WEEK #12 WEEK OF 4/21/14 FIRE TECH MINI EXSAM INSTRUCTOR: DC JIM DIDOMENICO Flashcards

FIRE TECH MINI EXSAM

1
Q
  1. A Company Officer should know which one of the following points concerning the Electronic BF-4 is inaccurate? (AUC 346 1.1, 2.2.1, 2.6, 3.2)

A. The EBF-4 is directly linked to the HRIS database, CADS and the spare radio database
B. Any riding position that is assigned a spare radio shall have the word “SPARE” listed beside that riding position on the EBF-4
C. Any time a unit is displayed on a report in blue, that unit can be clicked on to obtain more details
D. Members awaiting relief should be included on the Preliminary EBF-4, and the EBF-4 updated after each detail arrives.

A

NOTE: Any riding position that is assigned a spare radio shall have the spare radio
number listed beside that riding position on the E-BF4. Officers shall insure that each
member has the correct radio and the spare radio information on the E-BF4 is accurate.

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2
Q
  1. First alarm units arrive at the scene of a fire in a 6-story fireproof multiple dwelling and find fire on the 4th floor with a female trapped in the rear of the building requiring a Life Saving Rope Rescue. In this situation, it would be correct to state that the Life Saving Rope rescue should be performed preferably from? (FFP—MDs Pg 77-81)

A. The roof, and only the 1st Roof FF would normally bring a LSR
B. The roof, and both the 1st Roof and 2nd Roof FF’s would normally bring a LSR
C. The 5th floor, and only the 1st Roof FF would normally bring a LSR
D. The 5th floor, and both the 1st Roof and 2nd Roof FF’s would normally bring a LSR

A
  1. B

7.11 LIFE SAVING ROPE RESCUE REQUIRED
The following shall be considered in priority order when the 1st arriving Ladder
Company initiates a LSR rescue operation:
1. Operate from the roof, if practical. The 1st Roof Firefighter must make a
determination whether the LSR rescue can be performed from the roof level.
Consider the availability of tie-off points and their location in relation to the
window location. Prior knowledge of building plus CIDS information should be
utilized in making this determination.
Note: Operating from the roof allows for the LSR rescue operation to be
initiated in conjunction with early ventilation of the roof bulkhead, if
ordered by the IC. It is possible that roof bulkhead ventilation may assist
units in fire floor operations and the recovery of the victim from the
interior.

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3
Q
  1. First alarm units arrive at the scene of a fire reported on the 85th floor of a Hi-Rise Office Building. There are two siameses on the building, one on the exposure two side, and one on the exposure 4 side. In this situation, they would be most correct to think? Eng 9 Add 1 Pg 3-4)

A. The first two high-pressure pumpers (or 3rd stage engines), regardless of how they are assigned to arrive, must position their apparatus on hydrants in proximity to the building siameses
B. A 3rd stage pumper is preferred for a fire on the 85th floor
C. No more than three lengths of supply line should be stretched to supply the siamese
D. After using the preset to charge the supply line, the ECC should slowly increase pressure to reach the required pressure

A

3.B

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4
Q
  1. The Officer of Engine 99 is ordered by the IC at a multiple alarm fire to conduct an emergency roll call utilizing the EFAS system. In this situation, the Officer would be correct to think that an unaccounted for position will be represented by what color? (Comm Ch 9, Add 3, Pg 10)

A. White B. Yellow C. Red D. Grey

A
  1. B
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5
Q
  1. You are an Engine Company officer who has arrived first due at a serious brush fire on a windy day. You would be most correct to consider which tactic below?
    (AUC 151 5.4.2, 5.4.4, 5.4.13, 5.4.16, 5.4.17)

A. For the initial attack, hooking up to a hydrant is a prime consideration
B. Wetting unburned areas ahead of the fire is generally ineffective
C. Any fire on a hillside will burn rapidly up the hill and must be attacked from the bottom of the hill working upward.
D. Streams should be directed at the burning flames above the brush

A
  1. C
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6
Q
  1. Engine 100 responds on a Class 3 alarm in a hospital where they find the alarm was transmitted due to cigarette smoking in the emergency room of the hospital, an unauthorized location. In this situation, the officer would be correct to transmit a 10-35?
    (Comm 8 10-35 signal)

A. No Code, and a NYFIRS report will be auto-closed
B. No Code, and a NYFIRS report must be completed setting forth the cause
C. Code 4, and a NYFIRS report will be auto-closed
D. Code 4, and a NYFIRS report must be completed setting forth the cause

A
  1. D

10-35 Unwarranted or Unnecessary Alarm System Activation
Any alarm system activation that is unwarranted or unnecessary, excluding a
sprinkler system alarm (use 10-34 Code 1, 2 or 3) or an alarm system activation
resulting from a utility power fluctuation (use 10-40 Code 2).
No Code – Unwarranted alarm.
Alarm system activation caused by the defective condition of alarm device,
equipment or system. (e.g., low battery condition, alarm activations without a
known cause or when no condition is found warranting an emergency response).
Codes 1-4 - Unnecessary alarm.
Alarm device, equipment or system operating properly but unnecessarily
activated by lack of due care. DO NOT use this code when there is a fire or other
condition warranting an emergency response.
Code 1: Unnecessary alarm caused by alarm system testing or servicing.
Code 2: Unnecessary alarm caused by construction activities.
Code 3: Unnecessary alarm caused by ordinary household activities
(toast, steam, aerosol spray).
Code 4: Unnecessary alarm caused by other known cause.
(e.g., alarms resulting from cigarette smoking in unauthorized
areas). When this code is used, a NYFIRS report must be
completed setting forth the cause of the unnecessary alarm and
the relevant particulars.
Select appropriate code based on best information available, whether observed by
or reported to responding unit.

