Surgery Rotation 3 Flashcards

(46 cards)

1
Q

Causes of air in the neck

A

Esophageal rupture
Tension pneumothorax
Tracheobronchial injury

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2
Q

Vitelline duct vs. urachus

A

Vitelline duct = connects the midgut to the yolk sac (persistance = Meckel’s_

Urachus = connection between bladder and belly button (remnant of allantois)

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3
Q

First step in management of patients with acute stroke

A

CT scan of the head without contrast to rule out hemorrhage

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4
Q

Clinical findings in lateral epicondylitis

A

Due to overuse of extensor muscles leading to non-inflammatory tendinosis at the common extensor origin on the lateral epicondyle

Presents with tenderness at the lateral epicondyle and reproduction on pain with resisted extension or passive flexion of the wrist

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5
Q

Most important intervention in COPD for prolonged survival

A

Long-term supplemental oxygen therapy

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6
Q

Treatment of acute disabling symptoms of Multiple sclerosis

A

Glucocorticoids - they hasten neurologic recovery

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7
Q

Uses of interferon alpha

A

Hep B and C, hairy cell leukemia, malignant melanoma, Kaposi sarcoma, Condyloma accuminata, RCC

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8
Q

Uses of interferon beta

A

Relapsing type multiple sclerosis

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9
Q

Uses of interferon gamma

A

Chronic granulomatous disease (CGD)

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10
Q

How do you differentiate between Serotonin syndrome and Neuroleptic malignant syndrome

A

SS = altered mental status, autonomic instability, and HYPERREFLEXIA and MYOCLONUS

NMS = altered mental status, autonomic instability, RIGIDITY and HYPOREFLEXIA

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11
Q

Recommended pneumococcus vaccines for adults

A

No vaccination for healthy individuals

Age 19-64

  • PPSV23 (23-valent pneumococcial polysaccharide vaccine) alone
      • Chronic hear, lung, or liver disease
      • Diabetes, current smokers, alcoholics
  • Sequential PCV13 (13-valent pneumococcal conjugate vaccine) + PPSV23
      • For very high risk patients
      • CSF leaks, cochiear implants
      • Sickle cell disease, asplenia
      • Immunocompromised (e.g. HIV, malignancy)
      • Chronic idney disease

Age > 65

  • Sequential PCV13 + PPSV23
      • 1 dose of PCV13 followed by PPSV23 at a later time
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12
Q

Indications for Td vs. Tdap vaccination as an adult

A

All adults should recieve a one-time dose of Tdap in place of Td, followed by Td every 10 years thereafter

Tdap applies to patients who have not recieved Tdap as an adult or if the patient’s prior vaccine history is unknown

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13
Q

What is the cause and classical presentation of multiple myeloma

A
  • Malignant proliferation of monoclonal plasma cell within the marrow
  • Increased production of IgG and IgA (M spike on electrophoresis)
  • Lytic bone lesions -
    back pain (plasma cells activate osteoclasts)
  • Hypercalcemia
  • Rouleaux formation of RBCs (increased serum protein leads to decreased charge between RBCs)
  • Anemia (plasma cells packed in bone marrow inhibit production of other cells)
  • Renal insufficiency (excessive antibodies plug up kidney)
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14
Q

What are maneuvers that can be used to identify an appendiceal abscess

A

Psoas sign
Obturator sign
Rovsing sign
Rectal tenderness

Peritoneal signs (rebound, guarding, rigidity) are more indicative of acute appendicitis/rupture

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15
Q

Definition of heat stroke

A

Core temp > 40 degrees and AMS

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16
Q

What arrythmia is this: chaotic and erratic baseline with no discrete P waves in between irregularly spaced QRS complexes

A

Atrial fibrillation

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17
Q

Treatment of A-fib in a patient with hemodynamic instability

A

Direct current cardioversion

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18
Q

Treatment of V-fib

A

Defibrillation

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19
Q

Differentiate between 1st, 2nd and 3rd degree heart block

A

1st = prolonged PR interval > 200 ms (time between atrial and ventricular depolarization)

