OBGYN 10 Flashcards

(53 cards)

1
Q

What is an enterocele

A

Defect of the pelvic muscular support of the uterus and cervix (if still in situ) or the vaginal cuff (if hysterectomy). The small bowel and/or omentum descend into the vagina

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2
Q

What is a pessary

A

Synthetic device used to act as a “hammock” to suspend the pelvic organs

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3
Q

What can happen to a baby born to a mom with Graves

A

Neonatal thyrotoxicosis - due to transplacental passage of anti-TSH receptor antibodies during the third trimester

Baby born with sx of hyperthyroidism (warm skin, tachycardia, irritability, low birth weight)

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4
Q

Tx of neonatal thyrotoxicosi

A
  • Temporary Methimazole PLUS beta-blockers

- Self-resolves within 3 months

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5
Q

Tx of postpartum endometritis

A

♣ Clindamycin and Gentamicin

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6
Q

Treatment of hydatidiform moles

A

• D&C
• Monitoring of b-hCG
o Want to monitor until b-hCG is undetectable and then for another 6 months
o Newly elevated b-hCG is diagnostic for gestational trophoblastic neoplasia
o Contraception is necessary during surveillance period so you can accurately follow b-hCG levels

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7
Q

What is an ovarian tumor containing thyroid tissue called?

A

Struma ovarii

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8
Q

What are the subtypes of ovarian germ cell tumors

A

Teratoma, dysgerminoma, endodermal sinus tumor, choriocarcinoma

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9
Q

Most common complication of mature teratomas

A

Ovarian torsion

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10
Q

What are the subtypes of ovarian epithelial tumors

A

Serous, mucinous, endometriod, Brenner

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11
Q

What are the subtypes of ovarian sex cord-stromal tumors

A

Granulosa-theca
Sertolig-Leydig
Fibroma

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12
Q

Describe presentation of Granulosa-theca cell tumor

A
  • Precocious puberty
  • Menorrhagia/metrorrhagia
  • Postmenopausal bleeding
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13
Q

Describe the ovarian sizes that are concerning for tumor and management of different sizes

A

< 5 cm = most likely functional cyst; observe

5-10 cm = get US; septations, solid components, or growth on surface of inner lining are all indication for operation; if those all absent, can observe and re-US in 1 month

> 10 cm = operate

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14
Q

At what age is there a sharp decline in a woman’s follicle number

A

> age 35

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15
Q

How does ABO incompatibility present in a newborn

A

MILD hemolytic disease - most babies are asymptomatic or mildly anemia at birth

May need phototherapy for hyperbilirubinemia

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16
Q

What are the 2 levels that are decreased in both Trisomy 21 and 18

A

Alpha-fetoprotein and estriol

THINK: boy (alpha) and girl (estriol)

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17
Q

What are causes of elevated AFP

A

NTD, abd wall defects, multiple gestation

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18
Q

Describe potential side effect of epidural + treatment

A

Epidural can lead to hypotension in mom –> placental insufficiency (recurrent late decelerations)

Tx = IV fluids, then vasopressor (e.g. Ephedrine - causes vasoconstriction of the peripheral vasculature but spares the uterine arteries)

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19
Q

What is considered term pregancy

A

37-42 weeks

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20
Q

identify each type of Diabetes classification (A1, A2, B, C, D, R, F, H, T)

A
  • A1 = gestational; no meds
  • A2 = gestational; meds
  • B = onset >20 y/o; duration <10 years
  • C = onset 10-19 y/o; duration 10-19
  • D onset <10 y/o; duration >20 years
  • R = proliferative retinopathy
  • F = nephropathy (>500 mg/day)
  • H = atherosclerotic heart disease
  • T = prior renal transplant
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21
Q

Management of placenta previa

A

Expectant management as long as no excessive bleeding

C-section at 34 weeks

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22
Q

Management of placenta accreta

23
Q

Next step in managment of ASCUS on pap smear

24
Q

What might you expect to see in an arterial blood gas of a pregnancy woman

A

Compensated respiratory alkalosis (low CO2 with compensatory low HCO3)

