WEEK #8 WEEK OF 03/11/13 PART I – FFP – COLLAPSE OPERATIONS PART II – DUNN CHAP. #18 & 19 PART III - AUC’s #310, 317, 323 & 325 PART IV - TB – FOAM EVOLUTIONS PART IV - SAFETY BULLETINS #56 - 71 INSTRUCTOR: CAPT KEN RUGGIERO Flashcards by James Sicilian

Which choice below is an incorrect indicator/cause of a collapse? 1.4
A. Fire destruction of wood, heating of cast iron, or unprotected steel.
B. Cracking or groaning noises indicating a strain on structural members.
C. Clean wood at the beam ends indicating a recently constructed structure.
D. Faulty construction, improper alterations, or nearby excavations.

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

While at MUD Lt. Klompus made the following statements about collapse operations and
was only correct in which one statement? 2.3, 4.3, 4.4.1,
A. It is the mission of the Dept. of Buildings and the Dept. of Labors OSHA Compliance Unit
to determine the cause of the incident and whether any OSHA regulations have been violated.
B. At least one tower ladder shall be special called to every collapse if none was assigned on
the initial alarm.
C. Conducting searches at the scene of a collapse is the single most important consideration
during the operation.
D. At all explosions and major collapses, first arriving units shall ensure the immediate area is
monitored for the presence of radiological and chemical agents.

Note: At least one tower ladder shall be special called to every major collapse if none
was assigned on the initial alarm.

4.4.1 Safety at the scene of a collapse is the single most important consideration during
the operation.

Note: At all explosions and major collapses, SOC Units shall ensure the
immediate area is monitored for the presence of radiological/chemical agents.

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

The first arriving engine company at a collapse should take a hydrant outside of the block
and prepare to supply handlines and a large caliber tower ladder stream. It is never necessary for
the first due engine to enter the block at a collapse operation. Do you: 5.3.1, 7.2.1
A. Agree or D. Disagree

5.3.1 If possible, both first and second arriving engines should take separate hydrants
outside the block, each on separate mains, and prepare to supply handlines and a
large caliber tower ladder stream. The third and fourth engines should take
similar positions at the rear of the structure.

7.2 First Arriving Engine Company: Water Supply
7.2.1 Officer
 Supervise water supply activities / apparatus placement
Note: At times it may be necessary for the first arriving Engine to take a position
within the block for use of the apparatus master stream for fire control or
exposure protection. The Officer must ensure a continuous source of water
supply for such purposes.

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which point made about the positioning of different units at the scene of a collapse
operation is correct? 5.3.1, 5.3.2, 5.4.1, 5.4.2
A. The 3rd and 4th Engine companies should take separate hydrants, on separate mains, and
position at the rear of the collapsed structure.
B. Initially the 1st arriving tower ladder should be the only unit in front of the collapse
building. Subsequent arriving tower ladders should be positioned at a staging area to avoid
clogging the street.
C. Two of the second alarm engine companies should be used to seal off the ends of the street.
The ECC’s of such units must only be assigned tasks that keep them in the vicinity of their
apparatus in case they are needed to move the apparatus.
D. At an incident involving a tall or long building, consider placing several tower ladders
around the collapse. Aerial ladders should always be placed away from the building in a
secondary staging area.

5.3.2 Two of the second alarm engine companies should be used to seal off the ends of
the street. The chauffeurs of these units must remain in the cab, able to move the
apparatus if directed by the IC. Remaining engine companies should be
positioned well away from the scene, for they will probably be responding for
personnel needs only.

5.4.1 Tower ladders should be placed in front of the collapsed structure, outside of the
collapse danger zone. Initially, the first arriving tower ladder should be the only
unit in front of the collapse building, unless there is a specific need for additional
units. Subsequent arriving tower ladders should be positioned to reach and
protect a different exposure. Additional units should be directed to a designated
staging area, unless required elsewhere

5.4.2 Tower ladders are limited in size to 95 feet. At incidents involving tall/long
buildings, consider placing several units around the collapse, or using aerial
ladders (100’ reach) if needed.

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

The Incident Commander is the senior ranking fire officer on the scene. The 1st arriving
Battalion Chief must evaluate the overall incident and determine incident priorities, and if
necessary adjust operations of any and all personnel operating at the scene to reflect these
priorities. Which action taken by the 1st arriving Battalion Chief at a collapse is incorrect?
6.2, 6.1, 6.9
A. Establish a staging area and assign a company officer to be the Staging Area Manager until
replaced by a Battalion Chief.
B. Ensure the ICP is located set back from the immediate vicinity of the incident site but
outside of the collapse zone.
C. Transmit a preliminary report regarding the location of the ICP and the Staging Area. The
dispatcher can assist in identifying a staging area.
D. Designate a debris examination area, which should be a paved area near the site and
examined to ensure it does not contain any people, remains, or potential evidence before any
debris is moved there.

6.1 Take command at the scene
Announce arrival and evaluate the ICP established by the initial IC. Ensure the ICP is
located at or in the immediate vicinity of the incident site, in an area outside of the
operations site and collapse zone. Keep in mind there are likely to be multiple
responding agencies whose ranking representatives need to be accommodated at the ICP.
The ICP must be clearly visible from the collapsed structure and accessible to incoming
units. On arrival of the Division, consider use of the Division tent. Establishment of a
Command Channel (Channel 2) is essential for effective communications at large incidents.

6.2 Staging Area
The initial IC establishes a staging area. Reevaluate the location and assign a company
officer to be the Staging Area Manager until replaced by a Battalion Chief. Transmit a
preliminary report regarding the location of the ICP and the staging area. The Dispatcher
can assist in identifying a staging area

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Please place the following Engine Company responsibilities (Engines on the 1st alarm) in
the correct priority order from highest to lowest priority. 7.1
Protect Exposures.
Extinguish burning vehicles with in the vicinity of the collapse.
Extinguish active fire in the affected building.
Extinguish active fire in surrounding debris.
A. 1, 3, 4, 2
B. 4, 1, 3, 2
C. 3 and 4, 1, 2
D. 3, 1, 2 and 4
E. 3, 2, 1, 4

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which Engine Company arriving on the first alarm at a collapse should ensure a 3 ½”
supply line is stretched to the first Tower Ladder? 7.3.1
A. 1st
B. 2nd
C. 3rd
D. 4th

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which Engine Companies arriving on the first alarm at a collapse may perform CFR-D
duties? (More than 1 correct). 7.3, 7.4
A. 1st
B. 2nd
C. 3rd
D. 4th

B, C, D

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which Engine Companies arriving on the first alarm at a collapse may assist in the removal
of lightly buried victims? (More than 1 correct). 7.4
A. 1st
B. 2nd
C. 3rd
D. 4th

C, D

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which action taken by L-99, the 1st arriving truck at a collapse, was incorrect? 7.5
A. The officer of L-99 split the company into separate teams to cover more area.
B. As conditions permitted L-99 began searching areas where voids were found for possible
survivors.
C. Members of L-99 physically searched accessible voids however they did not cut, lift, or
remove load bearing members.
D. Lightly buried victims were removed and delivered to a casualty collection point and
survivors were questioned regarding the number, location, and identity of other occupants.

o Visually search accessible voids - DO NOT cut, lift or remove load
bearing members. Call and listen.