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7
Q
  1. A Company Officer should know which one of the following to be a correct Flagging Column entry? (Journal Guide)

A. MK B. EI C. PP D. ML

A
  1. B
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8
Q
  1. EEO personnel arrive at 1300 hours in the quarters of Engine 99 and Ladder 100 to conduct an unannounced EEO compliance inspection. In this situation, it would be most correct to state that? (Regs 20.3.10)

A. The housewatch member should not make any type of notification or any announcement at all, unless specifically directed to do so by EEO personnel
B. The compliance inspection will be conducted while the unit remains in service, but will terminate if any unit receives an alarm
C. The EEO investigators, officers and staff will present their FDNY ID and must sign their name, in their own handwriting, in red ink, in the company journal
D. When the inspection is complete, the EEO investigator will provide the officer with a signed copy of the EEO inspection sheet

A
  1. D

In compliance with the Department’s EEO Policy, EEO personnel may conduct
unscheduled and unannounced EEO compliance inspections on any Fire
Department premise. No area is off limits.
The EEO staff will enter quarters and announce their visit to the member
performing housewatch duty. This member will notify the officer on-duty that
his/her presence is required at the housewatch area. No other notification or
any other announcement shall be made regarding the presence of EEO.
The EEO investigators, officers and staff will present FDNY ID and sign the
company journal. The EEO staff will conduct the EEO compliance inspection
while the Unit remains in-service. Members may be directed by EEO
investigators to gather in a common area while the investigation is in progress
e.g., kitchen. The FDNY officer will cooperate with the EEO investigators and
the inspection process. Members shall not interfere with or hinder the EEO
inspection. If the Unit in a single unit house or both Units in a double house
receive an alarm during the EEO visit, then the EEO staff will terminate the
inspection and leave the premises. The EEO staff can/may/will resume the
EEO inspection when the Unit returns or at another time. When the EEO
inspection is complete, the EEO investigator will provide the officer with a
signed copy of the EEO inspection sheet.
Note: EEO personnel, after presentation of official identification, in lieu of
signing-in

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9
Q
  1. Engine 99 responds to a CFR-D call at a subway station and the Officer decides to have the ECC and herself use Channel 14 as an ARCS channel. While operating at the incident they experience repeater failure. Regarding this problem, they should notify the? (AUC 207 Add 16 Pg 3)

A. Borough Communications Office via Department radio
B. Public Transportation Safety Unit on return to quarters
C. MTA personnel on scene
D. Administrative Battalion Chief on duty on return to quarters

A
  1. A
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10
Q
  1. At 0450 hours on Monday morning, a company officer is notified by a member that he was just arrested for DWI. In this situation, the Officer should notify? (AUC 268 3)

A. The IG by phone during business hours
B. The IG immediately, by calling FDOC and requesting the IG’s on call supervisor
C. BITS during business hours
D. BITS immediately by calling FDOC

A
  1. D

BITS Must Be Notified Immediately
AUC 268

“ABCD”

Arrest/ alcohol
Brawl between members
Confrontation with Cops/civilians
Drugs, Dangerous Driving

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11
Q
  1. The designated EFAS member of a FAST Unit is monitoring the EFAS system and the Battalion FAST Radio when an Emergency Alert Button is activated by a member. Because EFAS is malfunctioning, the “EFAS” member notes on the LCD screen of the FAST Radio “EM 1001002”. In this situation, the EFAS FF should realize the EAB was activated by which member? (Comm 11 Add 2 Pg 6)

A. Squad One ECC C. Rescue One Chauffeur
B. Battalion One Aide D. Division One Aide

A
  1. C
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12
Q
  1. An officer conducting drill regarding the pulling of covers off of electrical manholes by FDNY members was correct when she stated that? (AUC 180 Pg 3, TB Gas –Pg 15)

A. They should not be pulled at manhole fires, or if a manhole fire is in the area; but may be pulled at outdoor gas emergencies, and only pulled if they are round or square covers
B. They should not be pulled at manhole fires, or if a manhole fire is in the area; but may be pulled at outdoor gas emergencies, and only pulled if they are round or rectangular covers
C. They should not be pulled at manhole fires, or if a manhole fire is in the area; but may be pulled at outdoor gas emergencies, and only pulled if they are round covers
D. They may be pulled at manhole fires, or if a manhole fire is in the area; and may also be pulled at outdoor gas emergencies. In all cases, they should only be pulled if they are round covers

A
  1. C
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13
Q
  1. An Engine Officer on a day tour was correct when he transmitted which one of the following radio signals? (Comm 8)

A. 10-25 Code 1—for a transformer fire in the street that has extended to another manhole
B. 10-27—for a fire in three garbage bags on the floor in the compactor room
C. 10-31—for an elevator emergency where 3 civilians were removed from an elevator that was stuck in between floors
D. 10-34 Code 2—for a defective sprinkler system with a broken pipe

A
  1. C
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14
Q
  1. Which one of the following actions is reserved for the Engine Officer alone to decide when supervising the operations of a hose line? (Eng Ops 5.1.25, 5.1.26)

A. Rate of advancement
B. Initial stream direction
C. Opening the nozzle in an emergency
D. Partial shut down to regain control of the nozzle

A
  1. B
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15
Q
  1. First alarm units arrive at a serious emergency inside of a building where a high pressure steam riser has ruptured. In this situation, they would be correct to think that because of the emergency situation, they may shut the? (Steam System Emg Pg 6)

A. Inside service valve or the outside steam shutoff for the building
B. Inside service valve, only
C. Outside steam shutoff for the building, only
D. Inside service valve and the outside steam shutoff for the building

A
  1. B
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16
Q
  1. Which two units below must start each tour with at least two (2) school trained chauffeurs? (AUC 348 3.1, 3.2)

A. Satellites and Decon Engines
B. The Planning Vehicle and Collapse Rescue Units
C. Satellites and Foam Units
D. Decon Units and Airport Hose Wagons

A
  1. B

Start the Tour with 2 SCHOOL trained Chauffers

“School chauffers Plan Driving”

Sattelite
collapse
planning
decon

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17
Q
  1. You are a Company Officer that has been ordered to use the High Rise Nozzle at a Wind Impacted Fire. In this situation, you would be most correct to think that? (Tools 7, DS 17 4.3, 5.14)

A. The nozzle flows 200-225 gpm at 40 psi nozzle pressure
B. You should order 80 psi at the outlet gauge with water flowing if using a 3 length stretch of 2 1/2” supply hose
C. You should insert a shutoff one length back from the nozzle that shall be shut when repositioning the nozzle

A
  1. C

4.3 Supplied by a 2 1/2” hoseline, the high rise nozzle will produce flows of 200-225 gpm at
50 psi nozzle pressure with water flowing. Units must use the standpipe pressure gauge
and consider the number of lengths in the supply line. As a general rule when supplying
the high rise nozzle with 3 lengths of 2 1/2” hose, the pressure at the outlet gauge should
be 70 psi with water flowing and 80 psi when using 4 lengths.

