OP - CLASS #1 - Week of 9/15/14: FFP – Taxpayers sec. 1 – 5.6.7, Comm. Man Ch. #9(No Add's), AUC #180 & 200, TB – Tools #1, 2, 3 & 4, Instructor Instincts Instructor: BC Gene DiTaranto Flashcards Preview

Firetech > OP - CLASS #1 - Week of 9/15/14: FFP – Taxpayers sec. 1 – 5.6.7, Comm. Man Ch. #9(No Add's), AUC #180 & 200, TB – Tools #1, 2, 3 & 4, Instructor Instincts Instructor: BC Gene DiTaranto > Flashcards

Flashcards in OP - CLASS #1 - Week of 9/15/14: FFP – Taxpayers sec. 1 – 5.6.7, Comm. Man Ch. #9(No Add's), AUC #180 & 200, TB – Tools #1, 2, 3 & 4, Instructor Instincts Instructor: BC Gene DiTaranto Deck (61):
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PART I – INSTRUCTOR INSTINCTS:
1. The Communications Unit (CU) has a specialized task at an operation. They are primarily responsible for effective use of the communications systems at an incident. Please choose an incorrect item from the list below in regards to Communication Units? (ICS Chapter 2, section 2.2, 3.2, Note last page)
A) To operate as a Communications Unit, the company shall be staffed with a minimum of three trained members. Trained officers do not count towards this total.
B) The Communications Unit will report to the Communications Unit Leader (COML), if staffed.
C) The officer of the Communications Unit will not be designated as the Communications Unit Leader (COML).
D) Communication Units (CU) will not be placed out of service as Communications Units due to out of service communication equipment they are supplied with, in order to perform CU duties.

1. A Officers DO count

1) Further Clarification:
B & C = The Communications Unit will report to the Communications Unit Leader (COML), if staffed. If the COML is not staffed, or has not arrived, they will report to the Resources Unit Leader (RESL). If neither the COML nor the RESL is on scene, they will report to the Incident Commander (IC). The officer of the Communications Unit will not be designated as the COML.
Note: When a special assignment (S.A.) Battalion Chief is assigned to the Field Communications Unit, they will be designated as the COML. They will supervise and coordinate the Field Communications Unit (FCU) and the CU at an operation
D = Units are not O.O.S because there will be additional equipment available at the scene of incidents (e.g., Battalions have sound powered phone kits, FCU has an enhanced post radio, etc.).

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2. Units responding to alarms for "unknown odors or fumes" have encountered airborne irritants such as pepper spray, mace or a mace-like substance during operations. Units responding to alarms for "unknown odors or fumes" are reminded to treat these alarms as hazardous material incidents. Please choose an incorrect procedure from the list below when operating at these types of incidents? (Haz-Mat 17, section 2)
A) First responders should gather, evaluate, and report information prior to entering into or undertaking activities that would place them in a contaminated environment.
B) Full firefighting gear and SCBA will be used at all times as a minimum of protection against exposure.
C) There are essentially two ways to protect the public from the effects of hazardous material discharges into the environment; evacuation and sheltering in place.
D) In the case of airborne irritants, evacuation would never be appropriate for exposed individuals.

2. D

2) However, in some instances, evacuation through a toxic atmosphere may actually cause more harm than good, such as removing occupants from their uncontaminated apartments and transporting them through a contaminated public hallway or staircase. In this type of situation, the decision to shelter in place would be more appropriate

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3. The word contraband denotes any item which, relating to its nature is illegal to be possessed or sold. (Examples; LPG / Compressed gas cylinders without permits, kerosene heaters, torches without proper certificates to operate, etc.) The Incident Commander (IC) shall implement procedures to remove and confiscate these items from the scene. Please choose an incorrect removal/confiscation procedure from the list below? (BISP Manual Chapter 4, add 6, section 1 & 2)
A) The preferred means for removal is by a responsible vendor or a person with an FDNY Certificate of Fitness.
B) If an emergency condition exists, removal may be performed by uniformed FDNY personnel.
C) The Fleet Maintenance Support Vehicle is the only FDNY vehicle approved for removal and transportation of contraband material/cylinders.
D) Notification to vendors need not be made when an emergency condition exists.

3. C

no longer fleet maintenance, Haz-Mat

3) Note for answer B: An emergency condition is one that presents an imminent hazard to life, health or property and therefore may require immediate removal. An emergency condition can include circumstances where LPG or Compressed gas cylinders are leaking or damaged. Just remember the highest ranking officer is the IC until the Battalion Chief arrives, as the IC you can start the process. (THIS IS NOT JUST A CHIEF’S BULLETIN,)

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4. The Incident Commander shall, at the time of the incident or as soon thereafter as possible, where contraband has been found illegally stored or used have a __________ issued to the building owner or person in charge of the premises or the building or occupancy for using or storing contraband material. Please fill in the blank? (BISP Manual Chapter 4, add 6, section 5.1)
A) Violation Order
B) Summons
C) Notice of Violation
D) High Priority Referral

4. B

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4. The Incident Commander shall, at the time of the incident or as soon thereafter as possible, where contraband has been found illegally stored or used have a __________ issued to the building owner or person in charge of the premises or the building or occupancy for using or storing contraband material. Please fill in the blank? (BISP Manual Chapter 4, add 6, section 5.1)
A) Violation Order
B) Summons
C) Notice of Violation
D) High Priority Referral

5. A

5) Hot Zone = Only law enforcement personnel with the appropriate level of ballistic protection equipment will operate in Hot Zones.
Warm Zone = FDNY members shall not operate inside the Warm Zone unless requested by the NYPD for life safety. This operation must be approved by a FDNY Deputy Chief in consultation with a FDNY Staff Chief. Firefighters and EMS personnel may be deployed for life safety operations only and shall be escorted by NYPD personnel, operating under their security.
Cold Zone = The Command Post, Operations Post, Staging Areas, and medical triage, treatment, and transportation areas shall be located in Cold Zones.

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6. A Communication Engine will have which letter suffix from the list below, when assigned to an incident as a Communication Engine? (Communications 2, section 2.12.3)
A) V
B) S
C) L
D) Y
E) C

6. B

Engine Companies Ladder Companies
C CFR-D Engine C CPC Unit
D Tech Decon Task Force Engine D Tech Decon Task Force Ladder
F FAST Unit F FAST Unit
H Haz Mat Tech Unit H Hi-Rise Roof Team
I FireIce Unit R Rescue Collapse Transport
L Lobby Control Unit S SOC Support Truck
N High Rise Nozzle T Transport Backup Unit
P High Pressure Engine V Ventilation Support Unit
S Communications Unit W Water - Ice Rescue Unit
T Transport Backup Unit
W Water - Ice Rescue Unit
Y Systems Control Unit

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PART II – TAXPAYERS sec. #1 to 5.6.7:
1. There are three broad categories of taxpayers; the older type is built from the turn of the century until the 1920’s, the most prevalent type was built from the 1920's into the 1960's, and the newer type was built since the 1960's. Please choose an incorrect construction characteristic about the older type of taxpayer from the list below? (Section 2.3.1)
A) This type is usually one story in height but there are some that have two stories.
B) Decorative metal cornices, through which fire can spread, may be found on the front of some buildings. They cannot be removed to provide access to the cockloft area.
C) When renovating these buildings, hanging ceilings are installed which create a plenum area for fire travel.
D) Some of the older structures have partitions, girders, beams, and columns of wood and may be considered wood frame buildings although most have masonry exteriors

1. B

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2. Mezzanine areas will be found in some taxpayers. Their location, area and use will differ. Please choose the most correct answer from the list below in regards to mezzanines in taxpayers? (Section 2.4)
A) Mezzanines are found in the rear of the store or building, some along one side from front to rear or along part of one side, and a few have been erected in the center of the premises.
B) The height of the ceilings in the mezzanine and the area below will be above average.
C) Access to mezzanines may be via small wooden stairs or just a ladder. Very often there will be another means of access.
D) In the majority of the mezzanines this area will be enclosed.

2. A

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3. Generally the only auxiliary fire protection that may be found in taxpayers will be automatic sprinkler systems where they are required by building codes. According to the 2008 Building Code occupancies in taxpayers classified as Group “M” (Mercantile) will require sprinkler protection in which item(s) listed below? (Section 2.5.1)
A) Occupancy area exceeding 7,500 square feet.
B) Occupancy area of any size is located 2 stories above grade.
C) Occupancy area of any size is located in a High Rise building above the 2nd floor, if located on the first two floors of a High Rise building sprinkler protection is not required if two means of egress exists.
D) Occupancy area of any size contains an unenclosed stair or escalator connecting two or more floors.

3. A, D

Rules for sprinkler protection:
1938 Code Area exceeding 10,000 square feet.
1968 Code Area exceeding 7,500 square feet.
2008 Code-Group M-Mercantile FULL BUILDING-Area exceeding 12,000
square feet OR the combined area on all
floors including mezzanines exceeds 24,000
square feet. (BC 903.2.6)
Storage of merchandise is in high-piled racks
or rack storage arrays (BC 903.2.6.1)
OCCUPANCY WITHIN BUILDING-Area
exceeding 7,500 square feet OR area of any
size is located 3 stories above grade OR area
of any size is located in a High Rise building
OR area of any size contains an unenclosed
stair or escalator connecting two or more
floors. (BC 903.2.6.2)

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Captain’s Question: (Please reference slide # 1 in order to answer this question.)
4. From the list below please choose which Group “M” building under the 2008 building code that would not require an automatic sprinkler system? (Mercantile & Storage Guide)
A) A group “M” building one story 100 x100 (with no cellar / two equal "M" occupancies) that has closely packed piles where the top of the storage is ten feet high, the storage items are not high hazard commodities.
B) A group “M” building one story 50 x100 (with no cellar / one "M" occupancy) that has combustible material on pallets where the top of the storage is fourteen feet high.
C) A group “M” building one story 100 x100 (with no cellar / two equal "M" occupancies) that has flammable liquids stored on shelves, where the top of the storage is seven feet high.
D) A group “M” building one story 50 x100 (with no cellar / one "M" occupancy) that has shelf storage where the top of the storage is twelve feet high, "group A" plastics are being stored on the shelves.