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which Battalion Chief may be designated as the Fire Branch Director or Fire Sector/Group
Supervisor? The Battalion Chief designated as the Resource Unit Leader will remain at this
position until relieved by? After the RUL is relieved he can be expected to be possibly assigned
as the? 8.65, 8.7.2
A. 1st arriving BC/2nd arriving DC/Planning Section Chief
B. 2nd arriving BC/Operations Section Chief/Safety Officer
C. 2nd arriving BC/Field Comm Unit/Situation Unit Leader
D. 1st arriving BC/Communications Unit Leader/Attack Chief

8.6.5 Fire Branch, Fire Sector or Fire Control Group
 The second arriving BC may be designated as the Fire Branch Director or
Fire Sector/Group Supervisor.

8.7.2 The BC designated as the Resource Unit Leader by the respective Borough
Dispatcher, shall report to the Planning Chief and begin tracking resources, both
assigned and operating, from all agencies involved. He/she shall remain at this
position until relieved by the Officer of the Field Communications Unit, who shall
assume that role upon his/her arrival. At this time, the BC shall report to the
Planning Section Chief for reassignment to either a Situation Unit Leader, or a
position necessary to support the Operation.

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which of the following Branches/Sectors/Groups is part of the Operations Section? (More
than one correct). 8.2, 8.6
A. Fire Branch/Sector/Group.
B. Search and Rescue Branch/Sector/Group
C. Medical Group
D. Law Enforcement Group
E. Staging
F. Safety Officer
G. FAST Group
H. Public Information Officer

12-A, B, C, D, E, G,

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

A group of Captains studying for the upcoming Battalion Chiefs exam made the following
points concerning operations at collapse incidents during a study group and were correct in
which point? 8.1, 8.3, 8.6.3, 8.8.2
A. If collapse conditions are present the signal 10-60 must be transmitted and the collapse
rescue plan implemented.
B. The 1st arriving Deputy Chief becomes the IC upon his/her arrival and the 1st arriving
Battalion Chief can then be reassigned as the Operations Section Chief.
C. The dispatcher will assign a Battalion Chief as the Staging Area Manager who will relieve
the Company Officer who was designated the Staging Area Manager prior to the arrival of the
Battalion Chief.
D. The dispatcher will assign a Battalion Chief as the Street Coordination Manager who will
establish contact with PD and EMS officers for traffic flow and coordinate apparatus staging
areas.

8.1 If collapse conditions are present requiring an extensive rescue or search; the signal
10-60 must be transmitted and the Collapse Rescue Plan implemented.

8.3 The first arriving Deputy Chief becomes the Incident Commander and the first arriving
Battalion Chief can be reassigned as the Planning Section Chief. Upon arrival at the
scene, the Command Chief will assume the role as IC. The first arriving DC may then be
designated as the Operations Section Chief or the Search and Rescue Branch Director,
depending on conditions and other previous assignments

8.6.3 Staging
 The Dispatcher will assign a BC as the Staging Area Manager

8.8.2 Street Coordination Manager
 A company officer will be assigned as the Street Coordination Manager, with
the following responsibilities:
o The early assignment of a street management coordinator will prevent
needless congestion and repositioning of apparatus as an incident escalates.
o Establish contact with PD and EMS Officers for traffic flow.
o Ensure access/egress of essential vehicles.
o Position apparatus for most efficient use.
o Coordinate apparatus staging areas.
o Coordinate CCP with an EMS Officer.

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

While operating at a collapse of a building under construction the Lieutenant of the 1st
arriving truck is trying to obtain information about previous conditions pertaining to the building
involved. Which two people listed below should the truck officer seek out to answer his
questions? 9.1.6
A. Building Engineer
B. Construction Manager
C. Building Owner
D. Site Safety Manager

B, D

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

The FDNY has adopted the standard emergency signaling system used by all FEMA Urban
Search and Rescue Task Forces. These signals may be sounded on a hand held aerosol can or an
apparatus air horn. Which signal(s) listed below is correct? 9.2.2
One long and one short blast = Evacuate the Area
Three short blasts = Resume operations
One long blast = Cease operations/All Quiet
A. All
B. None
C. Only #1
D. Only #2
E. Only #3

 The following is the standard emergency signaling system used by all FEMA
USAR Task Forces, and adopted by this Department. It may be sounded on a
handheld aerosol can air horn, or on apparatus air horns. Each Safety Officer
and member monitoring a transit, as well as members positioned as lookouts
for hazard monitoring, will be issued an air horn.
1 Long Blast (3 seconds) Cease Operations/All Quiet
3 short blasts (1 second each) Evacuate the area
1 long and 1 short blast Resume Operations
 Those operating power tools may not hear the announcement over the HT.
Apparatus air horns may be beneficial after the initial HT announcement,
followed by another HT announcement after the air horns have ceased

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

A number of special units, specializing in collapse rescue incidents may be automatically
assigned or special called to any incident. Which special unit or units is incorrectly described
below? 10.1
A. Rescue Company members are trained in collapse rescue operations and will perform any
victim removal activity that involves tunneling, trenching, shoring, or cutting of structural
members.
B. At least one Rescue Co. should be deployed at each buried victim site.
C. Squad Co. members are not trained in collapse rescue operations. Squad Co.’s cannot be
assigned to a site with a buried victim.
D. Collapse rescue units carry heavy timbers and should be given priority access to the
operational area.
E. SOC support ladder companies are trained in collapse operations, void access and shoring
techniques and can act as a second FAST unit working underneath the search and rescue branch.

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

The FDNY has had great success with Con Ed Vacuum trucks when operating at incidents
where large quantities of loose material had to be removed. The IC may direct who to operate
the Con Ed Vacuum truck in conjunction with Con Ed? 10.1, Add 4
A. Only trained Rescue Co. Members.
B. Only trained members of SOC Support Ladders and SOC.
C. Only trained members of SOC.
D. No member can operate the Con Ed Vacuum truck.

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Use the following information to answer question 18.
1. Selected debris removal and tunneling.
2. Search of voids.
3. General debris removal.
4. Reconnaissance.
5. Accounting for and removal of surface victims.
18. Please place the five stages of the collapse rescue plan in the correct order. 11.1
A. 2, 1, 4, 3, 5
B. 5, 4, 2, 1, 3
C. 4, 5, 2, 1, 3
D. 1, 2, 4, 3, 5

The five stages of a collapse rescue operation are:
1. Reconnaissance
2. Accounting for and removal of the surface victims
3. Search of the voids
4. Selected debris removal and tunneling
5. General debris removal

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Rescue Paramedic Ambulance Units operate at the ALS level and are also Haz Tac trained.
These units are trained to operate within major collapses and confined spaces. They are located
in each borough. Which point made below concerning Rescue Paramedic Units is correct?
10.1, 11.7, 11.8, 11.9
A. Rescue paramedics are assigned on the transmission of a 10-60 or on the initial report of a
major collapse.
B. Crush syndrome is fundamentally based on three criteria: compromised local circulation,
involvement of muscle mass, and prolonged compression usually 2 to 3 hours but possibly less
than 30 minutes.
C. Rescue Paramedics shall be given access to the patient as soon as the patient is sufficiently
exposed to permit the establishment of an IV. Stability of the area around the patient is not
important since these units are collapse trained.