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18
Q
  1. After repositioning the high rise nozzle to a new window downwind, you should immediately order the nozzle operated and notify the IC that the attack has been resumed 18. An Engine Officer is ordered to operate a cockloft nozzle at a 3-alarm fire in an H-type building. In this situation, the officer would be most correct to think? (Tools 7, DS 18 1.3, 1.4, 3.4)

A. The discharge rate of the nozzle is about 150 gpm
B. The cockloft nozzle should be supplied by a 2 ½” handline with the same pressure normally supplied to such a line.
C. A hole approximately 2’ x 2’ is needed in the ceiling in order for the cockloft nozzle to fit
D. The clearing between the top of the ceiling joists and the bottom of the roof joists must be a minimum of 4 inches to enable the operation of the cockloft nozzle

A
  1. D

1.3 The discharge rate of the cockloft nozzle is approximately 125 gpm. (Figure 1)
1.4 The cockloft nozzle is to be supplied by a 1 ¾” handline. The cockloft nozzle operates
with the same pressure normally supplied to a 1 ¾” handline.

3.4 A hole approximately 3’ x 3’ is needed in the ceiling in order for the cockloft nozzle to fit.
The clearing between the top of the ceiling joists and the bottom of the roof joists must
be a minimum of 4” to enable the operation of the cockloft nozzle

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19
Q
  1. A first alarm is transmitted for a vehicle explosion on the Brooklyn Bridge. On arrival, the first arriving engine officer finds extensive damage to parts of the bridge, a van fully involved in fire, and numerous incapacitated victims on the roadway of the bridge. In this situation, the officer would be correct to utilize the? (AUC 344—Pg 2)

A. Red Field Guide to determine how much weight to remove from the bridge
B. Green Field Guide to transmit an incident assessment report while simultaneously evacuating the non-ambulatory victims
C. Green Field Guide to identify affected structural members and use the sizeup section of the guide to transmit an incident assessment report
D. Red Field Guide to determine the magnitude and location of damage to bridge components and then transmit an incident assessment report

A
  1. C
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20
Q
  1. After the initial familiarization drill at a public school, subsequent familiarization drills shall be conducted at public schools K-12 within every? (Regs 12.1.12)

A. One year from the most recent familiarization drill or annual inspection, and should not be conducted during BISP
B. Two years from the most recent familiarization drill or annual inspection, and should not be conducted during BISP
C. One year from the most recent familiarization drill or annual inspection, and may be conducted during BISP
D. Two years from the most recent familiarization drill or annual inspection, and may be conducted during BISP

A
  1. B
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21
Q
  1. You are the second engine company to arrive at a fire in the cellar of a 1-story taxpayer, and find that the building has an automatic sprinkler system. The first engine has stretched 4 lengths of 2 ½” hose, and has just charged its line. After consulting with the first engine officer, who states he needs no assistance, you would be most correct to next? (FFP Taxpaters 7.2.3B)

A. Stretch a line to backup the first engine
B. Stretch a line to the most severe exposure
C. Supply the sprinkler system
D. Stay with the first engine on the hoseline, as they must be assisted

A
  1. C
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22
Q
  1. You are a Lieutenant ordered by a Battalion Chief to prepare an immediate CIDS entry after a fire at a Private Dwelling. The Private Dwelling is of brick and joist construction, and is being renovated using Laminated Wooden I-Beams. You write the following draft of a CIDS message:

PD 2 STY 25X60 CL4LW-LW WOODEN I-BEAMS
ON ALL FLRS & ROOF-YEAR ALTERED 2014

In this situation, you would know that your CIDS draft is? (Comm 4 4.3.3 and Pg 8)

A. Correct and should be forwarded electronically to the Battalion
B. Correct and should be faxed to the Battalion
C. Incorrect, and when corrected, should be forwarded electronically to the Battalion
D. Incorrect, and when corrected should be faxed to the Battalion

A
  1. D

4.3.3 Immediate Entry (Imminently Hazardous Condition)
Immediate entry of an imminently hazardous condition can be accomplished by
the Borough Commander or Command Chief on duty. The administrative unit
shall complete a CIDS entry using the “Blank CD-201” form link located within
the eCIDS application. This completed paper form shall be faxed via the chain of
command with all endorsements to the Borough Commander or Command Chief.
Once approved, the Borough Commander or Command Chief will fax the form to
the Fire Department Operations Center (FDOC) for immediate entry into both
Starfire and the eCIDS application. No action is necessary by the unit officer
within the eCIDS application for an “immediate CIDS”. The immediate CIDS
message entered into eCIDS by FDOC will appear on the administrative units
pending list awaiting the next scheduled permanent export into Starfire.

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23
Q
  1. An ECC operating at a fire supplying two handlines should know that an indication of a burst length would be when an engine officer reports there is little or no water and the ECC notes? (Eng Ops Ch 12 3.2)

A. A decreased pressure reading, an adequate flow on the outlet flowmeter, and the pumps RPM’s increase automatically
B. An adequate pressure reading, an increased flow on the outlet flowmeter, and the pumps RPM’s decrease automatically
C. An adequate pressure reading, an increased flow on the outlet flowmeter, and the pumps RPM’s increase automatically
D. An increase in the pressure reading, an increased flow on the outlet flowmeter, and the pumps RPM’s remain the same

A
  1. C
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24
Q
  1. Engine 99, operating during Phase B of Winter Operations, took the following actions. In which one were they correct? (AUC 200 3.3.3D Pg 17—C, D4, E5)

A. Insured they had a total of 6 lengths of 2 ½” hose (rolled or folded) on the apparatus
B. When finding an EMS crew stranded in the snow, special called an activated BFU for use of their winch to free the ambulance
C. Hooked a 2 ½” hand line up directly to a hydrant using a one way gate, in order to get fast water on a 1st floor fire
D. When responding to a fire on the top floor of a 3 story MD on a narrow side street, gave preference to the Ladder Company entering the block first

A
  1. B

D. The following equipment shall be assembled in readiness and placed on
company apparatus when snow or ice emergency is imminent or Phase A
or B established.
1. At least 6 extra lengths of 2 ½” hose, rolled or folded, on each
Engine and Ladder apparatus.
2. 2 shovels.
3. Containers of salt and/or sand.
4. Vehicle recovery strap with shackle
5. Tire chains, spare links and link tool.
6. Specialized hydrant connection set-up as determined by individual
commanding officers.

