1. Which of the following glossary terms is not correct? (i, ii)
a. A ladder with folding hooks at the top is known as a hook ladder or roof ladder
b. The fly section is the moving section of an extension ladder
c. A folding ladder is also known as an “A” frame ladder
d. A straight ladder has only one section

1. C

Folding ladder A ladder designed for use in inaccessible areas where ordinary ladders
will not fit; the rungs fold completely into the beams when fully closed.

Combination ladder A versatile ladder that can serve as a straight ladder or be converted to
an "A" type ladder: i.e., Metal Duo-Safety "A" Ladder.


2. An apparatus should be no closer than ______ feet to the rear of the ladder apparatus at a
fire or emergency. (8.1.1)
a. 18
b. 20
c. 22
d. 24

2. B


3. Which is correct about the base of the portable ladders used in the FDNY? (3.2)
a. Straight ladders will only have steel spikes at their base
b. Extension ladders will only have steel spikes at their base
c. Some ladders will have swiveling rubber safety shoes and aluminum spikes
d. When present, the rubber pads are used on hard surfaces

3. C

2.2 The base of the portable aluminum ladder is provided with either steel spikes or
swiveling rubber safety shoes and aluminum spikes. For ladders equipped with the
swiveling device, the rubber pads should be utilized when the ladder is to be raised and
used on hard surfaces. (Figure 2A, 2B)


4. Company Officers must ensure that ladders are routinely inspected and that all equipment
is in good condition and correctly attached to the apparatus. Which action of a company officer
is not correct? (5.3, 6.1.2, 13.1.13, 14.2.3)
a. A Lieutenant in an engine company with a spare rig ordered the portable ladder carried on
the apparatus even though it could not be held securely
b. The covering Captain working in a ladder company ordered a portable ladder removed
from service because it was subjected to excessive heat exposure even though there was no
c. After a loose rivet was discovered the Lieutenant in Ladder 57 notified Tech Services and
ordered the ladder to remain in service while awaiting a replacement ladder that was being
delivered in the next two hours
d. Ladders should be visually inspected weekly and after each use

4. C

 If ladders cannot be held securely, the Fire Tools and Equipment Unit shall
immediately be notified by telephone. A requisition shall be forwarded and an entry
made in the company journal. Provision shall be made to secure ladders as safely as
possible pending repair or relocation of ladder holding devices by the Fire Tools and
Equipment Unit. These temporary fastenings shall be checked after each response.
 If the officer on duty feels that a particular ladder cannot be temporarily secured to
the spare apparatus in a safe manner, and there is a danger of loss of the ladder during
response, the ladder shall be left off the apparatus. An entry of this action shall be
made in the company journal.


5. Prior to Annual Inspection the Captain should ensure that all portable ladders are properly
marked with unit and length. Which is incorrect? (7.1, 7.2)
a. Straight ladders shall be marked with the length on each end of each rail
b. Extension ladders shall have the length marked on the butt end only of each rail of the bed
c. Unit designation shall also be marked on each ladder
d. Ladder length markings shall be visible when ladders are stored on apparatus
e. Unit designation is marked within 12” and length within 18” of the end of the ladder

5. E

6.1 The numerical length of a ladder shall be marked on the side of the rails within 12 inches
of the end of the ladder.
 Straight ladders - The ladder length shall be marked on each end of each rail.
 Extension ladders - The ladder length shall be marked at the butt end only of each rail
of the bed ladder.
 Ladder length markings shall be visible when ladders are stored on the apparatus.
6.2 The unit designation shall be marked within 18 inches of each butt.


6. The proper climbing angle of a portable ladder is 65° to 75°. A simple formula to obtain a
75° angle is to place the base of the ladder from the wall a distance that is _______ the working
length of the ladder. (8.4.4)
a. 1/2
b. 1/3
c. 1/4
d. 1/5

6. C


7. During MUD a Lieutenant was discussing the proper placement of the tip of a portable
ladder in different scenarios. Which is an incorrect statement? (8.5.1, 11.3.2 A 2)
a. When placed at a window the tip shall be level with the window sill
b. If placed to a roof, the tip is placed at least 2 feet above the roof
c. When placed against a building alongside a fire escape, the tip shall be 1 to 3 feet above the
fire escape railing
d. The tip shall be slightly above the fire escape railing when placed against a fire escape
e. When placed for window ventilation with a member on the ladder, the tip should be, if
possible, slightly below the top of the window