4. B, C, D

4) Note: An automatic sprinkler system shall be provided in all buildings of Group M where storage of merchandise is high-piled or rack storage arrays. (2008 BC)
Fire Code definition of High Piled Combustible Storage: Storage of combustible materials in closely packed piles or combustible materials on pallets, in racks or on shelves where the top of storage is greater than 12 feet in height. High-piled combustible storage also includes certain high-hazard commodities, such as rubber tires, mattresses, Group A plastics, flammable liquids, where the top of storage is greater than 6 feet in height.

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5. You are conducting a drill on cocklofts found in taxpayers, several of your firefighters are commenting on the construction characteristics of cocklofts in taxpayers. You would know as a sharp fire officer that which statement(s) made by your firefighters is/are correct? (Section 3.2.1)
A) The cockloft is the space above the finished ceiling and the underside of the roof sheathing.
B) It usually is a common area extending over all of the stores in the structure and can vary in height from six inches to no more than six feet.
C) A large amount of exposed wood, such as roof boards, bridging and wood lath is present. These factors of wide open area and heavy fire loading result in rapid fire spread.
D) Fire may enter the cockloft through recesses, voids and ducts.

5. A, C, D

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6. The wooden bowstring truss is found in older commercial structures in New York City. It is common in supermarkets, bowling alleys, lumberyards, auto storage garages, and in buildings that originally housed such occupancies. Please choose an incorrect item about wooden bowstring trusses from the list below? (Section 3.3.3)
A) The bottom chords of many bowstring trusses have inadequate tensile strength to support code-prescribed loads.
B) Updated calculations have revealed that bowstring truss roofs may only support 58% of the load they were originally designed to hold.
C) In older type truss roof buildings, the trusses may be spaced 10 or 20 feet apart with roof beams installed between the trusses to support the roof coverings.
D) Wood truss roofs appear to fail without warning. The roof does not sag or get "spongy."

6. B

6) Structural steel loses 40% of its strength at 1,100 degrees.
At 1,100 degrees, cast-iron loses 58% of its original strength. The strength lost is cumulative and is never regained.

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7. Please choose the most correct item about open web steel joists? (Section 3.3.3)
A) Open web steel joists, found in modern taxpayer construction, have no fire resistance rating. Fire rating depends upon the ceiling finish and finish roofing.
B) Open web steel joists come in standardized lengths, depths and carrying capacities. They are used to span long distances up to 60 feet.
C) Unprotected open web steel joists are particularly vulnerable to elevated temperatures of a fire and may collapse after only 5 or 10 minutes.
D) All of the above.

7. D

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8. Please choose an incorrect item about masonry walls found in taxpayers? (Section 3.4)
A) In some cases brick walls are only two courses wide in taxpayers.
B) The stability of masonry walls is very much dependent on the integrity of the roof. The roof acts as a monolithic brace which ties the walls together.
C) Concrete block walls sometimes hinge at ground level and an entire side or rear wall may remain intact and fall out flat.
D) Brick walls usually crumble or break as they fall, but large sections can be projected a good distance due to the impact as the wall hits the ground.
E) Stability of masonry walls depends on the load being concentrated in a horizontal direction through the wall.

8. E

Vertical

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9. Exposed steel "I" beams are commonly used in taxpayer construction to support roof and floor joists. "I" beams will absorb heat from the fire at a rate dependent on many factors, such as:
A) The temperature of the fire.
B) The extent of the fire.
C) The mass (weight and size) of the beam.
D) All of the above.

9. D

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9. Exposed steel "I" beams are commonly used in taxpayer construction to support roof and floor joists. "I" beams will absorb heat from the fire at a rate dependent on many factors, such as:
A) The temperature of the fire.
B) The extent of the fire.
C) The mass (weight and size) of the beam.
D) All of the above.

9. D

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10. Columns in taxpayers can be made from wood, cast iron, lally columns (steel or cast iron) or masonry piers which support the beams. Cast iron columns are unpredictable and fail, on the average, in about _______ minutes in fire endurance tests. Please fill in the blank? (Section 3.7)
A) 5
B) 10
C) 15
D) 30

10. D

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11. When dealing with overhead security doors at a taxpayer, that may have been affected by fire, the following is suggested:
A) Avoid standing in door path.
B) Secure door from rolling by clamping vise grip pliers in track under roller or place a ladder as a stop.
C) Check the integrity of the overhead track immediately, regardless of conditions.
D) Attempting to force large overhead doors that have lost spring tension will require lifting dead weight and normally may be futile.
Please choose the incorrect item from the list above? (Section 3.11.4)