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

In building collapses, void spaces are often created that could shelter victims. There are
four common types of voids: lean to void, V shaped voids, pancake voids, and the individual
void. In which of these voids would locating a victim at a collapse be simpler than the other
voids because the victim is unlikely to be thrown? Which void listed above will be difficult to
locate since they occur at random depending on layout of partitions and furniture?
11.4.3, 11.4.4
A. Pancake Void/Individual Void
B. Individual Void/Lean to Void
C. Lean to Void/V shaped Void
D. Individual Void/Lean to Void

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

At the scene of a collapse BC Ruth, the incident commander, used multiple methods to
remove victims since enough manpower and equipment were on the scene and the stability of the
debris pile was stable. He also ensured that communications between the two different teams
operating was established and maintained. After hearing a report that shoring lumber and
concrete saw cutting blades were needed to reach a victim BC Ruth had his aide request the
response of a collapse POD. Do you: 10.1, 11.6.7
A. Agree
or
D. Disagree with BC Ruth’s actions at this scene?

 Only a Command Chief can request the response of the PODS.

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Members are operating at a collapse of a 3 story row frame building in Greenpoint
Brooklyn at 0400 hours. The building was an isolated corner building that has collapsed in a
pancake collapse. The owner of the building lives across the street and states that the building is
occupied by two families with a total of 8 people. 5 of the 8 people have been accounted for and
removed from the collapse with 3 people still unaccounted for. Which action taken by units at
this collapse was incorrect? 11.4.6
A. After a voice was heard members used the around the clock method. Members were
positioned around the area where the voice was heard and took turns calling out and listening for
the victim in an attempt to triangulate their position.
B. The collapse survivor interview form was used while talking with victims who were
already accounted for. A certified/trained search dog was brought in to assist in the search.
C. The officer of L-146 used his thermal imaging camera to help detect heat and look for
movement of a victim as they breathe. The TIC is helpful since the entire debris pile and
everyone in it is likely to be covered in the same exact color of dust.
D. During the initial stage of the collapse Rescue 4 arrived and placed their electronic
listening device into operation. The sensors were placed on the debris pile and moved in a grid
pattern, allowing readings from multiple devices to be compared.

Electronic listening devices: Life Detection Systems are located on all
Collapse Rescue Units. When the probes are placed on top of the debris pile,
it detects sounds or vibrations from within the pile. These devices are quite
sensitive and can pick up sounds or vibrations for a considerable distance.
They are not practical to be used during the initial stages of a collapse, for
there is too much activity. It is appropriate to use these devices once the void
exploration phase is complete and all known victims have been removed
during the selected debris removal. It is necessary to remove all personnel
from the debris pile and shut down all moving equipment before they are put
into use. The sensors are placed on the debris pile and moved in a grid
pattern, allowing readings from multiple devices to be compared.

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

At times the FDNY is asked by the Dept. of Buildings or Housing, Preservation, and
Development to install shoring in structures that have suffered structural damage. Which is the
only correct point below about shoring? 11.5.3
A. In a building where there is no civilian life hazard, shoring will only be installed if it can be
done safely at minimal risk to members and where there is any amount of property that can be
safeguarded.
B. Shoring will be installed whenever human life is in danger to provide a safe area around the
victims and rescuers. Once installed shoring will not be removed by members of the FDNY.
C. If a building is going to be demolished, even after shoring, it will not be shored, except to
facilitate rescue operations or the safe evacuation of occupants.

11.5.3 Shoring Guidelines: At times, the FDNY is asked by the Department of Buildings,
or Housing Preservation and Development to install shoring in structures that
have suffered structural damage. As a guideline, the FDNY will only install
shoring in the following instances:
 Whenever human life is in danger, to provide a safe area around
victims/rescuers.
 When shoring will permit a building to remain safe to occupy.
 Buildings in which there is no civilian life hazard will only be shored if the
shoring can be safely installed at minimal risk to members, and where there is
a substantial property risk that can be safeguarded by the shoring.
 A vacant or unoccupied building will not be shored when there is a substantial
risk to members installing the shoring, or the use of shoring is unlikely to
substantially improve the overall outcome.
 If the building is going to be demolished, even after shoring, it will not be
shored, except to facilitate rescue operations or the safe evacuation of
occupants.
 Once installed, shoring will only be removed when the load is otherwise
stabilized, or the situation permits the shores to be removed from a safe area.

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which statement(s) below is/are true? 11.6.1, 11.6.4, 11.12.1
The selected debris removal phase begins when all voids have been searched and people
are still unaccounted for. It is a useful tactic if we have no idea where the victims are
located. Use extreme caution as this phase is an even more dangerous task than a void
search.
General debris removal is started after all other methods have been employed, people are
still missing, and their location is unknown. This phase is begun when it is certain that
there are no other survivors, all voids have been searched, and the selected debris removal
and tunneling demonstrates there is no chance for survival for missing victims.
A. Both B. Neither C. Only #1 D. Only #2

11.6.1 The selected debris removal phase begins when all voids have been searched and
people are still unaccounted for. Selected debris removal is used to reach specific
locations where victims are located or suspected to be. It is not a useful tactic if
we have no idea where the victims are located. It may involve breaching a hole
through a wall, cutting through a roof or a floor or tunneling through mixed
debris.

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

25. During a drill about marking collapsed buildings using the search assessment marking system the following points were made. Which point is incorrect? Add 2 A. The actual mark consists of a 2’ x 2’ letter X using lime yellow spray paint similar to the vacant building marking. A square should be drawn around the X. Two cans of line yellow spray paint should be carried on all apparatus. B. A single slash and the unit identity are made upon entry to the structure or area. The second crossing slash should be drawn when all personnel exit the structure or area. C. In the top quadrant of the X the date and time that the company/team left the structure or area is indicated. D. The right side of the X is used to indicate hazards within the structure of area. The bottom of the X is used to indicate the number of live or expired victims still inside the area or structure.

25. A

26. While operating at a collapse scene the proby sees a V with a circle around it and a horizontal line through the middle of the V. He asks his Lieutenant what this means. The Lieutenant should answer? Add 2 A. A known or potential victim is inside. B. The location of the potential victim has been confirmed. C. The confirmed victim is deceased. D. The victim has been removed from the specific location.