Low CO2 is due to the increased minute ventilation during pregnancy

25
Tx of amniotic fluid embolism
Mostly supportive with immediate delivery if there is rapid maternal or fetal decompensation
26
Management of pre-eclampsia without severe features
* Monitor closely for severe disease * Growth ultrasounds/NSTs * Delivery at 37 weeks * BPP once a week for fetal well being * Typically does not require magnesium sulfate (seizure prophylaxis)
27
Management of pre-eclampsia with severe features
• Maintain sufficient oxygen saturation • If >34 weeks, deliver • Administer MgSO4 for seizure prophylaxis • If severe HTN (>160/110), therapy should be initiated to prevent stroke o Labetalol, Hydralazine, or Nifedipine • If <34 weeks, evaluate if expectant management is appropriate o If deciding to deliver, give antenatal corticosteroid (for lung maturity) and GBS prophylaxis
28
Management of preterm labor
♣ Antenatal corticosteroids to enhance fetal lung maturity ♣ Tocolysis: attempts to stop preterm contractions ♣ Magnesium sulfate for neuroprophylaxis (protection against cerebral palsy) ♣ GBS prophylaxis
29
Management of gestational HTN
* Rule out preeclampsia * Growth ultrasounds/NSTs * BPP once a week for fetal well being * Delivery at 37 weeks
30
What test can confirm the diagnosis of menopause
Elevated FSH
31
Diagnose: uniformly enlarged uterus
Adenomyosis
32
1st step in management of short cervix
Transvaginal progesterone
33
Describe how obesity can lead to amenorrhea
Due to anovulation - ovaries are still producing estrogen, but progesterone is not being produced therefore progesterone withdrawal menses does not occur FSH and LH are normal
34
Management of chorioamnionitis
Broad spectrum abx + induction of labor
35
Most common organisms of endometritis
Staph and strep
36
Why does it take a while for mothers to produce milk after delivery
Needs time for estrogen and progesterone levels to decrease in order to remove the inhibitory effect on prolactin
37
How do you diagnose chorioamnionitis
``` ♣ Maternal fever PLUS >/=1 of the following: • Fetal tachycardia (>160) • Maternal leukocytosis • Purulent amniotic fluid • Maternal tachycardia (>100) • Uterine fundal tenderness ```
38
Tx of endometrial hyperplasia
Progesterone or hysterectomy
39
Describe presentation of germ cell tumor
♣ Are non-malignant ♣ Usually present in teenage girls as an adnexal mass and weight gain ♣ Dx: transvaginal US ♣ Tx: unilateral salpingoophorectomy
40
What are the 4 types of germ cell tumor
1. Choriocarcinoma 2. Teratoma 3. Dysgerminoma (tumor of oocytes) 4. Endodermal sinus tumor (yolk sac tumor)
41
What are diagnostic values of GDM after 3 hr GTT
Fasting > 90 1 hour > 180 2 hour > 155 3 houe > 140
42
Compare tx of 3 vulvar cancers
- SCC = vulvectomy and lymph node dissection - Melanoma = vulvectomy and lymph node dissection - Pagets = wide local excision (less aggressive)
43
Describe effects of Raloxifene and Tamoxifen on breast and endometrium
Both used for prevention of breast cancer (estrogen antagonist) Raloxifene antagonist in endometrium and Tamoxifen agonist (increased risk of endometrial hyperplasia)
44
Tx of fibroids
♣ First line: • OCP/IUD +/- NSAIDs for pain ♣ Surgery: • Leuprolide to shrink prior to surgery • Myomectomy if want to maintain fertility • TAH if she doesn’t want kids
45
How do you diagnose PCOS
(1) + (2) or (3) (1) Oligo- or anovulation (2) Hyperandrogenism ♣ Elevated DHEAS ♣ Elevated Testosterone ♣ LH:FHS > 3:1 (3) Polycystic ovaries on US
46
Tx of postpartum endometritis
Clindamycin + Gentamicin
47
Order of events of puberty
THINK: Tits, pits, mits, lips ♣ Thelarche (Breasts) (8) ♣ Pubarche (Axillary and pubic hair) (9) ♣ Growth (10) ♣ Menarche (11)
48
Tx of breast fibrocystic change
o Decreasing caffeine, adding NSAIDs, tight-fitting bra, OCP, oral progestin
49
Management of single, mobile, firm, rubbery breast mass
Most likely benign fibroadenoma FNA to confirm
50
Management of single, mobile, firm, rubbery breast mass
Most likely benign fibroadenoma FNA to confirm
51
Managment of Intraductal papilloma
Mammography + US | Biopsy to rule out malignancy +/- excision
52
Managment of Intraductal papilloma
Mammography + US | Biopsy to rule out malignancy +/- excision
53
How often should women have breast exams
Age 20-39 = q3 years | >40 = annually