Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

AMK > Obstetrics & gynae > Flashcards

Obstetrics & gynae Flashcards

1
Q

Threatened miscarriage

A

foetus is intrauterine, mild symptoms. Cervical Os is closed.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Complete miscarriage

A

all uterine contents expelled. Cervical Os is closed.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Missed miscarriage

A

dead foetus in the uterus. Cervical os is closed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Inevitable miscarriage

A

Fetus is dead, bleeding. Cervical os is opened

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What anti-epileptic drugs are safe for pregnancy?

A

Lamotrigine
Carbamazepine
levacit.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Pre-eclampsia and Mx

A

High blood pressure during gestation
Assoc, with proteinuria, oedema, headaches

Anti-hypertensives e.g. labetalol.
Prevent eclampsia - magnesium sulphate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Symptoms of pre-eclampsia but abnormal creatinine

A

Acute Tubular Necrosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Symptoms of pre-eclampsia but no proteinuria

A

gestational hypertension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Twin-Twin Transfusion Syndrome
Mx

A

Happens in monochorionic twins. Donor baby begins transferring blood to recipient baby through new vessels.
Both babies are abnormal
Donor baby: more likely to survive
Recipient baby: high cardiac output -> heart failure. increased fluid -> fetal hydrops.

Transect the vessels with lasers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

what is the difference between partial and complete molar pregnancy

A

complete mole = 2 sperm, 1 egg with no genetics material
partial mole = 2 sperm, 1 egg with genetic material. makes an unviable fetus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

danger of invasive mole

A

metastasise into choriocarcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Dx and Mx of molar pregnancy

A

grape like/cloudy on ultrasound
removal of fetus, follow up with beta hCG testing, don’t get pregnant until 6 months after beta-hCG is normal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Px of placental abruption

A

firm woody uterus
no visible bleeding
painful

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Px of placenta previa

A

soft uterus
visible bleeding
no pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Px of vasa previa

A

rupture of membranes
painless bleeding
fetal bradycardia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Px of HELLP syndrome

A

haemolytic, elevated liver enzymes, low platelets

HTN, DIC, epigastric/RUQ pain, headaches

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Px of haemolytic disease of the newborn

A

jaundice, kernicterus
hydrops fetalis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

what is cervical ectropion, common cause of ??

A

benign. glandular cells grow outside of the cervix, causing increased levels of oestrogen
common cause of post-coital bleeding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

uterus that feels tense/large for dates. hard to palpate fetal parts
Mx

A

polyhydramnios
too much amniotic fluid
indomethacin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

sudden gush of fluid and non-reassuring fatal trace

A

cord prolapse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

fever, abdo pain, offensive fluid from vagina, preterm rupture of membranes

A

chorioamnionitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

turtle neck sign, failure to progress labour

A

shoulder dystocia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

position to relieve shoulder dystocia

A

mcroberts maneuvre

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Mx of ectopic pregnancy

A

methotrexate and salphingectomy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

common cause of recurrent miscarriage and the Mx

A

anti-phospholipid syndrome
aspirin and LMWH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

trimethoprim avoided in the…

A

1st trimester

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

nitrofurantoin avoided in the …

A

3rd trimester

28
Q

medical termination of pregnancy

A

oral mifepristone + vaginal misopristol

29
Q

Px of ovarian torsion

A

sudden 10/10 peri-umbilical pain radiating to the lower back
internal bleeding (from the ovary)
nausea

30
Q

Mx of confirmed ovarian cancer

A

total abdominal hysterectomy and bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy

31
Q

difference between salpingotomy and salpingectomy

A

salpingotomy just removes the ectopic pregnancy
salpingectomy removes the ectopic pregancy AND the fallopian tube

32
Q

first line Ix and gold standard diagnosis for endometriosis

A

first line: transvaginal ultrasound
gs: diagnostic laprascopy

33
Q

Sheehan syndrome what is it and Px

A

Necrosis of anterior pituitary after post partumhaemorrhage
Low prolactin , so difficulty feeding

34
Q

Mittelschmerz

A

Ovulation pain

35
Q

Prolactinoma Px, Mx

A

Prolactinoma is a benign pituitary tumour
Px: galactorrhea, + gonadal dysfunction (amenorrhea, erectile dysfunction,) + neuro (headaches, visual impairment)
Mx: dopamine agonists (cabergoline/bromocriptine) or surgery

