizzy
D) Nicotine will cause vasoconstriction of the fetal blood vessels
Carbon monoxide is one of the substances found in cigarette smoke. This substance diminishes the ability of the hemoglobin to bind with oxygen thus reducing the amount of oxygenated blood reaching the fetus.
To prevent preterm labor from progressing, drugs are usually prescribed to halt the labor. The drugs commonly given are: A) Magnesium sulfate and terbutaline B) Prostaglandin and oxytocin C) Progesterone and estrogen D) Dexamethasone and prostaglandin
Magnesium sulfate acts as a CNS depressant as well as a smooth muscle relaxant. Terbutaline is a drug that inhibits the uterine smooth muscles from contracting. On the other hand, oxytocin and prostaglandin stimulates contraction of smooth muscles.
You are doing an assessment on a female patient. She tells you she gave birth to twin girls at 39 weeks. You would chart the following regarding parity? Primipara Nullipara Multipara Gravida
This describes a primipara woman because she had one birth that occurred after 20 weeks gestation. Note parity is the number of births NOT the number of fetuses as with twins in this situation. Multipara is a woman who has had two or more pregnancies resulting in a successful delivery, and nullipara is a woman who has not had a birth at more than 20 weeks gestation.
During an assessment of a pregnant patient (who is 20 weeks pregnant) she tells you the following information regarding her pregnancy outcomes: She currently has 3 children (ages: 3, 8, 19), all of them were born at 39 and 40 weeks gestation, she has been pregnant 5 times (including this pregnancy). How would you document her GTPAL? G: 5, T: 3, P: 0, A: 1, L: 3 G: 4, T: 3, P: 0, A: 0, L: 4 G: 4, T: 4, P: 0, A: 0, L: 3 G: 5, T: 3, P: 0, A: 1, L: 4
The answer is G: 5, T: 3, P: 0, A: 1, L: 3. G is the number of pregnancies including the present one. T is the number of babies born after 37 weeks gestation. P is the number of babies born before 37 weeks gestation. A is the number of abortions or miscarriages and L is the number of current living children.
Your patient has underwent testing of her blood type and Rh factor. She has A- blood type. Which of the following statement is correct?
At 36 weeks she will receive Rh immune globulin.
At 28 weeks she should receive the Rh immune globulin.
No further testing will be done because the patient is Rh negative, instead of Rh positive.
The patient will be checked for clotting problems.
The patient’s Rh factor is negative so she will need to receive the Rh immune globulin at 28 weeks. If the patient was A+ (meaning her Rh factor is positive) she would not have to receive the Rh immune globulin.
A patient is wanting to become pregnant and has underwent prenatal counsel and testing. Her rubella titer is lower than 1:8. She consents to receiving the rubella vaccine. What education will you provide to the patient?
She must use an effective birth control method at the time of immunization and not become pregnant for 1-3 months.
Once she has a positive pregnancy test she is to call the office to schedule another appointment.
The patient’s rubella titer is normal and therefore the vaccine is not needed. This question is incorrect.
It is okay to come into contact with people who are immunocompromised.
The only correct option is: She must use an effective birth control method at the time of immunization and not become pregnant for 1-3 months. Other options are incorrect statements about education regarding the rubella vaccine.
A patient who is 8 1/2 months pregnant tells you she has been counting her baby’s kicks and is concerned because within a 4 hour period the baby has only kicked 32 times. What nursing intervention is correct?
Reassure the patient this kick count is normal.
Notify the MD of this finding.
Prep the patient for an abdominal ultrasound.
Assess the patient’s urine for protein and glucose.
Reassuring the patient this is normal is the correct answer. The mother should feel the baby kick at least 10 times in two consecutive 2 hour periods.
) A pregnant patient has a nonstress test performed. The results showed the baby had 4 fetal heart rate accelerations of at least 15 beats/min that lasted 15 seconds from start to finish in association with fetal movement during 20 minutes. The results of this would be documented as: "Reactive" Nonstress Test "Nonreactive" Nonstress Test Negative Contraction Stress Test Positive Contraction Stress Test
The results of the question describe a “reactive” nonstress test and the fetus is healthy.
A patient is having an abdominal ultrasound to assess fetal gestational age and estimated date of delivery. Which statement is incorrect about this type of testing?
Before the abdominal ultrasound is performed the patient should empty bladder.
An abdominal ultrasound can outline and identify fetal and maternal structures.
Generally, at 20 weeks an abdominal ultrasound can be performed to assess fetal gender.
There are two types of ultrasounds that can be safely performed on a pregnant patient: abdominal and transvaginal
A patient should have a full bladder before the procedure so better images of the fetus can be obtained. So instructing the patient to drink water to fill the bladder for the procedure would be ideal.
During stage 3 of labor, you note a gush of blood and that the uterus changes shape from an oval shape to globular shape. This indicates? A. Postpartum hemorrhage B. Imminent delivery of the baby C. Signs of placental separation D. Answers B and C
The answer is C. Signs that the placenta is about to be delivered: Umbilical cord starts to lengthen, Trickling/gush of blood, and uterus changes from an oval shape to globular.