7. E


8. Consider the following statements and select the incorrect concerning climbing portable
ladders. (9.1.2, 9.1.5, 9.1.6 B)
a. The underside of the beams are grasped with the hands
b. When carrying a tool the hands should slide along the top of the beam
c. Tools should not be carried inside the ladder over the rungs
d. If the ladder is icy, the feet are placed directly next to the beams

8. B

 If a tool is carried, it should be balanced in the carrying hand, which holds onto the
side of the beam. The free hand continues to grasp the underside of the beam.


9. You are a Lieutenant in a ladder company conducting drill on portable ladder placement at
OLT fires. You review the scenarios below with your firefighters; they should know which is
the only correct? (11.2.1 A & B)
a. To relieve overcrowding on a fire escape, the first portable ladder was placed adjacent to
the drop ladder
b. More relief was needed for the fire escape so a second portable ladder was placed to the
first balcony opposite the first portable ladder
c. If there is no front fire escape and the fire is in the cellar, portable ladders aren’t necessary
on the front of the building if the aerial ladder will be used on the upper floors
d. A portable ladder should be placed to the 3rd floor for a fire on the second floor.

9. D

 Tenements without front fire escape. (Figures 8A, 8B, and 8C)
o When the fire is in the cellar, 1st floor and/or 2nd floor, raise the portable
ladders adjacent to and above the fire area, even if the aerial ladder will be
required on the upper floors. A severe fire may render the interior stairs
untenable and portable ladders will be required, even if the need is not
obvious from the street.
o Fire escapes often become overcrowded when there is a fire anywhere within
the building. Under these conditions, a portable ladder should be raised to the
first balcony at a point opposite the drop ladder. If more relief for the fire
escape is required, another portable ladder should be raised to the second


10. Portable ladder operations in the rear of buildings can sometimes be life or death situations.
The OV and other firefighters have to make quick decisions about ladder size and route. Which
is an incorrect action? (11.2.2 C 2, D 1)
a. A 12’ hook ladder may be used to gain access to various balconies when party wall
balconies are present
b. The 12’ hook ladder could be positioned from the rear yard or the roof
c. In most cases at Brownstone fires, it is quicker to bring a ladder through the first floor of
adjoining building than through the fire building
d. For Row Frame fires, transporting through the first floor of the fire building is generally
easier because front and rear doors are present at ground level

10. C

o In most cases, taking the ladder through the second floor (parlor floor) of an
adjoining brownstone and passing it out the rear window to another member in
the yard below is faster than using the fire building.

Note: In a brownstone, it is important to take the ladder through with the butt
facing the rear of the building. In a row frame, transporting a ladder through the
interior of the building to the rear is generally less complicated because there are
front and rear doors or window entries at ground level.


11. You are the Officer of the FAST unit for a fire in a 2 ½ story peaked roof PD. You observe
several actions involving portable ladders, which is incorrect? (11.3.2 A B)
a. A member is positioned on a ladder to vent a window, the ladder is upwind from the
b. A firefighter was using a 6 foot hook, which is the preferred tool, when venting windows
from a portable ladder
c. A firefighter positioned a portable ladder to a window and allowed the ladder to fall and
break the window
d. In order to stabilize the ladder to prevent its falling to the ground, a firefighter held the
beams or rungs as the ladder was dropped against the window

11. D


12. You are a Captain working in Ladder 139. You are the special called truck for a fire in a
two story taxpayer. Numerous portable ladders have been placed. Regarding the repositioning or
movement of portable ladders that were used by members to gain entry to the fire building, it
would be correct to state that ladders placed for entry by members? (11.3.11)
a. Should never be moved unless an immediate life threatening situation exists
b. May be moved only if necessary to use a ladder for search purposes
c. May be moved only if necessary to use a ladder for rescue purposes
d. May be moved only if another means of egress is available for the members who entered
the building via the ladder

12. C

10.3.11 When a ladder has been positioned and used by a member to gain entry to a fire
building, there is the possibility that he/she will also need it as a means of retreat.
The ladder is expected to be there. Therefore, do not move or reposition a ladder
used in this manner except if it is necessary to use the ladder for rescue.
Members operating in the area the ladder was used to access should be notified
regarding its repositioning. The ladder should be returned to its original location
or replaced with another ladder as soon as possible.


13. You are a Lieutenant in a ladder company that just operated at an all hands fire on the 2nd
floor of an OLT with no front fire escapes. While critiquing operations with your firefighters
you ask about the portable ladder placement. Which choice contains the correct placement of
portable ladders on the front of the building? (11.2.1 A)
a. The fire apartment and apartment above the fire
b. Apartment adjacent to fire area and apartment above the fire
c. Apartment adjacent to fire area and apartment above the adjacent apartment
d. Fire apartment and apartment adjacent to fire apartment

13. C


1. You are the officer of Engine 12, the first arriving unit at a fire with a visible life hazard.
The ladder company and other units are delayed due to a snow storm. You know you must
address the life hazard. Choose the incorrect statement for this scenario: (4.2.1-4.2.3)
a. Immediate rescue attempts by the first arriving engine without simultaneously stretching
and positioning a hoseline should be attempted only in extreme situations
b. If Engine 12 is staffed with four firefighters, you may attempt a rescue while the nozzle
team advances on the fire which is past the incipient stage
c. Life saving operations are placed ahead of firefighting when sufficient firefighters are not
available to do both
d. If a portable ladder rescue is attempted, it must be conducted by at least two members

1. D


2. Select the correct statement about Engine Company operations: (1.2-1.4, MMID
chptr 1 2.1.1)
a. The tactics listed are intended to be guidelines; additional SOPs are developed and
implemented by the individual boroughs
b. Regardless of manufacturer, all engine apparatus have the same hose bed size and layout
c. When arriving on scene prior to the FAST unit, members of the 2nd engine make up the
Safety Team
d. When staffed with 4 firefighters, the duties of the Door position are split between the B/U
and Control firefighters

2. C

1.2 The FDNY fleet of engine companies includes several variations in make and model.
Hose bed layouts may be different depending on the make and model and this manual
addresses those differences.

1.3 This manual is based upon engine company staffing of an officer and four (4) firefighters.
In units staffed with five (5) firefighters the "door" and "control" functions are each
performed by an individual firefighter.

1.4 Engine Company firefighters must be familiar with the apparatus currently in service
with the Department. Various makes and models exist and the differences between the
apparatus include hose bed size and layout, location and number of discharge outlets,
location and number of compartments, position of equipment such as ladders, large
caliber streams, and hydrant connections.

2 Engine Companies on the scene
Backup & Control FFs of
2nd Arriving Engine


3. During roll call the officer makes specific assignments. Which is not an assignment given
by the officer? (2.2, 2.3, Regs 20.1.3)
a. Apparatus riding position
c. Designate a member to perform forcible entry if Ladder delayed
d. Handie-talkie
e. Housewatch duties

3. E


4. Firefighters carry tools and other equipment in their bunker coat pockets. Equipment
required to be carried by engine firefighters includes all but which of the following?
(2.6, 10.4.2)
a. Hose strap
b. Chock
c. Sure search door marker
d. Wooden sprinkler wedge
e. Spanner

4. C

2.6 Engine company firefighters shall stand roll call with all their Department issued
personal protective equipment. This equipment includes helmet, bunker coat, bunker
pants and boots, gloves, and hood. In addition, a hose strap, chock, and spanner shall be
carried by each engine company member.

10.4.2 Both engine company and ladder company personnel should carry wooden
sprinkler wedges or sprinkler tongs to stop the flow of water from a sprinkler
head in order to facilitate operations and reduce water damage.


5. The FT-2 and solid stream tip (MST) both flow adequate water to extinguish fire. From the
options below select those that are benefits of the solid stream tip. (2.8.4)
1. Reduced nozzle reaction
2. Recommended for fires near energized electrical equipment
3. Effective at low pressure
4. Effective for ventilation
5. Superior penetration
a. 1, 4, 5
b. 2, 3, 4
c. 1, 3, 5
d. 3, 4, 5

5. C


6. Which is incorrect about an engine company responding to a UCT alarm for a fire?
(3.3,.3.5.2, 3.6.4)
a. If responding from BISP, members must don PPC prior to responding
b. If the first two engines arrive at approximately the same time but out of response sequence,
they shall be guided by the alarm assignment
c. When the second due engine arrives, the officer must ascertain if the 1st engine has arrived
d. The 1st due engine should strive to enter the block behind and from the same direction as
the 1st Ladder

6. D


7. Apparatus positioning is important and requires communication between the first arriving
officers and chauffeurs. All of the following are correct about apparatus positioning except?
(3.6.1-3.6.4, Fig-1)
a. When the engine initially stops to perform a back stretch, the ladder can take a tentative
position on arrival
b. The engine should always precede the ladder into the block
c. When responding to an alarm and a street address is provided, proceed directly to that
d. The officer determines apparatus placement once the fire location has been determined

7. B


8. Ensuring a positive, continuous water source is imperative for effective firefighting.
Which two statements are correct about engine pumping operations? (3.7)
a. All arriving engines on the first alarm shall locate and connect to a positive water source
b. No more than 2 handlines shall be operated from an engine
c. If supplying a large caliber stream, an engine is limited to only supplying 1 handline
d. A supply pumper in a relay should not supply any handlines but may supply a large caliber

8. A, B

 The supply pumper in a relay operation should not supply any handlines or
large caliber streams.
 The pumper supplying a large caliber stream should not supply any handlines
or additional large caliber streams.


9. Often the odor given off by burning materials, even if there is no visible smoke, may
indicate what is burning and perhaps indicate where the fire might be located. Which is not
correctly listed? (4.3.2)
a. Wood and paint odor – apartment
b. Food on the stove – apartment
c. Electrical odor - boiler room or basement
d. Rubbish odor - public hallway/stairway, compactor room

9. C

4.3.2 Often the odor given off by burning materials, even if there is no visible smoke,
may indicate what is burning and perhaps indicate where the fire might be located:
 Wood and paint odor - apartment.
 Food on the stove - apartment.
 Fuel oil odor - boiler room or basement.
 Rubbish odor - public hallway/stairway, compactor room, shafts.
 Electrical odor - overhead lights in hallways.


10. You are a Lieutenant in command of an engine company. You are first to arrive for a
reported fire on the 6th floor of a large H-type MD. You arrive at the apartment door and have a
heavy smell of smoke. After telling your nozzle team to stretch an 1 ¾” line you have the ECC
transmit the 10-75. As you open the unlocked door you hear a muffled voice saying “Help!”
The hoseline is being stretched up the well hole and the Ladder Company is just reaching the 6th
floor landing as you don your face piece. You enter the apartment and move toward the voice
when you see fire begin to spread across the ceiling. At this point you would be most correct to
perform which action? (4.6.4 B)
a. Continue with your search as this is a confirmed life hazard
b. Notify the Ladder company Can FF to discharge the can at the ceiling while you continue
the search
c. Wait to team up with another member prior to continuing the search
d. Leave the fire area and close the door behind you

10. D

B. Growth: The stage of fire development when the heat release rate from an
incipient fire has increased to the point where heat transfers from the fire
and causes the combustion products to pyrolyze adjacent fuel sources.
The fire begins to spread across the ceiling of the fire compartment
This rollover is an indicator that fire conditions are rapidly changing.
When rollover is observed and members are not operating under the
protection of a charged hoseline, they shall immediately leave and isolate
the fire area. As the fire continues to progress towards the fully developed
stage, the potential for a flashover exists. Flashover causes the fire to
spread rapidly through the space, resulting in fire involvement of the
entire compartment or enclosed space.


PART III – DUNN – Ch. #10 & 11:
1. Which two statements about steel are correct? (p. 143)
a. Steel loses strength when heated to temperatures between 1000°and 1100° F
b. Longer sections of steel can absorb more heat than shorter sections exposed to the same
conditions; the shorter sections will fail sooner than the longer sections
c. Steel melts at 2400° F, a temperature frequently achieved in commercial structure fires
d. When heated steel can expand and push out walls

1. A, D


2. Select the two most common examples of shaped steel (p. 143)
a. Fluted floor decking (Q-decking)
b. Bar joist truss
c. Hollow tube steel columns
d. C-beams (C-joists)
e. Steel partition wall studs (metal studs)

2. B, D


3. Which of the following is a correct statement about steel? (P. 151-152)
a. When using LW steel, joist spacing is standard, 18” for floors and 24” for roofs
b. The average expansion of a 50’ long steel beam when heated to 972° F is 1 foot 9 inches
c. Unprotected steel has a moderate amount of fire resistance
d. The greater the load a steel member carries, the faster it can fail

3. D


For questions 4 - 6 select one of the methods to protect steel that is listed below.
a. Concrete encasement
b. Membrane ceiling
c. Spray-on fire-retardant material (SFRM)

4. Which is the least effective method to protect steel from fire? (146)

4. C


For questions 4 - 6 select one of the methods to protect steel that is listed below.
a. Concrete encasement
b. Membrane ceiling
c. Spray-on fire-retardant material (SFRM)

5. Which is the best method to protect steel from fire? (145)

5. A


6. Which method is neutralized by the operation of a central air conditioning system? (148)

6. C


1. What is the main concern for the fire service with LW wood truss construction?
a. Lack of mass in the structural elements
b. The sheet metal surface fastener connecting the truss members
c. Substandard vertical support
d. The general truss design

1. B


2. What marking on the exterior of a building indicates the presence of truss construction in
New York State? (160)
d. T

2. C


3. The rate of fire spread inside a concealed space will be ________ if LW open web wood
trusses are used instead of conventional solid wood beam construction. (160)
a. 10% faster
b. 10% slower
c. 50% faster
d. 50% slower
e. 100% faster
f. 100% slower

3. E


1. During drill on fire extinguisher use, the Proby asked about extinguishing fires in a
mailbox. The following statements were made, which are correct? (Fires 1)
1. The only acceptable extinguishing agent is water
2. Dry chemical extinguishers should not to be used
3. Large parcel post mailboxes (greater than 9 cubic feet) can be extinguished with 3 short
blasts from a carbon dioxide extinguisher
4. Purple K extinguishers can be used
5. The mailbox should be forced open to ensure complete extinguishment, do not use an
extinguisher through the mail slot.
a. 3, 4
b. 1, 2, 4
c. 2, 3
d. 1, 2
e. 2, 3, 5

1. C

Fires in mailboxes can be handled efficiently by the use of dry chemical or carbon dioxide
extinguishers. The extinguishing medium should be injected into the mail slot and the slot cover
The following chart shows the action and average waiting time required for extinguishment of
fires in the various size mail boxes. Additional extinguishing medium shall be injected if
(CU. FT.)
Parcel Post 9.72 3 short blasts 2 minutes
Medium Letter 2.70 3 short blasts 2 minutes
Small Letter 1.44 3 short blasts 2 minutes
Note: Short blast is considered to be a full squeeze of the extinguisher trigger and a quick
Dry chemical extinguishers may not completely extinguish the burning material but do eliminate
the active flaming. In addition, the powder has a fire retarding effect on the mail.
Use of these extinguishers provides extinguishment without obliteration or saturation caused by
water. The purpose is to preserve as much of the contents as possible for future delivery by
postal authorities.


2. Firefighters may encounter various types of hazards while operating at fires and
emergencies and while conducting building inspections. Dogs are one of these hazards. Which
statement concerning dogs is not correct according to FDNY publications? (2.1-2.4)
a. Attack dogs are trained to attack on command of their trainer
b. The actions of Security dogs are generally predictable and they appear vicious
c. Household pets usually do not present a problem
d. Members should assume all dogs are vicious

2. A

A. Attack dogs -Trained to attack anyone in the area except their trainer.

B. Watch dogs -Trained to sound a warning by barking but not to attack.
C. Command dogs -Trained to attack only on command of their trainer.


3. When encountering dogs at fires, members are recommended to take certain actions. Which
action is incorrect? (4.5-4.12)
a. You may be able to intimidate a dog with loud authoritative commands
b. When a dog that appears dangerous is encountered, a water or CO2 extinguisher can be
directed at the dog’s face
c. A hose line should be stretched and charged as a backup when encountering dangerous
d. Only the Center for Animal Care and Control should be called to assist with a dog, an ETA
should be requested

3. D

4.11 The Police Department has two Emergency Services Units equipped with tranquilizer
guns for control of animals. If they can be used to advantage, request the FDNY
Dispatcher to have one Unit respond and determine ETA

4.12 The Center for Animal Care and Control is also capable of dispatching a truck and an
animal handler on a 24-hour basis at (718) 649-8600. Request an ETA to aid in any
decisions regarding operations pending their arrival.


4. While conducting a BISP at a vacant building, a member is bitten by a dog on the roof of
the building. The dog is on a chain secured to the bulkhead and but there is no owner or other
responsible person on scene. You consider the dog to be a stray. Besides transmitting a 10-44,
you would be correct to have the dispatcher notify which of the following? (Fires 2 sec 4.13)
1. Center for Animal Care and Control
3. Medical Officer
4. Safety Battalion
a. 1, 2
b. 2, 3
c. 2, 3, 4
d. 1, 2, 3
e. 1, 2, 3, 4

4. D


5. You are the officer of Ladder 141, the first to arrive truck for a smoke condition in a 2nd
floor bedroom of a private dwelling. The can was used to extinguish fire in a foam rubber
mattress. Which of the following is a correct action? (3.1, 3.2, 3.3, 4)
a. An 1 ¾" line was stretched but not used since the fire was extinguished with the can.
b. If the mattress was cotton or fiber filled and appears to be completely extinguished, a hose
line is not always necessary
c. A knife was used to cut up the foam rubber into pieces and soaked in the tub
d. The mattress should be rolled and tied prior to removing it only if the fire was burning
below the surface



6. Which of the following tools would be the best option to ventilate a Lexan window?
a. Sawzall with coarse tooth wood blade
b. Superior Air Hammer (air chisel)
c. Chainsaw
d. Portable electric handsaw

6. A


7. Which is an incorrect statement about the location and use of Lexan windows?
(sec 2, 3.10)
a. Approved for use in New York City Schools for windows up to 75 feet in height
b. Installed on first floor windows of many Nynex buildings
c. When used on Nynex buildings, Lexan is on the inner side of the window opening
d. Nynex windows will either have Lexan or wire screens, not both, for protection

7. D


8. Which of the following statements is correct regarding the use of tools on Lexan?
(sec 3)
a. The Superior Air Hammer is effective
b. The portable electric hand saw is unsafe
c. The pike axe is effective, but tedious
d. The chain saw is ineffective
e. The Oxyacetylene torch is ineffective

8. E


9. Lexan will not shatter when struck with an axe? Do you Agree or disagree?
(1.3, 3.1, 3.6)
a. Agree or d. Disagree

9. A


1. Which of the following are considered confined spaces? (1, 2, 2.1)
a. Manhole
b. Sewer
c. Elevator shaft
d. Cesspool

1. All

1.1 What is confined space?
1.1.1 The Code of Federal Regulations 29-CFR 1910.146 defines a confined space as
any area that is:


2. The most deadly hazard at a confined space is? (2)
a. Physical hazards
b. Atmospheric hazards
c. Engulfment hazards
d. Shaping hazards

2. B


3. Which of the following is not one of the atmospheric hazards in a confined space? (2)
a. Asphyxiant
b. Explosive
c. Oxygen enriched
d. Toxic

3. C


4. Atmospheric hazards are a danger that FDNY members must consider when operating at
confined spaces. Which statement is incorrect? (2.1.1, 2.1.2)
a. All members entering any confined space must be breathing air from their SCBA at all
times until the atmosphere is verified safe
b. The only safe way to detect a lack of oxygen is through the use of a meter
c. There is no way to test for the presence of all toxic materials in the field
d. Many times there will be some sort of outward sign indicating lack of oxygen

4. D


5. Permit Required confined spaces have specific hazards that pose danger to anyone that
enters. Which is not a characteristic of a Permit Required confined space? (1.2.1)
a. Contains a hazardous atmosphere
b. Contains material that could engulf a person
c. Downward sloping floors
d. Nobody should enter a permit required confined space unless they have a permit issued by
the Fire Department

5. D


6. Because there are multiple dangers in a confined space there are limitations and
requirements when operating at this type of emergency. Which statement(s) are correct?
(2.2.2, 4.2, 4.3)
a. An FDNY ladder should be used
b. Members entering shall remain attached to their lifeline at all times
c. The times members enter a confined space must be recorded
d. The SCBA vibralert may not provide sufficient time for the firefighter to exit
e. The primary reason for remaining attached to the lifeline is so the firefighter can be
removed if injured