36
Q

cabergoline used for…

A

managing prolactinoma

37
Q

what are the 4 blood results for DIC

A

prolonged PT and APTT
raised D Dimer
thrombocytopenia
low fibrinogen

38
Q

1st and 2nd line for managing epilepsy in pregnancy

A
  1. lamotrigine
  2. levetiracetam
39
Q

suspected varicella in pregnancy, don’t know if immune

A

test varicella antibodies
if not immune, give Ig

40
Q

how to assess tubal patency (2 methods)

A

hysterosalpingography (no comorbid conditions)

laparoscopy and dye (with comorbid conditions)

41
Q

commonly used test to test for ovulation

A

day 21 progesterone

42
Q

where is ectopic pregnancy most likely to be

A

ampulla

43
Q

where in fallopian tube is most likely to rupture in ectopic preg

A

isthmus

44
Q

IgG and IgM. What results show immunity from vaccination

A

IgG positive, IgM negative

45
Q

IgG and IgM. What results show immunity from recent infection

A

IgG -ve
IgM +ve

46
Q

what is the combined test and when does it take place

A

PAPP-A, B-HCG, nuchal translucency

10-14 weeks

47
Q

combined test results indicative of down syndrome

A

low PAPP-A
high B-HCG and nuchal translucency

48
Q

how does sheehans syndrome affect cortisol and aldosterone

A

low cortisol
normal aldosterone

49
Q

when to do surgical evacuation or vaginal misoprostol for miscarriage management

A

surgical evacuation if the patient is unstable or bleeding

50
Q

when is methotrexate used in ectopic pregnancy

A

can return for follow up
no pain
no ruptured ectopic pregnancy
serum HCG level 1500 IU/L

51
Q

when is a pregnancy considered viable

A

when fetal heartbeat can be heard

52
Q

what value of crown rump length is fetal heartbeat heard

A

7mm

53
Q

5 requirements for all pregnancies

A

all women have maternal blood grouping and Rhesus D typing

folic acid 5mg

vitamin D

Smoking cessation

exclude alcohol

54
Q

5 features of prolonged pregnancy

A
  • macrosomia
  • oligohydramnios
  • reduced fetal movements
  • presence of meconium (meconium staining on nails)
  • dry flaky skin with reduced vernix (waxy substance on baby’s skin)
55
Q

when does membrane sweep take place in nulliparous and parous women

what is done

what is a requirement

A

after 40 weeks in nulliparous + 41 weeks in parous

insert gloved finger through cervix, separate the chorionic membrane from the decidua

can be done at any bishop score, before IOL

56
Q

when does induction of labour take place in a normal prolonged preganncy

A

41-42 weeks

57
Q

3 indications for IOL

A

premature rupture of membranes

maternal health problems (pre eclampsia)

fetal growth restriction

58
Q

2 methods of IOL

A

vaginal prostaglandin

amniotomy and syntocinon infusion

59
Q

define fetal growth restriction

A

when the fetus is below the 10th percentile in growth

60
Q

when should IOL be done for a baby in fetal growth restriction

A

37 weeks

61
Q

pathophysiology of neonatal hypoglycaemia

A

maternal hyperglycaemia -> fetal hyperglycemia and insulinemia -> B cell hyperplasia in fetal pancreas (more insulin)

when the maternal glucose supply is removed at birth -> the hyperinsulinaemic foetus becomes hypoglycaemic

62
Q

management of neonatal hypoglycaemia

A

feeding within 30-60 minutes of birth
feed at least 3 times hourly
skin to skin
maintain temp 36-37.5

63
Q

4 points for antenatal care of diabetic pregnant women

A

booking appointment: 2hr OGTT

measure CBG 4 times / day

from 28 weeks go a growth scan every four weeks

joint diabetes and antenatal clinic every 2 weeks

64
Q

first line contraception for breastfeeding women

A

anything with progesterone (better to be an implant rather than pill)

65
Q

bishop score of <6

A

vaginal prostaglandin
or
mechanical method (is woman is at risk of uterine hyper stimulation)

66
Q

bishop score >6

A

amniotomy and syntocinon

67
Q

termination of pregnancy : two options and how to choose

A

oral mifepristone + vaginal misoprostol

surgical evacuation

do surgical evacuation if >14 weeks

AMK (29 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions