WEEK #5 WEEK OF 10/15/12 PART I – AUC'S #274, 276 & 277 PART II – FFP – HIGH RISE OFFICE BUILDINGS {Sec. 7.1 – end PART III – COMMUNICATION MANUAL CHAP. #13 PART IV – DUNN CHAP. #16 & 17 PART V – TB – FOAM {Pgs 1 – 12} INSTRUCTOR: DC JOHN ESPOSITO Flashcards

PART I – AUC'S #274, 276 & 277 PART II – FFP – HIGH RISE OFFICE BUILDINGS {Sec. 7.1 – end PART III – COMMUNICATION MANUAL CHAP. #13 PART IV – DUNN CHAP. #16 & 17 PART V – TB – FOAM {Pgs 1 – 12}

1
Q
  1. The Captain asks the Proby in Engine 324 about the apparatus with the large diameter hose
    parked in quarters behind the Engine. The Proby makes several statements. He was correct in
    all but which one? (1.2, 3.3)
    a. There are six Satellite apparatus in service throughout the city and only one has pumping
    capacity
    b. The primary purpose of the Satellite unit is to provide the incident commander with a
    dependable high volume supply of water
    c. The Satellite apparatus carries foam equipment in addition to the large diameter hose
    d. When assigned to alarms an Engine will respond with the Satellite, each apparatus will be
    staffed with at least two firefighters
A
  1. A

Note: A Satellite Apparatus does not have pumping capabilities

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2
Q
  1. From the following list select the correctly listed capabilities of the Satellite Water System.
    (1.3)
    a. Supply the mini-manifold in close proximity to the building
    b. Deliver water through 5” hose over long distances
    c. Relay water when supplied by a Fireboat
    d. Deliver Hi-Ex foam
    e. Flush fuel spills and other chemical spills
    f. Use their large caliber deluge stream for demolition
    g. Draft water at waterfront operations
A

2-B, C, D, E, F, G,

1.3 The following is a list of the capabilities of the Satellite Water System:
1.3.1 Supply manifolds placed in close proximity to operation
1.3.2 Deliver water via 5” hose over long distances
1.3.3 Relay water when supplied by a fireboat or other pumpers at hydrants or at draft
1.3.4 Draft water at waterfront operations under suitable conditions
1.3.5 Supply or augment the Jamaica Water Supply System
1.3.6 Use large caliber Satellite Deluge Streams for fire suppression, ventilation, or
demolition
1.3.7 Deliver high volume conventional foam streams through Satellite Deluge Guns or
Tower Ladder monitors
1.3.8 Deliver High Expansion Foam
1.3.9 Flood cellar or flush sewers, fuel spills, chemical spills, etc

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3
Q
  1. You are a Lieutenant working an S/A tour in Engine 72. Shortly after roll call you are
    assigned with the Satellite to a 2nd alarm. The fire is in a vacant 3 story 200x800 waterfront
    warehouse. Shortly before you arrive the 3rd alarm is transmitted and an additional Battalion
    Chief is requested as a Water Resource Officer. Upon arrival you see heavy fire venting through
    the roof. The incident commander contacts you on the handie talkie and orders you to position
    the Satellite for use of the apparatus mounted large caliber streams. You would be correct to
    perform which action? (2.3, 4.4, 5.3, 5.4, 7.4, 7.6)
    a. Order the Satellite chauffeur to position the apparatus close to the building to ensure the
    deepest possible stream penetration
    b. You directed your ECC to use the drafting site identified on the Pre-incident guide even
    though the fireboat is on scene and able to pump to the Satellite
    c. In anticipation of connecting multiple supply lines to the Satellite, you ordered the use of
    the unchecked inlets first
    d. After positioning members with handie talkies at the deluge gun and supply pumper, you
    started water in the deluge gun on the order of the Battalion Chief designated as the Water
    Resource Officer.
A
  1. C

It is necessary to use the unchecked inlets first,
which will permit the use of the gated inlets to augment the supply without the necessity of
shutting down.

4.4 The use of a drafting site should be considered only if a fireboat cannot supply units of
the Satellite Water System due to inaccessibility, low tide, etc. Drafting is a time
consuming operation with many variables

5.3 Positioning of the Satellite Apparatus for use of deluge guns is much like deckpipe
placement. The further from the building, the better the angle achieved as the nozzle is
directed to higher floors. The best position is with the apparatus far enough from the
building so as to permit the deepest possible stream penetration.

7.4 To insure adequate water delivery and to effect safety controls, members with handitalkies
shall be positioned at deluge guns, manifolds, pumpers, and shut off gates of
appliances supplied by a Satellite Unit(s).

7.6 Satellite deluge guns, due to their powerful streams, shall not be placed in operation
except on orders of the Incident Commander.

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4
Q
  1. During MUD with the Satellite back-up company the Chief was discussing the manifold
    carried on the Satellite. Select the incorrect characteristic mentioned by the Chief. (5.5)
    a. The manifold has a 5” inlet and a Ross relief valve
    b. Two firefighters can easily carry the manifold
    c. The manifold has two 3” outlets and four 2 ½” gated outlets
    d. The manifold’s supply line may come from a 2,000 gpm pumper or any conventional
    pumper
A
  1. A

5.5 Satellite Units carry a manifold, which consist of a 4 1/2” inlet supplied by a 5” hose,
four 2 1/2” gated outlets, two 3” outlets, and a Ross Relief Valve. The newest manifolds,
presently carried by all units of the Satellite System, are portable and are capable of being
wheeled by one member or easily carried by two. Supplied remotely by 2,000 G.P.M.
pumpers or conventional pumpers, manifolds are effective at large operations where a
centrally located supply of water can contribute to the rapid stretching of individually
controlled hoselines.

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5
Q
  1. When the hydrant size being used to supply the Satellite water system is less than
    _____inches it is recommended that a second hydrant or another pumper augment the supply of
    water. (6.2)
    a. 6
    b. 8
    c. 12
    d. 16
A
  1. C
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6
Q
  1. You are the officer of the first arriving FDNY unit at a vehicle collision with a person
    pinned in the car. NYPD personnel were on scene prior to your arrival and have commenced
    extrication operations. According to the Citywide Incident Management System you, as the
    ranking FDNY officer, would be correct to: (1.3, 2.2, 5.1)
    a. Assume the role of incident commander for this single command incident
    b. Give tactical direction to NYPD officers conducting rescue operations
    c. Represent the FDNY in the unified command mandated for this type of incident
    d. Have FDNY units stand fast until the NYPD incident commander assigns a task
A
  1. B

2.2 If more than one agency is capable of performing the same tactical operations at an
incident, the agency with the core competency will give tactical direction, by the ranking
officer, to other agencies performing operations with that competency. (CIMS p.19)
FDNY will give tactical direction for the following incidents:
1. Directs operations connected with fire suppression.
2. Directs search and rescue of victims at fires, emergencies, confined space, collapse,
CBRN/hazardous material, aviation, railroad and auto incidents, utility emergencies,
etc. (water/ice rescue is directed by NYPD.)
3. Directs all pre-hospital emergency medical care.
4. Directs the evacuation of any structure.
5. Directs all life safety, patient care and decontamination operations at CBRN/Haz-Mat
incidents.
6. Directs operations connected with arson investigations (cause and origin).

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7
Q
  1. You are a Battalion Chief assigned to an alarm for a leaking canister in a public school (a
    Haz Mat response). Upon arrival you observe a large presence of NYPD personnel near the
    front of the school. As the 1st ladder company walks toward the front of the school to enter the
    building an NYPD Sergeant on a cell phone yells for them to stop saying the school is a crime
    scene. Which of the following choices is correct about this situation? (3.3, 3.4, 6.2.1)
    a. The NYPD has the right to restrict access to FDNY personnel in this situation because the
    NYPD investigative function is the top priority
    b. FDNY personnel are expected to utilize meters and conduct a hazard assessment in this
    situation
    c. The NYPD incident commander at this single command agency can overrule the FDNY
    tactical direction concerning Life Safety operations
    d. FDNY personnel may not exclude NYPD personnel from a site even when necessary to
    protect rescuer safety
A
  1. B

3.3 Life Safety Operations in progress will not be disrupted or suspended because of
transition of command to other agencies. At CBRN terrorist events, the Incident
Commander cannot overrule Fire Department tactical direction pertaining to Life Safety
Operations.

3.4 The Primary Agency directing Life Safety Operations may exclude non-essential
personnel from a site when necessary to protect public or rescuer safety until those tasks
are completed. (CIMS, p.17) Investigative operations, such as crime scenes, may be
initiated concurrently with Life Safety Operations. However, life safety concerns will
take precedence over investigation consideration until Life Safety Operations are
concluded. (CIMS, p.21)

6.2 At all CBRN/Haz-Mat Incidents, crime related or not, FDNY will perform the following tasks:
1. Hazard assessment for release and material identification including:
a. Use meters.
b. Use of analytic identification methods.
c. Use of test strips.

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8
Q
  1. Which of the following incidents are FDNY single command incidents? (5.1)
    a. Confined space rescue
    b. Water rescue
    c. Structural collapse
    d. Entrapment
    e. Elevator emergency
A
  1. A, C, D, E
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9
Q
  1. Once a unified operations post has been established each agency represented in the unified
    command will assign an individual as one of the unified operations section chiefs. How should
    these individuals be positioned at the operations section post? (addendum 3)
    a. Nose to nose
    b. Back to back
    c. Within arms’ distance
    d. At separate command boards
A
  1. C
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10
Q
  1. During study group one of the members was talking about the ABR program for public
    schools attended by non-ambulatory students. Which definition is not correct? (2.2-2.5)
    a. An ABR school requires a written fire drill and evacuation plan
    b. “ABR in process” schools are not substantially in compliance with Fire Prevention rules
    c. “Non-ABR” schools will not have non-ambulatory students enrolled
    d. An Individualized Safety Plan is required for non-ambulatory students attending class
    above the first floor in “ABR in process” schools
A
  1. C
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11
Q
  1. You are the officer of Tower Ladder 72 and are the first unit to arrive at a report of a fire in
    the rear on the third floor of a public school. The CIDS indicates this is an ABR school. Which
    is the correct action for you to immediately perform? (3, 4.2)
    a. Upon arrival supervise the positioning of the tower ladder in the courtyard to the
    designated evacuation window
    b. Conduct an exterior survey for indications of smoke or fire
    c. Contact the principal or person in charge to gather information about the non-ambulatory
    students
    d. Proceed to the reported location of the fire and have your chauffeur contact the principal
A
  1. C
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12
Q
  1. The Class “E” communications systems required by Local Law 5 provide communication
    capabilities throughout these buildings. Which characteristic is not stated correctly?
    a. There is two way communications between the fire command station and the air handling
    control rooms
    b. Elevator occupants can be contacted via the two way communication from the fire
    command station and they should hear the public address system
    c. All messages announced on the public address system are broadcast throughout the entire
    building to all floors, elevators and stairways collectively but not selectively
    d. The fire command station has the capability to transmit an alarm to the fire department via
    a central station
A
  1. C
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13
Q
  1. Manual fire alarm sending stations are required in Class E buildings. Which point made
    during BISP should be corrected? (7.2.4)
    a. If properly located, no point on any floor should be more than 200 feet from the nearest
    station.
    b. Upon activation an alarm is automatically transmitted to the fire department via a central
    station
    c. A visual and audible signal occurs at the fire command station when activated
    d. The alarms sounds at the regularly assigned location of the fire safety director and
    throughout the building
A
  1. D
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14
Q
  1. You are a Battalion Chief special called to a 10-76 to supervise the Search and Evacuation
    Group. While responding you review the characteristics of the floor warden stations where you
    plan to establish your position. Which are correct? (7.2.3)
    a. They shall be located on each floor between the required exits
    b. Provisions for making announcements over the loudspeaker system throughout the building
    c. It shall be provided with the capability to activate a visual and audible signal at the fire
    command station
    d. There is two-way voice communications with the fire command station
A
  1. A, C, D

D. Provisions for making announcements over the loudspeaker system on the
floor where it is located.

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15
Q
  1. During study group the topic of smoke detectors and sprinkler water flow alarms in Class E
    buildings was being discussed. The new guy made the following statements, which is incorrect?
    (7.2.5)
    a. The activation of the elevator landing smoke detector will recall the elevators
    b. If a smoke detector in the HVAC system activates, the fire alarm signal will sound on the
    fire floor and the floor above
    c. The activation of a sprinkler water flow alarm will unlock the doors on the locked fail safe
    system
    d. Only with the activation of an HVAC smoke detector will the air supply into and the return
    air from the affected floor be stopped
A
  1. D

7.2.5 An approved combustion ionization detection device or a combination of an
approved smoke detecting device and an approved fixed temperature thermostatic
device shall be installed

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16
Q
  1. Ladder company operations at hi rise office building fires are very specific. Which
    assignment is incorrectly stated for the first arriving ladder company? (8.3.1 B 1, C, E 4)
    a. They should obtain a copy of the floor plan for the fire area, if only one copy is available it
    should remain at the incident command post
    b. Have the LCC conduct a preliminary inspection of the exterior of the building
    c. Ensure an elevator remains in readiness two floors below the reported fire until the fire
    location has been confirmed
    d. Select a stairway with a standpipe that will provide the best attack on the fire
A
  1. C
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17
Q
  1. Which action for the 2nd to arrive Ladder Company at a high rise office building fire is
    incorrect? (8.4.2 A)
    a. They must report to the incident command post upon arrival
    b. Obtain an elevator car that provides safe access to the fire area
    c. If the elevator car used by the 1st ladder is available that car should be utilized by the 2nd
    ladder
    d. Regardless of how the 2nd ladder travelled to the fire area, a HT radio equipped member of
    the 2nd ladder shall operate and remain with an elevator car until relieved.
A
  1. D

If a different car must be utilized, a HT radio equipped member of
the 2nd ladder shall be assigned to remain with the elevator and
operate car until relieved.

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18
Q
  1. You are the Lieutenant working in Ladder 7 and assigned as the 3rd ladder on a 10-76.
    Upon arrival you are ordered by the incident commander to the floor above the fire. You would
    be correct to perform which action? (8.5.1)
    a. Proceed to the floor below the fire floor using a “Firemen Service” elevator
    b. Proceed to the floor above the fire via the attack stairway
    c. Examine the fire floor and report heat and smoke conditions to the ICP
    d. Remove all occupants from the attack stairway for a reasonable distance above the fire
    floor and prevent its use by the occupants
A
  1. D
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19
Q
  1. If difficulty is encountered in clearing the attack stairway of occupants, the officer shall
    advise ____________ to withhold the attack until the occupants have been safely removed.
    a. The officer of the 1st engine company
    b. The first arriving ladder company
    c. The Operations Section Chief
    d. The Incident Command Post
A
  1. B
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20
Q
  1. You are the first arriving Battalion Chief for a fire on the 33rd floor of a 48 story High Rise
    Office Building. Ladder 99 is the 4th due ladder. You would be correct to expect then to
    perform all of the following actions except? (8.6.1)
    a. Report to the incident command post with an extra cylinder for each member
    b. Take the high-rise bank of elevators to the roof regardless of fire location
    c. Do not perform roof ventilation unless ordered by the IC
    d. Conduct a primary search of the top five floors
A
  1. B
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21
Q
  1. You are the officer of the 1st arriving engine for a fire in a 35 story class 1 office building.
    You would be incorrect if you performed which action? (9.3.1)
    a. Remain at the incident command post until an elevator is available
    b. Stretch and operate a hoseline from an outlet on the floor below the fire
    c. Announce via the handie-talkie when the initial hoseline attack is to commence
    d. Contact the first ladder company to ascertain the attack stairway
A
  1. A
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22
Q
  1. The second hoseline stretched at a 10-76 can be used for all but which of the following
    tasks? (9.5.1 C)
    a. Reinforce the position of the first line
    b. Protect the position of the first line
    c. Extinguish fire on the floor above
    d. Protect the search and evacuation of the fire floor
    e. Contain and confine fire spread and/or prevent fire wrapping around the core and
    endangering operation of the first line
A
  1. C
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23
Q
  1. Engine and Ladder companies are often special called or assigned on greater alarms for
    high rise building fires. Which is correct about how these units report in to the incident?
    (8.7, 9.6)
    a. Greater alarm engine companies without specific orders should bring spare SCBA
    cylinders to the forward staging area
    b. Once the staging area outside the building has been established, special called engines shall
    report there upon arrival at the scene
    c. Special called ladder companies shall report to the incident command post if neither the
    lobby control unit nor the forward staging area are established
A
  1. B

8.7 Greater alarm or special called ladder companies after the fourth arriving ladder company
shall report to the ICP in the lobby or if staffed, the Lobby Control Unit. Upon the
establishment of a Staging Area outside the building, units will report into the Staging
Area. The Staging Area Manager will relay information on the units available in Staging
to the IC, or when staffed, the Operations Section Chief or Lobby Control Unit.

24
Q
  1. Which ladder company selects the stairway that is best stairway to be used by occupants for
    evacuation?
    a. 1st b. 2nd c. 3rd d. 4th
A
  1. C
25
Q
  1. You are a Lieutenant responding to a fire in a high rise office building equipped with an
    auxiliary radio communications system (ARCS). Which is the correct action? (3.1.1)
    a. If you are the first arriving engine company officer you will activate the building ARCS
    located at the Fire Command Station
    b. An FDNY 1620 key is required to activate the ARCS
    c. The only time to perform a functional test of the ARCS is after units are in place and
    operations are underway
    d. The dispatcher must be notified for relay to all incoming units if either in-house radios or
    FDNY handie talkie channels 11 or 12 are being utilized
A
  1. D

3.1.1 1st Arriving Ladder Company
1. Officer will activate Building ARCS (1620 Key or ON/OFF switch) at the
Fire Command Station, if so equipped.
2. Officer will instruct the member designated to staff the Incident Command
Post to monitor the tactical and/or repeater channel/relay messages.
3. Officer will remain on Channel 1 or switch his/her HT to the Building duplex
UHF radio repeater channel (Channel 11 / Channel 12), or acquire an in-house
radio for the investigation team, as appropriate.
4. Officer will ensure a functional test is performed prior to leaving the lobby
5. Officer will notify the Dispatcher for re-transmittal to all incoming units if the
Building duplex UHF radio repeater system and Channel (11 or 12) have been
activated or in-house radios are being used.
6. Officer and members will proceed to the location of the reported incident.