11. C

as soon as conditions permi

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12. The following may be causes of collapse during fire operations in taxpayers:
A) Back-drafts blowing out walls or floor.
B) Weakened and burned out structural members.
C) Accumulation of a large volume of water on a floor or in a ceiling.
D) Static load
E) Vibration or movement in or near a weakened building.
F) Water, ice or snow loads on the roof.
Please choose the incorrect item from the list above? (Section 4.2.4)

12. D

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13. Sagging or bulging walls will signal a potential structural collapse during firefighting operations in a taxpayer. As a sharp fire officer you would know that one cubic foot of brickwork weighs about ________ pounds. Please fill in the blank? (Section 4.2.5)
A) 200
B) 50
C) 100
D) 150

13. C

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14. A backdraft, smoke explosion or hot air explosion is the ignition and rapid combustion of a mixture of flammable gas or dust and air which flashes back through openings around the fire area. Warning signs of a potential backdraft are correctly listed in all choices below except one, please choose the exception? (Section 4.4.1)
A) Reversal of air, pulling smoke back into a smoke filled opening.
B) Glass windows stained with smoke condensation and pulsating from the pressure of the fire.
C) Dense gray smoke indicates the lack of oxygen and large quantities of free carbon and carbon monoxide gas.
D) Other colors of smoke associated with a backdraft are dirty brown, yellow brown and gray yellow.

14. C

B. Warning signs of a potential backdraft:
1. reversal of air, pulling smoke back into a smoke filled opening.
2. glass windows stained with smoke condensation and pulsating
from the pressure of the fire.
3. color of smoke varies according to the materials burning and the
make-up of the flammable gases that are being produced. Dense
black smoke indicates the lack of oxygen and large quantities of
free carbon and carbon monoxide gas. Other colors of smoke
associated with a backdraft are dirty brown, yellow brown and
gray yellow.

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FALL 2014 – Class #1 ©Copyright 2014 Fire Tech Promotion Courses, Inc.
All Rights Reserved
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15. Factors that influence the severity of a backdraft are listed below, please choose the one item that is listed incorrectly? (Section 4.4.1)
A) Type of gases, their temperature, pressure and make up.
B) Size and location of the areas involved.
C) Type and size of openings made by the Fire Department.
D) Proximity of openings in relation to the HVAC system.
E) Amount of turbulence in the building caused by the direction and velocity of the wind and hose streams directed in the building.

15. D

"fire" not "HVAC"

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16. A room or fire area requires only _______ percent of its space to contain the explosive mixture for the entire area to possibly explode due to a back-draft. Please fill in the blank? (Section 4.4.1)
A) 25
B) 5
C) 15
D) 20

16. A

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17. The list below provides some general procedures while operating at taxpayer fires. Please choose the most correct answer? (Section 5)
1. All horizontal and vertical ventilation tactics must be controlled, communicated and coordinated by the first Ladder Company Officer.
2. Ventilation at the roof and forcible entry at the street level must be coordinated to help assure prevention of a back draft and quick extinguishment of the fire.
3. If the roof requires cutting, cut early while it is still strong and fire extension is still limited.
4. Store windows should be removed entirely when necessary for effective interior operations.
A) 1 & 2 only B) 1, 2, 3, 4 C) 1, 2, 4 only D) 2, 3 & 4 only

17. D

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18. Please choose an incorrect item from the list below in regards to fire travel in taxpayers? (Section 5.3)
A) Generally, the lowest portion of the cockloft is in the front of the building.
B) If fire enters the cockloft at the high point or front of the building, our fire problem is less severe than if it entered into the cockloft at the rear.
C) The standard (flat) roof may have little or no pitch. If it is pitched, it will be from the front to the rear.
D) A fire originating in the cellar has a strong probability of entering the bays between the joists. If this occurs, the fire will travel the length of the joists.

18. A

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19. You are assigned as the Roof Sector Supervisor at a fire in a Taxpayer. You would know that which procedure listed below is incorrect? (Section 5.4)
A) The roof cut for vertical ventilation must be large enough to cause the bulk of the heat, smoke and gases being produced by the fire to vent in that direction and away from the advancing hose line.
B) A hole three feet by six feet, where possible, is recommended as a roof cut.
C) If trenching is to be implemented, leave the skylight returns in place when the skylights are to be used as a trenching boundary.
D) The immediate ventilation and cutting of an effective size hole on the roof calls for two saws and four members on the roof.

19. B

19) When it is not possible to make an eight feet by eight feet cut in a serious cockloft fire or where a heavy heat and smoke condition exists in the cockloft, the largest opening possible shall be made.

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20. You have just finished operating as the Roof Sector Supervisor in question 19. You decide to have an informal critique about taxpayer tactics with your unit. Please choose the correct statement(s) that you made? (Section 5.4 & 5.5)
A) A Roof Sector Supervisor is only required to supervise roof operations when more than two power saws are working on the roof.
B) Additional ladder companies should be special called to the scene of the operation as needed. Only Chief Officers can initiate this, if necessary.
C) Generally, vertical openings are made at the roof level. Scuttles, skylights or covers of former skylights that are located over or near the main body of fire should be opened first.
D) Openings that are made remote from the fire area may cause the fire to spread. These openings should never be made when such will jeopardize life or endanger any exposures.

20. C

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21. During roof cutting operations at a taxpayer fire consideration must be given to the following:
A) Location and extent of the fire.
B) Smoke, gases and heat in the cockloft or other portions of the building.
C) The location and seriousness of the exposure problem.
D) Condition of the roof and escape routes.
E) Wind direction and velocity.
Please choose the correct item(s) from the list above? (Section 5.5.7)

21. All

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22. At cellar fires in taxpayers, it is often necessary to cut the first floor to provide the necessary means of ventilation, so that the engine companies may advance their lines for extinguishment. The cut also may be used for getting water on the fire with bent tips, distributors or cellar pipes. Please choose an incorrect procedure from the list below when making these cuts? (Section 5.5.22)
A) The cut should be made as near to the windows as possible and away from doorways and aisles.
B) When the run of the floor joists has been established, the cut should be extended parallel to the joists.
C) The size, location and number of cuts depend on the obstructions encountered, location and extent of the fire and the area of the occupancy.
D) Additional cuts in adjacent stores should be made as required. All such cuts should be covered by hose-lines.

22. B

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23. With increased knowledge regarding bowstring truss roof construction, (its flaws and associated history of failure) a cautious approach must be adapted, regardless of the size of the fire area. In taxpayers with bowstring truss roof construction, the Incident Commander (IC) must perform a risk assessment keeping in mind that the life hazard and safety of the members involved in the operation is of paramount concern. The IC may implement an interior attack after a risk assessment has been performed based on the following factors:
A) Current structural stability of the building.
B) Any suspected life hazard.
C) Size and location of the fire.
D) Verification of safe access to fire area.
Please choose the incorrect item from the list above? (Section 5.5.25)

23. B

23) Known Life Hazard is defined as:
 A victim can be seen by the rescuer.
 A victim can be heard by the rescuer.
 A member has information from a credible source or a person at the scene indicating the location of the life hazard.
Additional Note: These same four items are also considered when operating at a vacant building fire before implementing an interior attack.

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24. In newer taxpayers the roof supports are of lightweight open web steel joists and gypsum roof decking can also be found. Please choose an incorrect procedure when operating at a fire in a taxpayer with this type of roof support system and/or decking? (Section 5.5.26)
A) Roofs of fire buildings with this type of roof support system (lightweight open web steel joists) must not be cut.
B) Vertical ventilation should be limited to removal of skylights and scuttle covers if present, when dealing with lightweight open web steel joists.
C) Emphasis should be placed on any and all horizontal ventilation points when dealing with lightweight open web steel joists.
D) If Gypsum roof decking is found members should be limited to the removal of skylights and scuttle covers if present.

24. D

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25. Please choose an incorrect item about trench cuts from the list below? (Section 5.6)
A) A trench cut is an opening made the full distance between two exterior walls or other fire-stops. The width of the trench should be at least three feet wide. A trench cut may be made in any direction.
B) Trenching does not take the place of ventilation holes. A trench may serve as an additional ventilation source. Its main purpose is to prevent the fire from passing that point at which the cut is made.
C) It is not practical to trench a large roof area of a taxpayer where fire has seriously involved a major portion of the cockloft. Emphasis must be placed on ventilation holes.
D) The Roof Sector Supervisor cannot start a trench cut unless immediate notification to the Incident Commander (IC) of the operation is made and the IC approves.

25. D

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PART III – COMMUNICATIONS CH. #9:
1. Company Officers have many tasks at fire operations. HT communications play a vital role in all of their tasks, please choose an incorrect HT communication procedure from the list below? (Section 9.1)
A) Control must be maintained by Company Officers so that communications continue, unless the operating demands placed upon the unit prevents the continuation of communications.
B) Company Officers must be aware of and maintain communication with members operating in remote locations.
C) Company Officers must maintain communications with members not operating under their immediate supervision to determine their status.
D) The interval between HT contact should be frequent enough to provide for the safety of the firefighter being monitored without monopolizing the HT frequency.

1. A

9.1.1 Control must be maintained by Company Officers so that communications
continue regardless of the operating demands placed upon the unit

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2. Members are under the "Immediate Supervision" of an Officer when: Please choose the most correct answer? (Section 9.2)
A) They are within sight and/or hearing of the Officer.
B) They are working with a search line or hose-line which is under the supervision of an Officer.
C) All of the above.
D) None of the above

2. C

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3. You are operating at a 2nd alarm for a large Queen Anne fire where the fire has extended from the 2nd floor to the third floor and is now showing thru the roof. The Incident Commander decides to switch from an interior attack to an exterior attack. The Incident Commander orders the Resource Unit Leader to conduct an Emergency Roll Call. You are an officer working in the first due engine (E-308) and state the following after the roll call officer calls you: Do you agree or disagree with your statement? (Comm 9, add 2, section 5.8)
“Engine 308 to RCO, we have 4 firefighters and my Nozzle and Backup are accounted for. I have also accounted for my control firefighter and ECC via HT.”
A) Agree or D) Disagree

3. D

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4. The Officer who arrives first at the fire area must transmit the following information to the Incident Commander:
A) Location of the fire. (If a multiple dwelling, report the wing, floor, apartment number, and number of apartments on fire floor.)
B) Fire conditions.
C) Access to fire area.
D) Whether fire is extending and how it is extending and the need for additional lines.
E) Difficulties or delays in gaining entrance to fire area or in advancing the line. Give reasons.
F) If any occupants have been located or are reported missing.
Please choose the correct item(s) listed above? (Section 9.3.1)

4. All

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5. The term “MAYDAY” may be used in certain situations:
A) Danger of Collapse
B) Structural Collapse Has Occurred
C) Unconscious or Life Threatening Injury to a civilian
D) Missing Member
E) Lost or Trapped member or members
Please choose the incorrect situation(s) from the list above? (Section 9.4.1 & 9.4.2)

5. A

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6. A member discovering either an unconscious member or a member suffering a life threatening injury shall notify the Incident Commander (IC) via a “Mayday” transmission. The member transmitting the “Mayday” is also required to provide the IC with the following information:
A) Location
B) Unit and identity of the injured member.
C) Nature and extent of the injuries, if known.
D) Resources needed
E) HT equipped
Please choose the piece of information listed above that is not found in our communication procedure? (Section 9.4.1)

6. E

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7. A member who locates a missing member shall notify the Incident Commander (IC) via a “Mayday” transmission. The member transmitting the “Mayday” is also required to provide the IC with the following information:
A) Location
B) Identity of member(s) to determine if it is the member(s) reported missing.
C) Any imminent conditions that might affect the missing member(s) e.g., fire nearby, out of air.
D) Resources needed to reach safety.
Please choose the correct piece(s) of information listed above that is/are found in our communication procedure? (Section 9.4.1)

7. All

LIAR

B. The member transmitting the MAYDAY shall respond in the
following format:
“Ladder 105 FAST to Command, MAYDAY, TRAPPED or
LOST MEMBER LOCATED” and provide the following
information:
 Identity of the member(s) involved
 Location
 Any imminent conditions that might affect the
trapped/lost member(s) e.g., fire nearby, out of air.
 Resources needed to reach safety

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8. A member who becomes lost or trapped shall notify the Incident Commander (IC) via a “Mayday” transmission. The member transmitting the “Mayday” is required to provide the following information to the IC:
A) Location if known. If unknown, provide last recognizable reference point such as, basement near oil burner.
B) Identity and number of members involved.
C) Any imminent conditions that might affect trapped members such as fire nearby, out of air, etc.
D) All of the above.
Please choose the most correct answer from the list above? (Section 9.4.1)

8. D

LUNA

3. The member transmitting the MAYDAY shall respond in the
following format:
"Ladder 133 Chauffeur to Command, MAYDAY-MEMBER
TRAPPED (or MEMBER-LOST)" and provide the following
information:
 Location if known. If unknown, provide last recognizable
reference point such as, basement near oil burner.
 Identity and number of members involved.
 Any imminent conditions that might affect trapped members
such as fire nearby, out of air, etc

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9. You are the first due truck officer at the scene of a natural gas odor. You are investigating the odor inside a structure when you notice that your MSA ALT-AIR Digital Gas Meter has a series of crosses under the COMB/EX icon. You would know to transmit which of the following? (Section 9.4.2 & T.B. Emergencies 2 add 1)
A) A Mayday
B) An Urgent
C) A normal notification to the IC.
D) Make no notification at all.

9. B

9) A member aware of a change in conditions that will severely impact an operation or the safety of members shall immediately press their Emergency Alert Button, and then contact the IC in the following format:
"URGENT-URGENT-URGENT, Ladder 132 to Command, URGENT."
The IC shall respond in the following format: "Command to Ladder 132, go ahead with your URGENT."
The member transmitting the URGENT shall provide the following information:
1. Nature of the problem
2. Location
3. Members/Units affected

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10. Please choose the correct Mayday or Urgent from the list below? (Section 9.4.1 & 9.4.2)
A) A member discovering an unconscious member shall transmit a “Mayday” for an “Injured Member”.
B) A member who becomes trapped shall transmit a “Mayday” and state “Trapped Member”.
C) A member aware of a loss of water, including water loss due to a confirmed burst length, which would endanger members shall transmit a “Mayday” for “Water Loss”.
D) A member aware of a structural problem indicating the danger of a collapse shall transmit an “Urgent” for “Collapse Feared”.

10. D

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PART IV – TB – TOOLS #1, 2, 3 & 4:
1. Please choose an incorrect pressurized water extinguisher description from the list below? (T.B. Tools # 1, section 1)
A) Weight is approximately 30 lbs.
B) Water 2-1⁄2 gallons.
C) Operating Pressure: 100 psi @ 70 degrees F.
D) Water expelled in 75 seconds.

1. D

55 seconds

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2. The water extinguisher is a pressure vessel and shall be hydrostatically tested at:
A) 5 year intervals.
B) Any time an extinguisher shows evidence of corrosion or mechanical damage.
C) Both A and B.
D) Neither A or B.
Please choose the most correct answer from the list above? (T.B. Tools # 1, section 1)

2. C

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3. Please indicate if you agree or disagree with the below statement? (T.B. Tools # 1, section 2)
“Using the pressurized water extinguisher with a finger over the nozzle should only be used at medium or small fires where there is no detectable thermal draft created by the fire.”
A) Agree or D) Disagree

3. D

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4. The pressurized water extinguisher shall be inspected daily and after each use. Inspection shall include all of the following except one, please choose the exception? (T.B. Tools # 1, section 4)
A) Any signs of leakage, corrosion, or physical damage. Signs of or exposure to excessive heat, flame, or fire.
B) Condition of the cap and collar threads. Serviceability of the gasket.
C) Visually examine the discharge hose and nozzle, to ensure it’s free from damage and unobstructed.
D) Check hydrostatic test date. If the date is greater than 3 years, consider placing the extinguisher out of service.

4. D

5 yrs

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5. The regulated pressurization source used to pressurize the water extinguisher should never be set to a pressure higher then _____? (T.B. Tools # 1, section 6)
A) 100 psi
B) 125 psi
C) 105 psi
D) 115 psi

5. B

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6. Please choose the correct item from the list below in regards to the KO curtain? (T.B. Tools # 2)
A) The KO Curtain shall be inspected monthly during MUD and after each use.
B) The Ladder Company Officer of a confiscated KO Curtain will prepare a brief letterhead report to Chief of Safety detailing the use of the device and a description of any damage.
C) Under no circumstance is a company’s KO Curtain to be deployed for drill purposes.
D) The administrative Battalion should be contacted for a replacement KO Curtain.
E) If a company’s KO Curtain is damaged in other than fire operations, the on duty company officer will complete a letterhead report with all details to the Chief of Safety.

6. D

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7. Please choose an incorrect item about the fire window blanket from the list below? (T.B. Tools # 3)
A) The fire window blanket may be used as a pre-deployment option to cover a window, prior to it failing, in order to prevent a wind-driven fire.
B) The blanket is large enough to cover at least two windows, if necessary. The bottom of the blanket is weighted to facilitate positioning.
C) Any unit or units may be used to deploy the blanket.
D) The officer of the blanket deploying unit will assign members to the floor below to secure the fire window blanket.
E) Due to the length of the top supporting straps, the blanket can be lowered from two floors above, if the officer of the blanket deploying unit deems this necessary.

7. E

IC

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8. Please indicate if you agree or disagree with the below statement? (T.B. Tools # 3, section 4.3)
“When a replacement of a fire window blanket is required the company officer shall contact the Technical Services Division during normal business hours and request a replacement with an available spare.”
A) Agree or D) Disagree

8. A

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9. Please choose an incorrect item about portable power generating equipment? (T.B. Tools 4, section 3)
A) The Department utilizes various generators with power outputs up to 4500 watts.
B) If a portable generator is used to power an exhaust fan, the ideal length of the electrical cord should be 60 feet or less.
C) All portable generators have 4 cycle engines, which require no mixing of gasoline.
D) Generators are capable of running portable lighting, smoke ejecting fans, and portable electric hand tools.

9. B
50" or more

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10. Please choose the most correct maintenance procedure in regards to portable generators? (T.B. Tools 4, section 3.8)
A) Operate portable generators for 15 minutes weekly. During this time, operate all lights for 5 minutes to test for proper working order of lights and generator under load.
B) Check the oil in the crankcase often and ensure that it is at the correct level.
C) Oil should be changed after fifty hours of use; this should be done by Technical Services.
D) All of the above.

10. D

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11. All companies issued a generator are also issued extension cords and adapter "pigtails." Please choose an incorrect item from the list below about these extension cords and adapter pigtails? (T.B. Tools 4, section 5)
A) The cords are various lengths of 12-gauge wire, some with waterproof connections.
B) Waterproof connections are good for use in up to 4 feet of water when properly mated. Care must be used when using all other connections near water.
C) To ease making proper connections, silicon di-electric grease may be applied to connections.
D) Electric cords and "pigtails" should be sent to Technical Services for repair or replacement when needed.

11. B

3'

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PART V – AUC #180 & 200:
1. Please indicate if you agree or disagree with the below statement? (AUC 180, sec 1.4)
“All gas piping (plastic, steel, cast iron and copper) can be impacted by burning, arching or smoldering electric cables.”
A) Agree or D) Disagree

1. A

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2. Please choose an incorrect operating procedure at a fire / emergency in a manhole? (AUC 180, section 2)
A) The area shall be cordoned off to vehicular and pedestrian traffic. All apparatus shall be clear of the area in a safe location.
B) The area shall be taped off, this marks the danger area for civilians and FD personnel.
C) Members shall not attempt to move vehicles located in the danger area, unless absolutely necessary.
D) Precautionary hose-lines shall be stretched as necessary. Units should not operate into manholes unless requested by a Con Edison employee at the scene.
E) If requested to place water into a manhole, do not direct the stream directly into the manhole, instead let water flow or pour into the manhole.

2. C

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3. When operations are within the capability of a single unit, the Officer in Command may leave one unit (preferably an Engine Company) to await the arrival of the emergency crew. If the expected time of arrival is more than 30 minutes, the Officer in Charge, based on evaluation of existing conditions, may order one of the following:
A) The unit remaining on the scene may respond to assigned alarms received via department radio; one member shall be left at the scene.
B) One member shall be left at the scene and the unit shall return to quarters. Chief officers shall provide relief for members.
C) When a member is left at the scene, the company officer shall at frequent intervals contact the dispatcher for re-notification of the utility company.
D) The manhole shall be protected by traffic cones and tape, and all units placed in service.
Please choose the incorrect item from the list above? (AUC 180, section 2.6)

3. B

Company Officer shall provide relief

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4. Please choose the correct safety item(s) at a fire / emergency in a manhole? (Notes page 3)
A) Members should not pull covers off electrical manholes at manhole fires or if a manhole fire is in the area.
B) Be cautious of the PELLET EFFECT from the dirt and gravel that is trapped on the sides of the cover if an explosion occurs.
C) Explosions in manholes cannot take place after considerable time has elapsed.
D) When a cover blows, do not run. Keep your eyes on the cover so you can approximate where it will land.

4. A, B, D

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5. Except where otherwise specifically noted, the activities outlined in AUC 200 “Winter Operations” shall commence on ______________ 1st of each year. Please fill in the blank? (AUC 200, section 3)
A) June
B) May
C) April
D) October

5. D

5) AUC 159; June 1st to November 30th is considered hurricane season for residents in the eastern Atlantic region. New York City is most at risk of being affected by a hurricane between August and October.

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6. The following equipment shall be assembled in readiness and placed on company apparatus when a snow or ice emergency is imminent or Phase A or B established according to AUC 200:
A) At least 6 extra lengths of 2 1⁄2" hose, rolled or folded, on each Engine and Ladder apparatus.
B) 2 shovels.
C) Containers of salt and/or sand.
D) Vehicle recovery strap with shackle.
E) Tire chains, spare links and link tool.
F) Specialized hydrant connection set-up, as determined by a Lieutenant in each unit serving as the winter operations coordinator.
Please choose the incorrect item from the list above? (AUC 200, section 3.3.3)

6. F

Company Commander

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The following is a Captain’s Question
7. Company Commanders shall determine special needs for winter operations and requisition or obtain such supplies and equipment in advance of winter weather. Requisitioning shall commence _______ 1st to permit sufficient time for various Bureaus to obtain and deliver materials. Items on requisition not received by ______ 1st shall be called to the attention of Division Coordinators. Please fill in the blanks? (AUC 200, section 3.3.7)
A) July - first blank / October - second blank
B) March - first blank / May - second blank
C) April - first blank / July - second blank
D) September - first blank / November - second blank

7. A

7) Cross ref AUC 159: Hurricane supplies req on March 1st for June 1st, supplies not received by May 1st brought to the attention of Div coordinators.

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8. You are responding on a cold winter night as a first due engine officer to a fire in a four story Brownstone. As you arrive at the corner of the block a credible source (Police Officer) informs you that two civilians are located at a second floor front window with fire showing in the adjoining window. The block where the fire building is located has two feet of snow and road conditions are extremely poor. You and the junior Lieutenant in the Ladder company behind you are the only two officers on scene. You would be most correct in which action below? (AUC 200, section 5.3.10)
A) You know that you are always required to enter the block first because of the height of the building.
B) You give preference to the first due aerial ladder and allow them to enter the block first, because of the height of the building.
C) You allow the first due aerial ladder to enter the block first, because this is always required due to the location of the life hazard.
D) None of the above.

8. D

8) Where possible, standard operating procedures shall be followed. When in the judgment of the IC, other methods would be required, appropriate solutions suggested by initiative and experience shall be utilized. The following is a compilation of suggested operating techniques and tactics derived from previous experiences by members of this Department:
Where building involved is higher than 3 stories, preference shall be given to ladder company apparatus entering block first with the engine company personnel hand stretching from the nearest hydrant, if necessary. Where building involved is 3 stories or less, preference shall be given to the engine company apparatus entering block first with ladder company personnel carrying portable ladders.
Key on the word preference, preference does not mean always.
Generally, floor and ladder working length are:
4th floor - 35' extension ladder.
3rd floor - 24' or 35' extension ladder.
2nd floor - 24' extension ladder or 14' "A" Frame ladder.

Decks in Firetech Class (61):