  1. Where building involved is higher than 3 stories, preference shall
    be given to ladder company apparatus entering block first with the
    engine company personnel hand stretching from the nearest
    hydrant, if necessary. Where building involved is 3 stories or less,
    preference shall be given to the engine company apparatus entering
    block first with ladder company personnel carrying portable
    ladders.
  2. In the interest of getting fast water on fire, a direct hook-up to
    hydrant is permissible initially. When this is done, a two way gate
    shall be connected to the hydrant.
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25
Q
  1. A Lieutenant conducting drill on fire dynamics was correct to state that modern content fires? (Ventilation 2.1.6, Figure 2, 4.1)

A. Burn at a slower rate than legacy fires
B. Rapidly consume the available oxygen within the fire area during the Incipient Stage
C. May have a more rapid and intense second growth stage if oxygen is admitted after their early decay
D. Will usually have a medium heat and smoke condition within the interior, when they are showing heavy flames out of a window

A
  1. C
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26
Q
  1. Ladder 4 arrives at a report of a rubbish fire on the tracks at a subway station. The officer decides that only two members are needed in the HT relay. In which action below did the unit operate correctly regarding HT relay procedures? (AUC 207 4.1)

A. Only the OV and Roof FF’s were used in the relay
B. The members not used in the HT relay all proceeded to the incident by the tracks
C. The Officer called the OV stating “Ladder 4 Relay to Ladder 4 OV Relay”
D. The first member in the relay went to the token clerk booth because it was within 50 yards of the stairs to the platform

A
  1. B
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27
Q
  1. An Officer conducting drill on ladder operations at fires in High Rise Office buildings was correct to state that? (FFP HR Office 8.3.1 E4, 8.5.1 B3, B6 8.6.1 I)

A. The first ladder company shall select a stairway that will provide the best attack on the fire, but it does not necessarily require a standpipe in that stairway
B. The second ladder company shall determine which stairway is the best stairway to be used for evacuation
C. The third Ladder Company shall advise the first ladder officer or Fire Sector Supervisor to withhold the attack if occupants cannot be removed from the attack stairway above the fire
D. The fourth ladder shall operate under the control of the Fire Sector Supervisor until the SAE Group is established

A
  1. C
28
Q
  1. Regarding CIRS (The Computerized Injury Reporting System), it would be most correct to state that the Medical Officer must be notified regarding all? (SB 7 2.1, 2.2)
  2. Injuries 2. Biological exposures 3. Non-biological exposures

A. 1, 2 B. 1, 3 C. 2, 3 D. 1, 2, 3

A
  1. A
29
Q
  1. You are the officer of an Engine Company that is assigned as the Lobby Control Unit on a 10-76 for a fire in a High Rise Office building. In this situation, you would be correct to know that? (ICS Ch 2 Add 4, 1.1, 3, 4.2, 5.1)

A. The Lobby Control Unit is a functional unit within the Logistics Section
B. If possible, maintain one elevator in readiness at both the Forward Triage Area and one in the lobby
C. The Officer will be the Lobby Control Unit Leader and be stationed at the Incident Command Post
D. In every elevator car there should be forcible entry tools, a spare cylinder, a Life Saving Rope and elevator keys

A
  1. A
30
Q
  1. A Ladder Company Officer responds to the following four incidents on a day tour. Which incident would he be most correct to recognize as a Single Command event with the FDNY as the IC? (AUC 276 4.1, 5.1)

A. The derailment of one car on a train in a subway station
B. A gas leak in a multiple dwelling
C. A male adult fell into a manhole with an open cover and was pulled out using a high point anchor
D. A carbon monoxide emergency in a multiple dwelling with 150 ppm

A
  1. C
31
Q
  1. Ladder company members arrive at the scene of a tree down on a vehicle where there are wires entangled in the tree and a severely injured person is in the car. In this situation, the Ladder Officer would be correct to attempt to? (AUC 301 3.4, 5.6)

A. Move the tree immediately (without any cutting) using the apparatus, because life-threatening first aid is required
B. Cut or move the tree immediately, because life-threatening first aid is required
C. Cut or move the tree only after the utility company certifies power has been removed and wires are disengaged
D. Cut the tree only after the utility company certifies power has been removed, even if the wires are not disengaged, because life is in imminent danger

A
  1. C
32
Q
  1. A Fire Officer informed or made aware of any incident or allegation of hazing must report the incident? (PAID 1-2013 3.2)

A. In writing, up the chain of command to the Fire Commissioner
B. In writing, up the chain of command to the Chief of Department
C. In writing, up the chain of command to the Chief of Operations
D. Immediately by telephone to BITS

A
  1. B
33
Q
  1. Regarding cast-iron columns found at Loft buildings, it would be most correct to state that? (FFP Loft, 5.1.10)

A. They are designed to withstand an eccentric load
B. Even when properly cast, they will not withstand a great deal of thermal stress
C. At 1000 degrees, they will lose 58% of their original strength
D. Strength lost in a cast-iron column is cumulative and never regained

A
  1. D

C. Cast-iron columns are not designed to withstand an eccentric load.

E. When properly cast, these structural members will withstand a great deal
of thermal stress. The statement that all cast-iron columns exposed to fire
will shatter when cooled by a hoseline is a myth. However, if an
improperly cast column is cooled by a hoseline it can contract
disproportionately leading to potential failure.

 At 1,100 degrees Fahrenheit, cast-iron loses 58% of its original strength.