26. C

1. The collapse search and rescue plan consists of 8 steps according to Dunn. Please place the steps listed below in the correct order. Dunn 18 1. Survey the site of the collapse. 2. Search for and remove surface victims first. 3. Start general rubble removal. 4. Secure the area. 5. Shut off all utilities. 6. Tunnel and trench. 7. Take a time out. 8. Search all voids and spaces created by the collapsed structure. A. 4, 1, 5, 2, 8, 7, 6, 3 B. 7, 1, 2, 4, 5, 6, 8, 3 C. 1, 4, 2, 5, 8, 3, 7, 6 D. 2, 8, 7, 5, 4, 1, 3, 6

1. C

2. Several steps of a collapse rescue plan should not be carried out simultaneously since this can create confusion as to which steps were or were not completed. It is necessary to complete one step before starting the next step of the collapse rescue plan. Dunn 18 A. True or B. False

2. B

3. During afternoon drill members of L-100 were discussing shoring at collapse operations. Which point made by the members during the drill is correct? Dunn 18 A. The important point when shoring is to move or attempt to move the unstable structure to its original position as this could prevent a collapse. B. An observer should be positioned at the point of the shoring to monitor the structural member continuously for further movement that might endanger members. C. A supporting object placed beneath an unstable structure should be placed tightly against the object it is supporting so as to prevent any movement. D. If an unstable wall leans further, or an unsupported floor appears to move rescue work can continue while additional shoring or removal is undertaken.

3. D

4. During the time out step of the collapse rescue plan safety hazards are reexamined and locations of buried victims are determined. During this time a conference will be held between the IC and all but which of the following members? Dunn 18 A. Operation Officer B. Planning Officer C. Public Information Officer D. Victim Tracking Officer

5. Which operation, tunneling or trenching, is slower, safer, and has a less of a chance of a secondary collapse? After surface victim removal and void search what percent of survivors have been found? Is it better to have more or fewer members engaged in rescue work when the exact location of a victim is known? Dunn 18 A. Tunneling / 50%/More B. Trenching / 75%/More C. Tunneling / 50%/Fewer D. Trenching / 75%/Fewer

5. D

6. General debris removal is the last step of the collapse rescue plan. Which point below is incorrect concerning the general debris removal step? Dunn 18 A. General debris removal is done after all victims are discovered, accounted for, and all pinpointed locations of tunneling and trenching have been reached. B. The FDNY will remain in charge of the scene during this entire phase. Since there is little chance of survivors’ mechanical pay loaders and cranes may be used. C. Even if all victims are accounted for, general debris removal will be carried out. D. Each load of wreckage should be spread out on the ground and examined by the employees of the company conducting the removal of debris along with the medical examiner.

6. D

7. BC McMeister is working a day tour in Battalion 44 and is operating at a fire on the first floor of a two story house which is attached to another two story house. The houses are attached but separated by a firewall between the buildings. Members of E-100 and L-100 are operating in the original fire area which is the left side of this attached house when viewing it from the street. L-101 and E-102 are operating in the right side (EXP 4 side) of the attached house. The officer of L-100 calls BC McMeister and tells him that the first floor joists are pulling away from the masonry wall supports and that he is hearing creaking and cracking sounds from the structure. The officer of L-101 tells BC McMeister that everything is fine in the attached house and there is no fire extension just a light smoke condition. Based on these reports BC McMeister should take which action below? Dunn 19 A. Evacuate members of E-100 and L-100. B. Evacuate members of E-100, L-100, E-102, and L-101. C. Wait for the Deputy Chief to arrive. D. Have units continue to fight the fire from a safe area inside the building.

7. B

9. In some instances the IC may order a partial withdrawal of members to a safe location inside the building and interior firefighting continued. This practice can only be allowed when? Dunn 19 A. The construction of the building is known in detail. B. Partial collapse will not cause the entire structure to fail. C. Both D. Neither

9. C

10. BC Knowitall is operating at a fire in a two story taxpayer. The fire is on the first floor with some extension to the second floor. While operating at this fire if BC Knowitall gets a report of a dangerous condition he should be guided by which one point below? Dunn 19 A. If a report of a known minor danger is received by the BC he must acknowledge the report and must take action to address the situation. B. At night the IC (BC Knowitall) may order increased lighting. A flood light may be directed on a cracked wall or a spot light may illuminate the entire area in front of a burning building where a defect exists. C. The IC may order a firefighter to investigate a reported danger. The firefighter investigates the condition and advises the chief on whether to continue or discontinue operations in the vicinity of the danger. D. Another chief or fire officer may be directed to operate in the danger area to increase the supervision of firefighter from a position close to the operation.

10. D

11. Captain Carter and his company, L-100, are operating at a box where a masonry chimney is leaning and in danger of collapse. The proby is in the process of cordoning off the danger area. Which action taken by the proby is incorrect? Dunn 19 A. The rope or tape was tied around the apparatus, building parts, or utility poles. B. The rope was placed waist to head high above the ground. C. Continuous monitoring is required to ensure the roped off area is not entered by civilians or firefighters. D. The area was cordoned off using utility rope or orange marking tape.

11. B

12. Which warning sign listed below is a cause for an IC to withdraw firefighters from a building? Dunn 19 A. An explosion. B. A large body of fire on several floors in an old combustible building. C. A terrorist event. D. A Haz Mat incident that threatens to overtake an trap firefighters.

12. B

13. How many of the operations listed below, where dangers are always present, would the assignment of a chief officer often be directed are listed correctly? Dunn 19 1. Cellar Fires 2. Operating on the floor above a fire. 3. Roof Venting 4. Top Floor Fires 5. Hose line advancement at a rapidly spreading fire. A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. 5

13. D

1. While discussing the proper use of bunker gear during drill, members made the following statements. In which statement(s) were they incorrect? AUC 310 2.4, 2.9, 3.2.1, 3.2.4 A. Bunker gear is not a close proximity entry suit. In a flashover situation members must be within 10 -15 feet of an exit in order to survive. B. Upon feeling any pain or discomfort through the hood, a member must always immediately leave the area. C. In hot weather, if the apparatus is not equipped with a functioning air conditioner, coats and protective hoods may be dispensed with while responding. D. Members shall not drive department apparatus with rubber or leather boots. Chauffer boots are optional.

1. A, B, D 2.4 Bunker Gear when properly used and maintained will afford a limited period of protection to exit an area which has become or is about to become untenable. It is not a "Close Proximity Entry Suit" such as that used in Airport Crash and Fire Rescues. In a flashover situation, a Bunker equipped member must be within 5 to 10 feet of an exit in order to survive. 2.9 It must be understood that wearing the hood in a hostile environment somewhat reduces your ability to note changing fire conditions in the immediate area. Therefore, you must leave the area immediately upon feeling any pain or discomfort through the hood, unless the area can be immediately cooled by a hoseline. Remember; always stay alert to deteriorating conditions. 3.2.4 Members shall not drive Department apparatus while wearing rubber boots. Driving with bunker pants and the Chauffeur boots or leather boots is optional

2. In hot weather, coats and protective hoods may be dispensed with while responding to which of the following: AUC 310 3.2.2 1. Non Structural Fires 2. Response to BARS Alarms 3. Non Fire Responses 4. ERS NC and Class E Alarms 5. CFR-D and CPR Runs A. All of them. B. 1, 2, 4 C. 1, 3, 4 D. 2, 3, 5

2. A

3. After receiving the new gear bags, members of E-100 were reviewing the policy concerning the transportation and storage of bunker gear. Which point below is incorrect? AUC 310 Section 9 A. When transporting the firefighting protective ensemble in a private vehicle, such items shall be placed in the gear bag before being placed in the passenger compartment or trunk of the vehicle. B. Members are prohibited from wearing or bringing their firefighting protective ensemble into living areas of the firehouse such as kitchens, sitting rooms, TV rooms, offices, bunkrooms, and gym areas. C. The Company Commander shall review and sign the gear bag log in red pen on a monthly basis. The gear bag log shall be kept for 2 years. Chief Officers shall examine the log for compliance. D. Gear bags shall be stored in the company office and shall be locked in a locker to prevent theft. Only a company officer can take a mark on the gear bag log and issue a gear bag to a member.