6. A, B, D, E


7. It is exceptionally difficult to haul a person up and out of a vertical opening without a
mechanical advantage system. To allow vertical removal the FDNY will utilize a high point
anchor which allows for quicker and easier removal. A sharp student will know which of the
following to be incorrect? (4.4)
a. Due to its greater weight support capability, a tower ladder is preferred over an aerial
b. Neither the aerial nor tower ladder shall be used as a crane to lift a person; they are only to
be used as a high point anchor over the opening
c. All personnel, except the LCC, shall be removed from the turntable of the apparatus being
used as a high point
d. The tower ladder’s weight supporting capacity is at least 800 lbs; an aerial’s is only 250

7. C


8. You are the Lieutenant of Ladder 57, the first arriving unit at a confined space incident.
You are confronted with an injured worker in a confined space, the remaining units are delayed.
After conducting the required size-up and obtaining the required information you decide to have
a member make entry to retrieve the victim. Assuming all are available, which member should
you select to make entry? (3.1, 5.1)
a. A 20-year firefighter with a lapsed CFR-D certification
b. A 15-year member with a current CPR certification
c. A 5-year member who just transferred from an engine with current CFR-D certification
d. A Proby who was an FDNY EMS Paramedic prior to becoming a firefighter

8. C


9. Which of the following is a safe atmosphere is a confined space?
a. 15% LEL
b. 19.5% oxygen
c. 38 ppm carbon monoxide
d. 18 ppm hydrogen sulfide

9. B


10. Which statement is not accurate concerning the medical treatment for patients in a confined
space? (5.2-5.5)
a. Performing CPR in a hazardous atmosphere is generally to be discouraged
b. If the victim is breathing and the atmosphere is a threat, establishing an airway and
placement of a facepiece is the highest priority
c. All unconscious confined space victims should immediately be thoroughly examined for
any sign of trauma
d. Generally it is best to remove the victim to a safe atmosphere as quickly as possible

10. C

5.4 Falls inside confined spaces, as well as falling objects, account for a substantial number
of confined space injuries. For this reason, all trauma victims, and victims that are
unconscious for an unknown reason, should be treated as having spinal injuries. Under
normal circumstances, that involves the placement of spinal traction, a cervical collar,
and the securing to an immobilization device such as a KED and/or long board


1. A PCR should be filled out in all but which of the following situations? (1.2.2)
a. A ladder company that stabilized a patient’s neck while assisting an EMS ambulance
b. Anytime a CFR-D engine is 10-84 at an EMS run
c. Verbal alarm where the CFR-D engine initiated history taking
d. Patient care is provided by a CFR-D firefighter at an All-Hands fire

1. B


2. Which is not correct about what is done with the various parts of the PCR? (1.1)
a. Part I is forwarded to OMA via the local EMS Division
b. Part II stays in quarters and must be secured by the officer
c. Part III is the for the hospital and, if completed, should be given to the EMS unit at the
d. If Part III is not given to the EMS unit at the scene, it is forwarded with Part I

2. A


3. After using the AED for a cardiac arrest the officer must ensure that the incident is properly
documented. Which is most incorrect? (2.1)
a. The original PCR is faxed to OMA by the end of the tour
b. A copy of the PCR and the AED module are exchanged for a new module at the Battalion
CFR-D depot
c. The serial number of the module shall be recorded on the PCR
d. If the AED was not applied to a cardiac arrest patient, the circumstances must be explained
on the PCR

3. A


4. Which is an incorrect entry on a PCR? (4.1.4, 4.4.1, 4.4.7, 4.13.1, 4.19)
a. For the “Vehicle ID” the engine company number shall be preceded by the number “5”
b. If unable to obtain the patient’s name, “unknown” should be written in the name box
c. The patient’s age is not required if the Date of Birth is documented
d. A minimum of one set of vital signs is required for adult patients unless they are in cardiac
arrest or DOA
e. Only the names and certification numbers of CFR-D members who provided patient care
are required. The name of the member completing the PCR must be circled.

4. C

Decks in Firetech Class (61):