34
Q
  1. A Lieutenant conducting drill on Under River Rail operations was correct when she stated that? (FFP Under-River 2.4, 2.7.1, 2.7.2)

A. The tunnel to tube transition area is the location where the round underground tunnel section connects to the square under river tube
B. All under-river standpipes in the NYCT are wet, with pumps to augment pressure
C. Emergency evacuation devices are located at both ends of each under-river tube at the base of each emergency exit
D. Standpipe outlets are located every 200 feet throughout the tube while standpipe section valves are located approximately 800 feet apart

A
  1. C
35
Q
  1. An Engine Company arrives at the scene of a CFR-D response where they find a victim in a vehicle who has apparently attempted a chemical suicide. In this situation, they would be most correct to? (AUC 353 4.1, 4.2)

A. Transmit a 10-80 Code 2
B. Stretch a charged line with a fog nozzle, primarily for decontamination
C. Ventilate the vehicle completely, only after making entry and removing the victim
D. Flush the victim with a small amount of water as part of an emergency decon

A
  1. B
36
Q
  1. At 0300 hours, a 4 FF Engine arrives on the scene of a 3rd floor fire in an OLT where they are the only unit on scene. Based on the officer’s sizeup of this early morning fire, he determines there is a suspected life hazard in the fire apartment. In this situation, the officer may choose what options? (MMID Ch 1 2.1.1)
  2. The Officer may enter the apartment alone to conduct a search by himself while the other engine members stretch a line to the apartment door
  3. The Officer may enter the apartment with the Control FF to conduct a search, while the other engine members advance a line just inside the apartment door
  4. The Officer may enter the apartment with the Nozzle FF to conduct a search, after the other engine members stretched a line just outside the closed apartment door.
  5. The Engine may take a defensive position until other units arrive

A. 1, 2 B. 2, 3 C. 3, 4 D. Only #4

A
  1. C
37
Q
  1. A Company Officer looking at a NFPA Diamond would know that the number “1” found in the “Yellow” section of the placard would indicate that the material involved? (ERP Haz Mat Pg 42)

A. Is unstable when heated
B. May experience a violent chemical change
C. Is an extreme danger
D. Will not burn above 200 degrees F

A
  1. A
38
Q
  1. A Company Officer arriving on the scene of a chemical attack underground in a subway system should know that a distinctive odor of garlic would most likely indicate? (ERP Add 2, Pg 1)

A. A nerve agent like Sarin was utilized
B. A blister agent like Sarin was utilized
C. A nerve agent like Lewisite was utilized
D. A blister agent like Lewisite was utilized

A
  1. D
39
Q
  1. You are a Company Officer that has just been involved in a major apparatus accident on a very busy road with fast moving traffic. You determine that both your apparatus and the involved civilian vehicle should be moved to a position of safety. In this situation, the correct procedure for you to follow would be to? (SB 56 6.5.2)

A. Mark all tires, including double wheeled tires
B. Mark the 4 corners of the tractor, if a tractor trailer is involved,
C. Mark the 4 corners of a large vehicle, if a large vehicle is involved
D. Renew vehicle markings until the arrival of the first Investigating Battalion

A
  1. C

6.5.2 If it becomes imperative to move apparatus or other vehicles, the following
procedures shall be adhered to:
A. The location of tires (if double wheeled, then the outside tire only) of all
involved vehicles shall be marked with “T” shaped marks indicating:
1. the outside edge of each tire, and
2. the center-line of the axle of each wheel (Fig. 1).
B. In addition, if a tractor trailer or other large vehicle is involved, the four
corners of the vehicle shall be marked (Fig. 2).
C. Marks shall be made with lumber crayon, chalk, or any other means at
hand. Marks shall be made to withstand traffic wear after vehicles are
removed, or shall be renewed as necessary, until the arrival of the Safety
Battalion or the Photo Unit, unless such renewal would present a hazard
to the members.

40
Q
  1. First alarm units arrive at the scene of heavy fire in the cellar of a detached, 2 ½ story, private dwelling. In this situation it would be incorrect for the first engine and ladder officer to think that? (PD Ch 2 2.6, 2.7.1, Ch 4 10.2, 10.3.2)

A. The quickest access to the cellar will most likely be through a secondary entrance
B. Either a Chief or Company Officer may consider ordering an exterior hoseline operated into a cellar window
C. If no hoseline is immediately available, the officer and one member of the first ladder inside team may advance down the interior stair to conduct a rapid primary search
D. When using a secondary entrance, the first ladder inside team should, if conditions permit, first conduct a rapid primary search of the first floor

A
  1. D
41
Q
  1. First alarm units arrive at the scene of heavy fire in the cellar of a detached, 2 ½ story, private dwelling. In this situation it would be incorrect for the first engine and ladder officer to think that? (PD Ch 2 2.6, 2.7.1, Ch 4 10.2, 10.3.2)

A. The quickest access to the cellar will most likely be through a secondary entrance
B. Either a Chief or Company Officer may consider ordering an exterior hoseline operated into a cellar window
C. If no hoseline is immediately available, the officer and one member of the first ladder inside team may advance down the interior stair to conduct a rapid primary search
D. When using a secondary entrance, the first ladder inside team should, if conditions permit, first conduct a rapid primary search of the first floor

A
  1. C
42
Q
  1. An Officer conducting drill on search operations at fires was correct to state that the determining factor as to whether the apartment door will be left open or closed while a primary search is being conducted is based on? (TB Search 9.10.1)

A. The stage of the fire—Incipient, Growth or Decay
B. Whether the engine company has a charged line and is ready to advance
C. Whether there is a known life hazard or just a suspected life hazard
D. The number of possible removals

A
  1. B
43
Q
  1. An Engine and Ladder arrive at the scene of a fire on the first floor of a 2-story, flat roof PD with lightweight construction. In this situation, it would be correct for them to think that? (PD Ch 6 4.1.4, 4.1.7, 4.1.12, 4.2.6, 4.3.8)

A. If the fire is in a lightweight building under construction, an exterior attack is the only tactical consideration
B. The presence of smoke pushing at the floor line on the outside of the building may be an indication of the use of parallel chord wood trusses
C. The roof may only be cut if there is a clear indication that fire has not entered the cockloft
D. Nozzle firefighters should use the duck walk method when advancing the hoseline

A
  1. B
44
Q
  1. First alarm units arrive at a heavy fire condition in the basement of a 4-story brownstone with a front stoop to the parlor floor. Fire conditions in the basement require a hoseline and a backup line. In this situation, it would be most correct for the first engine, based on these initial conditions, to stretch the first hoseline through the front door on the? (FFP Brownstones 3.2)

A. First floor (basement) to extinguish the fire, while the second hoseline is stretched as a backup line. If necessary, a third hoseline should be stretched to the parlor floor hallway to maintain the integrity of the interior stairs.
B. First floor (basement) to extinguish the fire, while the second hoseline is immediately stretched to the parlor floor hallway to maintain the integrity of the interior stairs. A third hoseline will backup the first hoseline
C. Second floor (parlor floor) to maintain the integrity of the interior stairs, while the second hoseline is stretched through the first floor (basement) door to extinguish the fire. A third hoseline will backup the first hoseline
D. Second floor (parlor floor), then down the interior stairs to extinguish the fire, while the second hoseline is stretched through the second floor (parlor floor) as a backup line

A
  1. A
45
Q
  1. An Engine Company arriving first at the scene of a USPS Bio-Detection system alarm and receiving confirmation of a BDS alarm affecting over 750 postal workers would be most correct to transmit a? (HM 14 Pg 2, Section 6)

A. 10-80 Code 2
B. 10-80 Code 3
C. 10-80 Code 4
D. 10-80 Code 4, and request 3 additional Mask Decon Task Forces

A
  1. B

now there is only 2 10-80 codes

46
Q
  1. A Company Officer supervising an engine company during overhauling operations after a fire in a multiple dwelling with a Photovoltaic electrical system, would be most correct to order, from a safe distance, which of the following as an extinguishing agent for use near an energized PV system component? (AUC 351 6.4)

A. A foam stream
B. A fog nozzle at a 30 degree spray pattern
C. A fog nozzle at a 60 degree spray pattern
D. A straight stream, provided power has been shut to the inverter

A
  1. B
47
Q
  1. You are an officer using an Ultraradiac Radiation Monitor at a possible radiological incident. In this situation, you should know that? (ERP Add 4D 5.1, 6.1, )

A. You can press the ALARM key to see your Stay Time
B. A blinking BETA indicator, signals a High Dose of radiation has been received
C. You will receive a High Rate Alarm at 50 mR/hr
D. You will receive a Low Dose Alarm at 2 R

A
  1. A
  2. FUNCTION KEYS
    5.1 The primary function of each of the function keys is briefly described below.
    • ON/OFF Press and hold to turn the unit on and off.
    • RATE Press to change to the Rate Mode.
    • DOSE Press to change to the Dose Mode.
    • ALARM Press to see the Stay Time. Stay Time is the number of minutes
    you can stay in an area without exceeding the High Dose
    threshold. The Stay Time will change as the dose rate in the area
    changes and the accumulated dose increases.
    • LIGHT Press to illuminate the display for about five seconds (the backlight
    may not be visible in daylight or normal room lighting).
    • CLR/TEST Press and hold to enable the Display Test Sequence while in the
    Rate Mode.

• If a b or a blinking BAT indicator appears in the display or if the display is blank then
the batteries need to be replaced

48
Q
  1. Ladder 99, an aerial ladder company, arrives first at a top floor fire in a 4-story “Brownstone” type of Row Frame, with a heavy smoke condition showing in exposure two and a light smoke condition showing in Exposure 4. There is one attached exposure on the two side, and three attached exposures on the four side. The second ladder, Ladder 100, arrives at the same time and is unable to position their apparatus. There is a victim showing at a window in the front of the building who is being rescued by the first and second LCC’s. In this situation, which action is most correct? (RF Pg 36, 39, 42, 43)

A. The 1st Roof and 1st OV FF’s took the scuttle in Exposure 4 to reach the roof
B. The second inside team operated in Exposure 4
C. The 1st OV FF took a saw and 6’ hook to the roof
D. The second Roof FF took a saw and a 6’ halligan hook, and made an examination hole in the returns of the exposures

A
  1. D
49
Q
  1. First alarm units arrive on the scene of a gas explosion in a 5-story OLT that has severely damaged the building, and there is heavy fire showing in the debris. Numerous people are also trapped and reported missing. In this situation, after transmitting a 10-60 Code 2, it would be most correct to state that? (FFP Collapse 7.1.1, 7.3.1, 7.5.2, 7.6.2)

A. The first ladder should physically search all accessible voids, lifting load bearing members only for known life hazards
B. The second arriving Ladder Company may shut the curb valve supplying gas to the building as well as the curb valve for water supply to the building
C. A 2 ½” line should be the first hoseline stretched, with its priority use being to protect the exposures
D. The first arriving engine must ensure that a 3 ½” supply line is stretched to the first tower ladder

A
  1. B
50
Q
  1. An officer discussing elevator operations at fires in Hi-Rise Fireproof Multiple Dwellings was correct in which statements that she made? (FFP MD Pg 41 & 42)
  2. The first to arrive ladder shall ensure that all elevators are recalled and searched, even if the elevators are not used
  3. Doors to elevator machinery rooms at the roof level should not be used for ventilation purposes until the fire is under control
  4. If the first OV FF is involved in an outside operation, and the fire is above the 7th floor, elevator cars will be operated by a member from the second truck and / or members designated by the IC

A. 1, 2 B. 1, 3 C. 2, 3 D. 1, 2, 3

A
  1. C
51
Q
  1. An officer conducting drill on Explosives, Incendiary and Active Shooter incidents was correct when she stated that? (ERP Add 3 6.1, 7.3.1, 7.4.1, 7.5.4)

A. Only trained members may attempt to handle or move any firearm or incendiary device
B. Handie Talkies shall not be used within 300 feet from any suspected explosive device
C. If a bomb has exploded, the IC shall give a “mixer-on” message, using plain language, to advise incoming units that a bomb has exploded
D. After an explosion, members must don their SCBA facepiece during all search activities to protect against possible respiratory dangers

A
  1. C

6.1 In the performance of duties, members of the Department may find firearms, ammunition,
and/or possible incendiary devices. FDNY members are not sufficiently trained to
accurately determine the risk. Therefore, members shall not attempt to handle or
move ANY firearm, ammunition or incendiary device. General actions to be taken
include:

 HT and cell phones shall not be used within 150 feet of a suspected device,
and Apparatus, Post and Marine radios should not be operated within 300 feet
of a suspected device. These distances are only guidelines and should not
normally hamper FDNY operations since the isolation zone surrounding
a device would generally exceed 300 feet.

7.4.1 Notifications
Using plain language on Department radio, notify the dispatcher and advise
incoming units that an explosion has occurred. It is imperative that this
information is transmitted to the dispatcher with the “mixer on” so all units are
aware of the situation. The following information shall be transmitted:

52
Q
  1. First alarm units arrive at a Hi-Rise MD fire on the 14th floor of a 26-story Hi Rise MD. The fire is wind impacted and the floor above the fire apartment, the fire apartment, and the floor below the fire apartment all have balconies in line with the fire window. In this situation, it would be most correct to state that? (FFP MD 6.7.2 D)

A. It may be possible to use a Window Curtain, Window blanket, or a High Rise Nozzle with limited success
B. It will not be possible to use a Window Curtain, Window blanket, or a High Rise Nozzle
C. It will not be possible to use a High Rise Nozzle, but it may be possible to use a Window Curtain or Window blanket with limited success
D. It will not be possible to use a Window Curtain or Window blanket, but may be possible to use a High Rise Nozzle with limited success

A
  1. D
53
Q
  1. The first engine and ladder arrive at the scene of a vehicle accident where a car has crashed into a utility pole in front of a multiple dwelling. There are two victims severely injured inside the vehicle with one energized power line on top of the hood that is whipping on the ground. In this situation, members would be correct to think that? (Emerg 3 Pg 7-8)

A. A weighted object should be placed on top of the whipping power line
B. The Multiple Dwelling electrical service entrance box should be checked with either the back of a hand or a thermal imaging camera
C. A handline with a fog nozzle may be utilized provided it is operated at least 25 feet away from any downed wire
D. The occupants should be immediately removed from the vehicle only if their injuries are life threatening

A
  1. C
54
Q
  1. Units arrive at the scene of a hazardous material incident where they find a DOT placard with the number “4”. In this situation, they should recognize that this placard indicates the possibility of? (HM 2 Pg 1)

A. Combustible Liquids C. Flammable Solids
B. Flammable Liquids D. Oxidizers

A
  1. C
55
Q
  1. An Engine Company is ordered to stretch a foam handline at an oil burner fire in a large MD. The stretch requires 8 lengths of hose to reach the fire area. In this situation it would be most correct to stretch? (TB Foam Evol 1)

A. 3 lengths of 2 ½” hose to the eductor, 5 lengths of 1 ¾” between the eductor and the foam nozzle, and supply the eductor with 200 psi
B. 4 lengths of 2 ½” hose to the eductor, 4 lengths of 1 ¾” between the eductor and the foam nozzle, and supply the eductor with 200 psi
C. 3 lengths of 2 ½” hose to the eductor, 5 lengths of 1 ¾” between the eductor and the foam nozzle, and supply the eductor with 180 psi
D. 4 lengths of 2 ½” hose to the eductor, 4 lengths of 1 ¾” between the eductor and the foam nozzle, and supply the eductor with 180 psi

A
  1. B
56
Q
  1. An LCC of an aerial ladder company arriving first at a fire in an occupied OLT building, on a narrow street with parked cars on both sides would be correct to think? (TB App L-7 3.3, 5.4.1, 5.4.5)

A. The inboard stabilizer on the working side must always be extended and lowered first, even when the ground is not level
B. If the ground is not level, always ensure the high side stabilizer is fully extended horizontally and lowered to its maximum
C. LCC’s may have to forego a better position for the use of the aerial ladder to a less desirable location in order to allow full horizontal extension of the inboard stabilizer
D. Where stabilizers are not fully extended horizontally, aerial ladder rotation of more than 30 degrees from the center line of the apparatus towards a short-jacked stabilizer will be prevented by the Rotation Limiting Device

A
  1. C

5.4 Emergency Override Rotation Limit Switch - The aerial ladder system is equipped
with a Rotation Limiting Device. This is a safety device that limits turntable rotation to
keep the apparatus from overturning during operations where the stabilizers are not fully
extended horizontally (Short-Jacked). Operating the aerial ladder on the Short-Jacked
side of the apparatus can cause the apparatus to overturn onto that same side.
5.4.1 This device will activate when either the apparatus stabilizers have not been fully
extended horizontally (Short-Jacked), or there is a mechanical malfunction. When
either of these situations occurs, this device will not allow ladder rotation of more
than 15 degrees from the center line of the apparatus towards the side which has the
Short-Jacked condition or is experiencing a mechanical malfunction

57
Q
  1. Aerial Ladder 99 arrives at a fire on the 4th floor of a 7-story FPMD, where they are unable to ladder the roof of the fire building and the building contains only one open interior stairway to the roof. Regarding roof ventilation in this situation, it would be correct to state that the? (FFP MD Pg 78)

A. First Ladder Officer will decide whether roof ventilation is required, and may order the Roof FF to the roof via the interior stair while any member of the 1st inside team maintains the fire apartment door closed.
B. First Ladder Officer will decide whether roof ventilation is required, and may order the Roof FF to the roof via the interior stair while the 1st Ladder officer maintains the fire apartment door closed.
C. IC will decide whether roof ventilation is required, and may order the Roof FF to the roof via the interior stair while any member of the 1st inside team maintains the fire apartment door closed.
D. IC will decide whether roof ventilation is required, and may order the Roof FF to the roof via the interior stair while the 1st Ladder officer maintains the fire apartment door closed.

A
  1. B
58
Q
  1. Units arrive at the scene of a wind-impacted fire on the 12th floor of a 30-story hi-rise FPMD where they find a one failed window, and a gusting wind causing the fire to pulsate in and out of the failed fire window. On the fire floor, the fire apartment door was left open causing severe conditions in the public hallway. In this situation, units should consider which tactic(s) below, after an alternate strategy has been implemented?
  2. The Ladder Officer and one member of the forcible entry team shall enter the public hallway to locate and gain control of the apartment door, while the other member of the interior team remains at the attack stairwell door on the hallway side
  3. The Engine Officer is responsible for control and coordination on the stairwell side of the attack stairwell door.
  4. After control of the apartment door is achieved, the Ladder Officer, after approval by either the Fire Sector Supervisor or the IC, will enter the fire apartment first, followed by the Engine Company to search the fire apartment and if possible, confine the fire area by closing a door.

A. 1, 2 B. 2, 3 C. 1, 3 D. 1, 2, 3

A
  1. A

Approval to enter the public hallway must be given by the IC, Operations Section
Chief or Fire Sector Supervisor.
 Only the Ladder Officer and one member of the forcible entry team shall enter the
public hallway to locate and gain control of the fire apartment door. The Ladder
Officer shall utilize the TIC to assist in locating the fire apartment.
 The other member of the interior team will remain at the attack stairwell door on
the hallway side of the door to ensure the stairwell door remains closed limiting
the flow path and to act as a beacon in case members need to evacuate the
hallway. The Engine officer shall be responsible for control and coordination on
the stairwell side of the door.
 Once the Ladder Officer gains control of the fire apartment door, have the Engine
Company advance the charged hoseline to the fire apartment door. The Ladder
company member who remained at the stairwell door shall also advance to the
fire apartment door.

59
Q
  1. Regarding the use of Spray-On Fire Retarding Material in construction, it would most correct to state that applications over primer paint on steel reduces adhesion effectiveness by? (Dunn Ch 10)

A. 1/8 to 1/4 B. 1/4 to 1/2 C. 1/3 to 1/2 D. 1/2 to 3/4

A
  1. C
60
Q
  1. An aerial ladder company is ordered by the IC to setup its ladder pipe on a street that has a severe crown. In this situation, the officer should insure that the LCC checks both Inclinometers and insures? (Lad 2 7.8)

A. Both of the bubbles are in the green zone. If in the red zone, the apparatus must be repositioned
B. At least one of the bubbles is in the green zone, otherwise the apparatus must be leveled or repositioned
C. At least one of the bubbles is in the green zone, otherwise the apparatus must be leveled
D. Both of the bubbles are in the green zone. If in the red zone, the apparatus must be leveled or repositioned

A
  1. D
61
Q
  1. An Engine company utilizing ILP at a fire must be aware that? (Evol 1A Pg 3-4)

A. ILP shall never be used during a Water Alert
B. The initial supply line must be 3” hose
C. A 2 ½” gate must be attached to the hydrant’s 2 ½” outlet
D. 30-40 psi is considered a low initial intake pressure that may not safely sustain 2 handlines

A
  1. B
    3) If time permits, connect a 2½” gate to the hydrants 2½” outlet. (See Figure 3)
  2. Hydrant shall be tested and flushed before the supply line is committed.
  3. Hydrant selected for ILP must be on a 6” or larger main. During Water Alert, ILP shall
    not be used unless absolutely necessary.
  4. Pumper shall use 3½” inch hose as the initial supply line from the hydrant to the pumper.
  5. Not more than 6 lengths of hose shall be used in the initial supply line.
  6. When intake pressure drops below 15 psi, the pump operator shall have his intake supply
    augmented. (See section 3.8)
  7. Necessary fittings to connect to a hydrant shall be preconnected to the 3½” supply hose
    on the pumper.
  8. In order to prevent injuries or damage to hose or equipment, the supply line shall not be
    preconnected to an inlet of the pumper.
  9. Consideration should be given to the pumper mounted deck pipe nozzle in ILP
    positioning when the need for exposure protection or quick knock down is evident.
62
Q
  1. First Alarm units arrive at the scene of a fire in a 4-story OLT building with 2 railroad flat apartments. There is fire on the top floor of the exposure 2 side apartment. In this situation, it would be incorrect to state that? (Lad 3 Pg 12, 13, 15, 18, 21, 28)

A. The first OV took a saw and halligan tool to the roof, then descended the rear fire escape to provide coordinated ventilation
B. The first Roof FF took a halligan tool, a 6’ halligan hook and the Life Saving Rope to the roof
C. The first Roof FF vented the skylight before venting the scuttle due to heavy smoke conditions, upon hearing radio transmissions that the line was charged and ready to advance
D. The 2nd Roof FF brought a saw and 6’ halligan hook to the roof, while the 2nd OV used the rear fire escape from below to vent the fire apartment from the fire escape

A
  1. C
63
Q
  1. A company officer conducting drill on CFR-D operational guidelines was incorrect when she stated that? (Ch 2 1.8, 3.10.1, 4.8, 4.17)

A. The responsibility of safeguarding a premise may be delegated to EMS personnel
B. A company that reduces to one CFR-D FF and one CFR-D Officer during a tour will be still be in service for CFR-D responses
C. A PCR is not required just because a CFR-D unit is on-scene (10-84)
D. Under no circumstances shall a fire apparatus be used to transport a patient

A
  1. A

1.8 In order to be in service as a CFR-D Unit, there shall be a minimum of two (2) trained
members (Firefighters or Officer) with current CFR-D Certification.
NOTE: While CFR-D Units must begin each tour with two (2) certified Firefighters, in the
event that during a tour the minimum CFR-D staffing reduces to 1 Firefighter and 1
Officer, the Company shall remain available for CFR-D response

3.10.1 A PCR is not required when a CFR-D Company is on-scene (10-84) at any
CFR-D assignment unless patient care is provided.

4.8 If, after a search, the patient is located but the Company cannot gain access to the patient,
the CFR-D Unit shall use any and all resources necessary to gain access and render aid.
If forced entry is the only option, the Officer in Charge should request police response for
security /safety and have the fire dispatcher advise the responding EMS Units of the
situation. If others within the premises deny access to the patient, the Officer in Charge
shall immediately request Police Department assistance. The Police Department will
then determine the appropriate action to be taken

4.17 As advised by the New York State Department of Health, under no circumstances shall
fire apparatus or vehicles other than NYS-certified ambulances be used to transport
patients

64
Q
  1. An Engine Company Officer operating at a CFR-D incident with an EMS ambulance crew should know that? (CFR-D Ch 2 8.3)

A. The ranking fire officer is the IC and responsible for all decisions at the scene
B. The ranking fire officer is the IC and responsible for all decisions at the scene except patient care matters
C. The ranking EMS officer is the IC and responsible for all decisions at the scene
D. The ranking EMS officer is the IC and responsible for all decisions concerning patient care matters

A
  1. B
65
Q
  1. A Ladder Company arriving first at a heavy fire condition in a church would be most correct to think that? (Dunn Ch 8)

A. Primary venting should be the Rose Window at the front of the church and the entire window should be vented
B. Primary venting should be the side Stained Glass windows near the main body of fire and entire windows should be vented
C. Primary venting should be the Rose Window at the front of the church and only the top half of the window should be vented, if possible
D. Primary venting should be the side Stained Glass windows near the main body of fire and the top half of the windows should be vented, if possible

A
  1. A