3. 9.5 Gear bags shall be stored in the company office, and shall be readily available to members in the event that the unit is out of quarters and a company officer is not available to issue the gear bag.

4. While out on afternoon building inspection, members of L-100 see a man steal an old lady’s purse. The thief is running down the street with the purse. The old lady is lying on the street after she was knocked over by the thief. The officer of L-100 would be correct to order his members to take which action below? AUC 317 Add 2 A. Have two of his firefighters chase down the suspect, have two firefighters provide first aid/assistance to the old lady, and notify the police. B. Have his member's provide first aid/assistance to the old lady and have the police notified of the incident. C. Notify the police and continue with building inspection

4. B

5. During fire and emergency operations members should be aware of the possibility that a crime may have taken place. If it is suspected a crime has occurred, consideration must be given to preservation of the scene and evidence. Which point below made at drill is correct concerning crime scene operations? AUC 317 2, 5.11, 5.12, 5.14, A. A crime scene is the area where a crime was committed and any path to and from the scene. Only fire related DOA’s should be treated as a potential crime scene. B. After finding a dead hanging victim or a bound body inside a building, carefully cut down the hanging victim, and untie the bound body and cover with a plain white sheet. C. Fire Marshalls should be notified to respond to voucher currency at any operation where large amounts of currency are discovered. Weapons or drugs found at a crime scene should be referred to the police. D. Upon the transmission of a 10-41 the Incident Commander should transmit an URGENT on the handie talkie and announce that a 10-41 has been transmitted and inform members that they are probably working in a crime scene.

5. C 5.14 Fire Marshals shall be notified to respond to voucher currency at any operation where large amounts of currency are discovered.

6. At a recent company commanders meeting, there was a discussion about the probationary firefighter’s development program since probies are being hired again. The captains were a little rusty on this subject and were only correct in which statement(s) below? AUC 323 A. Probationary notebooks shall be maintained for one full year from the date the member is assigned to a field unit. B. The probies are required to continue with their reading schedule for three years. C. The notebook shall be reviewed weekly by the proby and monthly by the officer on duty and company commander. D. Chief Officers shall review the notebook on a monthly basis during company drill visits. E. Notebooks shall be kept in the proby’s locker when not in use. F. If a training note book is lost or destroyed the company commander must forward a report to the Bureau of training via the chain of command within 30 days.

6. A, B 2.1 Probationary firefighters shall ensure the training notebook is reviewed on a regular basis according to the following schedule:  Probationary Firefighter- Review weekly. Initial and date in blue or black ink.  Officer on Duty- Review each tour the member works. Initial and date in red ink.  Company Commander- Review monthly. Initial and date in red ink.  Chief Officers- Review during company drill visits. Initial and date in red ink 1.5 If the training notebook is lost or destroyed, the company commander must forward a report through the chain of command to the administrative Division within 30 days, outlining the details of the loss or destruction of the training notebook. The training notebook must be replaced at the members expense and a notation of the replacement must be made in the report forwarded to the administrative Division. The loss or destruction of the training notebook will be noted in the subsequent evaluation report of the member and may result in disciplinary action\ Note: Probationary Firefighter Training Notebooks shall be maintained until the 17th month when it is forwarded for evaluation. Probationary firefighters are required to continue their Reading Schedule for three years. Company Commanders shall ensure Reading schedules for members under their command are maintained.

7. E-316 is operating at LaGuardia Airport and must supply water to a PAPD crash truck. The Lieutenant should know that at LaGuardia airport wall hydrants are designated by large phosphorescent signs composed of? AUC 325 Add 1 4.2.2 A. A green H on a white background. B. A white H on a green background. C. A green W on a white background. D. A white W on a green background.

7. B

8. The color of the flight data recorder may be? As a general rule the location of the voice and data recorder will be? At the staging area Engine and Ladder Co.’s shall form up in a double line convoy with Ladder Co.’s on the _______ side? AUC 325 A. Black/Front of the fuselage/Left side. B. Bright yellow/Either of the wings/Right side. C. International Orange/Rear of the fuselage/Left side. D. Red/Nose of the plane/Right Side.

8. C

9. Chief Officers operating at airports should follow all but which of the points listed below? AUC 325 A. When a control tower pull box is pulled or a call 34 or 44 is made the PAPD Tour Commander will ensure the BC is promptly escorted to the incident site and taken directly to the PAPD I/C. B. The priority order of communication from the Chief at the command post to the staging area is: 1. Port Authority Radio 2. Queens Dispatcher 3. 800 MHz radio. C. The 1st arriving BC shall activate channel 6B and his cell phone. The BC should also designate a company officer to command the staging area until the arrival of a second BC. D. The second due BC is designated the staging area chief.

9. B 5.3 Communications: 5.3.1 All units shall monitor the Department radio in addition to handi talkies. 5.3.2 800 Mhz portable radios are carried by B-49, B-51, B-52, B-54 and Divisions 13 and 14. 5.3.3 First arriving Battalion Chief shall activate 800 Mhz radio (Channel 6B) and cellular phone. 5.3.4 Communications from the Command Post Chief at the scene to the Staging Area can be as follows: • Via 800 MHz directly to FD Command Post when both units have 800 MHz radios. • Via Queens Fire Dispatcher through Department radio when two 800 MHz radio are not yet available. • Via Port Authority Radio from FDNY Command Chief to PAPD Liaison at the Staging Area

10. Lt. Carter is a newly promoted officer working his first tour in E-308. While operating at a fuel spill at Kennedy Airport Lt. Carter would know which point below to be correct? AUC 325 Add 2 A. A yellow hydrant at the airport requires a 3 ½” hydrant key to open the hydrant. B. A yellow hydrant at the airport has a pressure of 160 psi. C. A hydrant with a yellow bonnet is a low pressure delivering 60 psi. D. A yellow hydrant on a parkway requires 17 turns clockwise to turn on.