2nd = progressive lengthening of PR until a beat is dropped or a beat dropping with no warning

3rd = atria and ventricles beat independently of each other

20
Q

Management of hypersensitivity pneumonitis (Pigeon breeder’s lung)

A

Avoidance of antigen

21
Q

What is the cause of S3 heart sound

A

Rapid flow of blood from atria to ventricles

Caused by volume overload (e.g. CHF, mitral/tricuspid regurg)

22
Q

What is the cause of S4 heart sound

A

Atrium contracting against a stiff ventricle (e.g. hypertrophic cardiomyopathy, aortic stenosis, LV hypertrophy)

23
Q

What is the treatment of choice in acute pulmonary edema caused by MI?

A

Loop diuretic (e.g. Furosemide)

24
Q

Layers of the abd wall

A

Skin –> subcutaneous tissue –> fascia (Camper’s and Scarpa) –> external oblique m. –> internal oblique m. –> transversus abdominis m. –> transversalis fascia –> adipose tissue –> peritoneum

25
NAVeL
Femoral nerve, external iliac artery and vein, lymphatics
26
Contents of lateral, medial, and medial umbilical folds
Lateral = inferior epigastric vessels Medial = obliterated umbilical artery Median = obliterated urachus; para-umbilical veins
27
What is the midline line that connects the aponeurosis of the abdominal muscles
Linea alba
28
What is Hesselbach's triangle
Inguinal triangle: ``` Medial = rectus sheath Lateral = inferior epigastric vessels Base = inguinal ligament ```
29
Insertion points of the inguinal ligament
Anterior superior iliac spine + inferomedial pubic tubercle
30
Inferior epigastric artery is a branch of what?
External ilia
31
Superior epigastric artery is a branch of what artery?
Internal thoracic, which is a branch of subclavian
32
Blood supply of anterior abd wall
Superior and inferior epigastric artery
33
Blood supply of lateral abd wall
Musculophrenic (branch of internal thoracic) + deep circumflex iliac (branch of external iliac) + subcostal (branches of thoracic aorta)
34
Branches of the celiac trunk
Splenic artery Left gastric artery Common hepatic artery (proper hepatic, R gastric, gastroduodenal)
35
Lobes of the liver
L and R Anterior = quadrate Posterior = caudate
36
What is the name of the triangle near the gallbladder
Calot's triangle
37
Borders of Calot's triangle
Medial = common hepatic duct Inferior = cystic duct Superior = cystic artery
38
What makes up the portal triad
Common bile duct Portal vein Hepatic artery proper
39
What hormones stimulate the pancreas
CCK from small intestine (pancreas and gallbladder) Secretin from small intestine (stimulates pancreas to secreted HCO3-)
40
Causes of acute pancreatitis
• I GET SMASHED: o Idiopathic, Gallstones, Ethanol, Trauma, Steroids, Mumps, Autoimmune disease, Scorpion sting, Hypertriglyceridemia/Hypercalcemia, ERCP, Drugs (e.g. Sulfa, NRTIs, protease inhibitors)
41
Major drugs used for immunosuppression in transplant
Triple therapy: corticosteroids, azathioprine, cyclosporine/tacrolimus
42
MOA of azathioprine
Prodrug of 6-mercaptopurine (purine analog) Inhibits lymphocyte proliferation by blocking nucleotide synthesis
43
MOA of cyclosporine/tacrolimus
Blocks T-cell activation by preventing IL-2 transcription
44
Most commonly used corticosteroid used for immunosuppression in transplant
Prednisone
45
MOA of Thymoglobulin
Polyclonal rabbit antibodies raised against human T-cells Bind and deplete T cells OKT3 is an anti-CD3 monoclonal antibody that depletes T-cells specifically
46
what is Unasyn?
Ampicillin + Sulbactam