10 . B 4.2 Water Supply 4.2.1 Hydrants • Low Pressure - 60 PSI (Black body with silver top) • Intermediate Pressure - 90 PSI (Black body with yellow top) • High Pressure - 160 PSI (All yellow)

1. E-100 has arrived, along with a full 1st alarm, at a fire in a gas station. A car has knocked over a gas pump and ignited a 400 square foot area of gasoline. Members of E-100 stretch a foam hand line to extinguish the fire. Which point below about this operation is incorrect? Foam Evolution 1, TB Foam 5.2, 7.3.1 A. Lt. Wright of E-100 knows that a single foam hand line is usually sufficient to cover up to a 20’ x 30’ sq/ft area and that with a full 1st alarm on the scene there is enough concentrate to last 22 minutes. B. Engine Co.’s are required to carry three 5 gallon buckets of foam concentrate while Ladder Co.’s are required to carry two 5 gallon buckets of foam concentrate for a total of 65 gallons of concentrate. C. Only 1 ¾” hose can be stretched between the nozzle and the foam educator. The maximum amount of 1 ¾ hose will depend on distance, however a maximum of 6 lengths of 1 ¾ hose is allowed between the eductor and the nozzle. D. The eductor should be supplied with 2 ½” hose at a pressure of 200 psi at the eductor. To reduce back pressure at the eductor, the nozzle should be operated at or below the level of the eductor. In order for the eductor to function properly the nozzle should be fully opened.

1. C

2. Lt. Johnson and his members, E-100 and foam carrier F-100, are responding to tanker truck mishap with a spill of approximately 1000 sq/ft. The foam carrier will be used at this box to deliver finished firefighting foam using a hand line and the deck gun. Which action taken by E- 100/F-100 at this incident was incorrect? Foam Evolution 2 A. Upon arrival at the box Lt. Johnson was informed by the IC that E-99 was at a hydrant awaiting the foam carrier. E-99 was designated for the foam carrier only. B. Members pulled sufficient 3 ½” hose to attach to the supply pumper. Members used the hose load ending with the male coupling. The ECC of the foam carrier connected the 3 ½” hose to the gated inlet of the foam carrier. C. The foam carrier officer, Lt. Johnson, called the ECC of E-99 to start water. One member climbed onto the deck of the apparatus and trained the nozzle onto the fire. D. The remaining members of the company then placed a foam hand line into operation by stretching by stretching 1 ¾” hose from the preconnected eductor.

2. B 2.2 Foam Carrier stops at supply pumper located at the hydrant. Members pull sufficient 3½" hose to attach to supply pumper. Use the hose load ending with the female coupling.

3. The Foam Carrier carries 1,000 gallons of foam concentrate. When using a 310 gallon per minute high capacity foam nozzle and a 95 gallon per minute foam nozzle will supply 405 gallon per minute of foam solution. When educting at 3%, which is the percentage used for hydrocarbon fires, there will be enough concentrate in the 1,000 gallon booster tank to last approximately how many minutes? Foam Evolution 2 A. 100 minutes B. 80 minutes C. 60 minutes D. 40 minutes

3. B 2.12 For example, a 310 GPM high capacity foam nozzle and a 95 GPM foam nozzle could supply 405 GPM of solution. Educting at 3% solution, there will be enough concentrate in the 1000-gallon booster tank for approximately 80 minutes

4. During MUD members are drilling on the ground mounted foam cannon. Each firefighter made a point about the cannon during the drill. What is the only correct point made during this drill? Foam Evolution 3 A. Stretch the largest available hose to the foam cannon. Under no condition should the hose be less than 3 ½” to supply the foam cannon. B. The foam cannon should be secured with a utility rope to a substantial object. 2 ½” from the foam carrier is used to supply the portable reservoir. C. The Captain of the Foam Carrier shall order the delivery of foam concentrate to the reservoir once assured that the cannon and the reservoir are in a suitable position. D. The foam cannon on an eductor setting of 3% will use 35 gallons of concentrate to produce 970 gallons of solution per minute. A 1,000 gallon booster tank will last approximately 30 minutes.

4. D 2.3 Stretch largest available hose to the cannon. Under no condition should hose less than 2½" be used to supply the Foam Cannon 2.4 Secure the Foam Cannon with a utility rope to a substantial object. 2.5 Stretch 1¾" hose from the Foam Carrier to the Portable Reservoir. Secure the hose to the top of the reservoir. 2.6 The Chief Officer in Command shall order the delivery of foam concentrate to the Portable Reservoir once assured that the Cannon and the Reservoir are in a suitable position. The Chief Officer in Command of the fire will order water started

5. When a Foam Carrier or Foam Tender unit is supplying a Satellite pumper with foam concentrate through 1 ¾” hose the pressure in this line should be how many psi over hydrant pressure in order to prevent back-up into the Foam Carrier of Foam Tender? Foam Evolution 4 A. 40 psi B. 45 psi C. 50 psi D. 55 psi

5. C

6. When using a modified Angus foam cannon or Akron master stream foam nozzle attached to a tower ladder members should be guided by which one point below? Foam Evolution 4 A. When a FIMM pumper is connected to a hydrant or to a supply from the domestic water system, the 4 ½” backflow prevention may be needed. B. The tower ladder should be raised and pointed away from the fire until foam operations are started. The bucket of the tower ladder should have a maximum of two members, one of which is an officer. C. It is necessary to supply the base of the tower ladder with at least 250 psi in order to obtain the proper nozzle pressure. This can never be accomplished without placing a relay pumper in the stretch located no more than 50 feet from the base of the tower ladder. D. Both the FIMM pumper and the relay pumper need to operate in the volume position. The relay pumper operating in volume needs to have a supply pressure of 80 psi to be able to supply the tower ladder with 250 psi.

6. D 2.1 Connect a FIMM Pumper to a reliable water supply and charge pump. When a FIMM Pumper is connected to a hydrant or to a supply from the domestic water system, the 4½" back-flow prevention valve must be utilized. 2.3 The Tower Ladder should be raised and pointed away from the fire until foam operations are started. The bucket of the Tower Ladder should be unmanned. 2.8 It is necessary to supply the base of the Tower Ladder with at least 250 PSI in order to obtain the proper nozzle pressure. This usually cannot be accomplished without placing a relay pumper in the stretch located at the base of the Tower Ladder

7. Which piece of equipment listed below will attach directly onto the STANG of the tower ladder without any special tools or fittings? Foam Evolution 4 A. 725 or 1025 GPM Modified Angus Foam Cannon B. 500 GPM Akron Master Stream Foam Nozzle

7. A NOTE: The 500 GPM Akron Master Stream Nozzle screws onto the Stang without any special tools or fittings

8. Engine 324 and the Satellite are operating at a box where the modified Angus foam cannon attached to the satellite apparatus is going to be used. Lt. Ike, a covering officer, made the following four points about this evolution. In which point should the members of E-324 correct Lt. Ike? Foam Evolution 5 A. The FIMM pumper (the 2000 gpm pumper) is to supply the satellite apparatus with foam concentrate through a 5” hose line. The 5” hose line can be replaced with two 3 ½” hose lines from the FIMM pumper or from the manifold supplied from a FIMM pumper. B. If the pumper supplying the foam concentrate is a 1000 gallon per minute pumper then the supply lines to the satellite apparatus will be two 3 ½” hose line. C. The satellite can produce finished firefighting foam to a height of 80’ and a distance of 180’. If two Akron 500 GPM nozzles are attached to the satellite apparatus in addition to the foam cannon then an additional 1000 gallons of finished firefighting foam could be produced. D. When foam operations are to begin the Chief in charge will issue the order to start water. After water is established the operator of the FIMM pumper will begin proportioning foam at 3% into the water flow.

8. A 8. Engine 324 and the Satellite are operating at a box where the modified Angus foam cannon attached to the satellite apparatus is going to be used. Lt. Ike, a covering officer, made the following four points about this evolution. In which point should the members of E-324 correct Lt. Ike? Foam Evolution 5 A. The FIMM pumper (the 2000 gpm pumper) is to supply the satellite apparatus with foam concentrate through a 5” hose line. The 5” hose line can be replaced with two 3 ½” hose lines from the FIMM pumper or from the manifold supplied from a FIMM pumper. B. If the pumper supplying the foam concentrate is a 1000 gallon per minute pumper then the supply lines to the satellite apparatus will be two 3 ½” hose line. C. The satellite can produce finished firefighting foam to a height of 80’ and a distance of 180’. If two Akron 500 GPM nozzles are attached to the satellite apparatus in addition to the foam cannon then an additional 1000 gallons of finished firefighting foam could be produced. D. When foam operations are to begin the Chief in charge will issue the order to start water. After water is established the operator of the FIMM pumper will begin proportioning foam at 3% into the water flow. foam solution not concentrate

9. While operating as the foam coordinator BC Smith decided to have all units involved in the re-supply of the foam system use a separate radio frequency in order maintain good communications since there were long distances between the staging area, foam assembly point, and the FIMM pumper. Do you: Foam Evolution 6 A. Agree or D. Disagree with BC Smith’s decision?

9. A 9. While operating as the foam coordinator BC Smith decided to have all units involved in the re-supply of the foam system use a separate radio frequency in order maintain good communications since there were long distances between the staging area, foam assembly point, and the FIMM pumper. Do you: Foam Evolution 6 A. Agree or D. Disagree with BC Smith’s decision?

10. True or False? Since the mini manifold is used in reverse it is possible for three different nurse trucks to supply foam concentrate to the foam carrier at the same time. All three valves (inlets) must be opened at the same time to keep a balanced pressure. A. True or B. False

10. B. False 2.4 As foam is pumped out of the original Foam Carrier or Foam Tender attached to the FIMM pumper, one Nurse Truck will re-supply it at a time. One valve on the Mini Manifold is opened at a time. The radio-equipped member on top of the original Foam Carrier will open and close the valve on the foam inlet as necessary to keep a sufficient flow without causing frothing.

11. While operating at a fire in an oil burner room, the AFFF extinguisher was used by the proby to extinguish the fire. After operations where concluded the Captain was drilling with the proby about the use and care of the AFFF extinguisher. Which point made by the proby is incorrect? Foam Add 1 A. The extinguisher should be check after the start of each tour for damage, corrosion, condition of the cap and collar threads, serviceability of the gasket, and the air pressure (100 psi). B. When recharging the AFFF extinguisher first add 2 gallons of water, then slowly add 10 ounces of AFFF concentrate, and finally add more water to reach 2 ½ gallons. C. If the AFFF extinguisher is not fully expended, the remaining solution can be held in reserve in case of re-ignition. An AFFF extinguisher not used within one year after charging must be emptied, refilled, and recharged. D. The AFFF extinguisher can be used on special class A fires such as tire fires and small rubbish fires. It is not necessary to play AFFF against a backboard or the side of the tank to form a film on the oil surface.

11. A 4. DAILY INSPECTION. ♦ Damage or corrosion. ♦ Condition of the cap and collar threads. ♦ Serviceability of the gasket. ♦ Air pressure (100 psi)

1. It is 0900 hours and the new proby is checking the rig, L-100 which is a tower ladder. While he (the proby) is checking the rig an EMS ambulance arrives and asks the officer if they can fuel up the ambulance. After receiving permission from the officer of L-100 the driver of the ambulance proceeds to back up the ambulance into quarters in front of L-100 which is parked in its proper spot in the firehouse. While he is backing up the ambulance the driver accidentally hits the gas pedal instead of the brake and smashes into the front of the tower ladder. The tower ladder has a broken windshield (both sides), broken headlights, and dents to the front bumper and front of the apparatus. The damage is deemed by the officer on duty to be significant. The proby that was inside the cab of L-100 when it was struck hit his head upon impact and is going to need stitches to close the wound. The injury to the proby is minor. The officer of L-100 should know that he must? SB 56 3.1, 4.3, 5.1, Comm CH 7 Safety Battalion A. Consider this event a major accident and forward a CD-19. The safety battalion will be responding. B. Consider this event a minor accident and forward a CD-19. The safety battalion does not respond to minor accidents. C. Consider this event an incident and does not have to forward a CD-19. The safety battalion must respond since a member is injured. D. Consider this event an incident and forward a CD-19. The safety battalion will not be responding.

1. D 4.3 INCIDENT A vehicle related occurrence that results in damage to a Department vehicle when the vehicle is properly parked, or damage that is discovered during routine inspection of the vehicle. Minor injuries, serious injuries or fatal injuries to members while operating on a parked apparatus shall also be defined as an incident. Note 1. An allegation that a Department vehicle caused damage to a civilian vehicle or property should be treated as an incident. Note 2. Damage to a civilian vehicle caused by a properly parked apparatus operating at alarms, (e.g., a tower ladder outrigger damaging a parked car) inspection activities, MUD, should be treated as an incident; CD19 and CD19A should be prepared

2. Which definition listed below is not entirely correct? SB 56 4.1, 4.2, 4.4, 4.5 A. An apparatus accident is defined as any vehicle related event that results in injury or property damage, including vandalism, even when damage is minor and may not be repaired, or an injury to a member caused by a fall or being thrown from a moving or parked apparatus. B. All motor vehicles assigned to the New York City Fire Department shall be considered apparatus. In addition, for accident reporting purposes, member’s private vehicles, when authorized for use on department business, are also considered apparatus. C. A minor accident is an apparatus accident that results in either minor or moderate damage to the department vehicle or to a civilian vehicle or property. An accident that results in no injuries or minor injuries to civilians and/or members. D. A major accident is an apparatus accident that results in either significant damage to the department or civilian vehicle, or private property. Any accident that results in serious injury or death to a civilian or member.

2. A 4.2 ACCIDENT An apparatus accident is defined as any vehicle related event that results in injury or property damage (excluding vandalism), even when damage is minor and may not be repaired, or an injury to a member caused by a fall or being thrown from a moving apparatus

3. E-100 was involved in a minor accident while stopped at a red light. The vehicle behind E- 100 accidentally hit the back of the rig because the driver was texting. There is no damage to E- 100, no injuries to the members or the civilian, a small scratch to the front bumper of the civilian vehicle, and nothing unusual about the accident. Who will determine the accident classification? SB 56 5.1 A. The investigating Deputy Chief B. The Safety Battalion C. The investigating Battalion Chief D. The Safety Command Accident Claims Unit

3. C 5.1 If the investigating Battalion Chief deems it appropriate, in questionable cases (e.g., numerous injuries, unusual circumstances), the Battalion Chief shall consult with the Division Chief and a Safety Battalion Chief prior to making such determination. The Battalion’s cellular phone is appropriate for such consultation. 5.1.1 The Safety Battalion Chief is authorized to downgrade or upgrade an accident should information later come to light which makes such a change appropriate. 5.1.2 The Safety Battalion Chief will be notified by the Bureau of Fire Communications about all accidents, shall respond to all major accidents, and may respond to minor accidents.

4. BC Wright must take which of the following action(s) listed below when investigating an apparatus accident? (More than one correct) SB 56 6.4.1, 27.4, FOC 1 Form 1. As soon as possible after returning from an apparatus accident scene, the BC responsible for conducting the investigation (BC Wright) shall e-mail the FOC 1 report to FDOC. 2. After e-mailing the FOC 1 report to the FDOC, BC Wright should call the FDOC to verify the receipt of the e-mail. 3. Before leaving the scene of an apparatus accident, BC Wright transmitted the plate number and the state of registration to the FDNY dispatcher. 4. Since the accident occurred at the end of BC Wright’s tour and he is scheduled to start vacation, the CD19A will be completed upon return of BC Wright from vacation leave. A. All B. None C. 1, 2, 3 D. 2, 3, 4 E. 1, 2, 4

4. C 6.4 Notification to Fire Department Operations Center (FDOC) 6.4.1 Battalion Chiefs should be aware that timely notification to Fire Department Operations Center is required whenever a Fire Department vehicle is involved in an accident. This includes vehicles assigned to EMS, Support Services, and Fire Prevention. As soon as possible after returning to quarters from the accident scene, the Battalion Chief responsible for conducting the investigation shall email a completed FOC-1 report to Fire Department Operations Center at FDOC@fdny.nyc.gov, fol 27.4 Most apparatus accidents occur within a unit's administrative or response area and are investigated by Chief Officers having administrative jurisdiction over the unit. Whenever possible, this investigating Chief Officer shall review the unit's CD-19 report. However, in order to avoid delaying of reports, if the investigating Chief Officer is due to begin vacation leave or working in a covering or a detailed assignment, said Chief would not be required to review the unit's CD-19, but must include full particulars of the accident in the CD-19A Investigation Report.lowed by a phone call to FDOC at (718) 999-7900 to verify receipt of email. The FOC-1 report can be accessed via the forms section of the FDNY intrane

5. Upon being involved in an accident/incident members and officers must realize that their primary initial obligation is to? SB 56 6.2.1, 6.2.2, 6.5.2 A. Prevent the accident from increasing in magnitude. B. Properly mark tractor trailers and large vehicles involved. C. Advise whether the accident is major or minor. D. Identifying injured members or civilians at the scene.

5. A

6. An MV104 shall be prepared for which of the following situation(s)? (More than one correct). SB 56 24.1 A. An accident resulting in a death. B. A civilian with a minor laceration. C. Total of $1000 to two vehicles. D. Value of damage cannot be estimated.

6. A, B, D 24.1 The original New York State Report of Motor Vehicle Accident (MV-104 revised 5/02) must be completed and sent NYS Department o 26.1 The CD-19 report shall be forwarded by the apparatus operator/Officer within 96 hours of the apparatus accident/incidentf Motor Vehicles within 10 days, and a copy must be sent to the Safety Command-Accident Claims Unit within 96 hours of an accident resulting in death, personal injury, damage over $1,000 to the property of any one person, or if a dollar amount can not be estimated. This is the express responsibility of the vehicle operator involved in the accident. NOTE: MV-104 forms can be completed and printed on the FDNY Intranet or copies can be ordered from the FDNY Stationary Supply Unit.

7. MV104 is the express responsibility of? MV104 must be completed and sent to the NYS DMV within how many days of an accident? A CD-19 must be forwarded within how many days? SB 56 24.1, 26.1 A. Safety Command Accident Claims Unit/10 days/4days. B. Battalion Chief who Investigated the Accident/7 days/ 2days C. Officer on Duty at time of the accident/7 days/2 days. D. Operator of the vehicle at time of the accident/10 days/4 days.

7. D

8. E-100 is involved in an apparatus accident. E-100 hit a car at an intersection, and then E- 100 hit a parked car before coming to a stop. Three people who were riding bicycles were hit by the first car that E-100 hit. The officer of E-100 knows that he must fill out how many CD-19’s for this accident? SB 56 9.2 A. 4 B. 3 C. 2 D. 1

8. A 9.2 Additional forms are required if an accident involves more than one apparatus, more than one civilian vehicle, more than two civilian pedestrians or bicyclists (not motorcyclists - a motorcycle is a motor vehicle), or more than four people injured.

9. E-5 is involved in a minor apparatus accident with L-3 and one civilian vehicle. The administrative Battalion for E-5 and L-3 is the 7th Battalion. How many CD-19’s and will the BC in Battalion 7 be forwarding? SB 56 A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. 6

9. C

10. Capt. Leftus has just reported for duty and finds out that one of his assigned Lieutenants, Lt. Maggio, has been involved in an accident on the day tour. This accident occurred when the unit was 10-8 and going to get the meal. The apparatus hit a double parked car and caused minor damage to the passenger side mirror of the civilian car. This accident is the second preventable accident that Lt. Maggio has had within the last 12 months. Capt. Leftus should know which point below to be correct? SB 56 Add 4 A. Lt. Maggio will be counseled by a Chief from the officer’s assigned battalion. B. Lt. Maggio will be lifted for 60 days, counseled by his unit commander and a Chief from his assigned battalion. C. Lt. Maggio will be lifted for 60 days, and a supervisory conference will be held between Lt. Maggio and a chief officer from his assigned battalion. D. Lt. Maggio will be the subject of a supervisory conference with a Chief from the officer's assigned battalion and the unit commander.

10. D 3.2 An officer involved in a second preventable accident in a 12 month period will result in a Supervisory Conference with a chief officer from the officer's assigned battalion.

11. It is the duty of all officers and chauffeurs to do their best to reduce apparatus accidents for the safety of the members and the civilians that we protect. Which point below is incorrect? SB 71 A. The most damaging accidents are responding intersection accidents. This type of accident can and must be prevented by the officer. B. When responding to an alarm, drivers may proceed past a steady red signal, flashing red signal, or stop sign, but only after slowing down as may be necessary for a safe operation. C. When the apparatus is approaching an intersection in reverse, the apparatus shall be brought to a full stop before backing into an intersection, unless a police officer is directing traffic and gives the order to back up the apparatus into the intersection. D. Officer and chauffer must remember that you do not have the right of way until all other vehicles have granted it to you.

11. C  When the apparatus is approaching an intersection in reverse, the apparatus shall be brought to a full stop before backing into the intersection. The apparatus shall not be backed into the intersection until the officer in command of the vehicle gives the order to do so