26
Q
  1. You are a recently promoted Battalion Chief and are assigned as the first BC for a reported
    office building fire. Upon your arrival the 1st truck officer notifies you he has a fire on the 27th
    floor in the kitchenette area. After transmitting the 10-76 you notify the dispatcher that the cross
    band repeater will be activated. You arrive at the incident command post and realize the cross
    band repeater has failed. You would be correct to perform which action? (3.1.5)
    a. Have a member in a Battalion vehicle contact the fire sector/branch on the 40 watt mobile
    UHF radio installed in the vehicle to relay messages
    b. Designate a member with a Post Radio to a position outside the building to relay messages
    to and from the fire sector/branch
    c. If the building has an ARCS, use the in-house proprietary radio channel as a Command
    Channel
    d. Attempt Post Radio to Post Radio communications from the Lobby Command Post
    e. Any of the above
A
  1. D

3.1.5 If the FDNY vehicle cross band repeater fails to operate or is not available, the
Incident Commander should attempt Post Radio to Post Radio communications.
If unsuccessful, then utilize any of the following:
A. Direct a member to a Battalion vehicle in order to contact the Fire
Sector/Branch on the 40 watt FDNY mobile UHF radio to relay messages.
B. Designate a member with a Post radio to take a position outside the building
to relay messages.
C. If all Post radio options fail to provide a viable communications link, then
utilize the ARCS as follows to establish a Command Channel:
1. If building is equipped with a duplex UHF radio repeater system,
designate a member to contact all established Posts (Fire Sector/Branch,
SAE Group, Forward SA) to set a HT to Channels 11 or 12 and use the
building duplex UHF radio repeater system as the Command Channel or
2. Use the in-house proprietary radio channel as the Command Channel.

27
Q
  1. Utilization of a building’s ARCS is only necessary if no other communication options are
    viable. Do you: (3.1.5 note)
    a. Agree or d. Disagree
A
  1. D

Notes:
• If Post to Post radio communication is viable, the ARCS should still be established as
a backup.
• Refer to Firefighting Procedures, High Rise Office Buildings for additional
communications alternatives.

28
Q
  1. The NYCTA subway system is equipped with a radio repeater system for FDNY use.
    Select the inaccurate statement about this system. (3.2)
    a. The IC should have the system tested to confirm it is functioning
    b. After confirmation that the subway repeater is functioning, only those members designated
    will remain on HT channel 1
    c. The NYC Transit duplex radio repeater system is always on and channel 14 on the FDNY
    handie talkie is the primary subway repeater channel
    d. The 1st arriving ladder company must establish an effective handie talkie relay whether the
    subway station is equipped with an operating repeater system or not
A
  1. B

• All FDNY members, other than those designated to switch to the repeater channel,
will remain on HT Channel 1.

29
Q
  1. The FDNY handie talkie (H/T) has channels that send and receive messages using two
    different types of technology; simplex and duplex. During the recent training course for the
    “Communications Engines”, the instructor made the following statements about simplex and
    dulplex channel capabilities. Which is the incorrect statement? (1.1)
    a. H/T channel 1 is a simplex channel which means the message is transmitted by one H/T
    will be received by another H/T on the same channel
    b. H/T channel 11 is a duplex channel which means a handie talkie transmits a message on
    one frequency but receives a signal back on a different frequency
    c. A repeater is required to boost the signal strength for duplex systems
    d. H/T channel 10 which allows CFR-D Engines to communicate with Bureau of EMS
    Ambulances, is a duplex channel
A
  1. D

1.1 The FDNY primarily communicates at fires and emergencies using handie talkie (HT)
radios (Motorola XTS-3500, Models I and III) programmed on ultra high frequency
(UHF) band (406-512 MHz) frequencies. The radios are programmed using analog
technology with both simplex and duplex channels. Simplex channels transmit and
receive (point-to-point) on the same frequency. The simplex HT channels are 1, 2, 3, 4,
5, 6, 7, 8, 10, 13 and 16. When using simplex channels, a message transmitted by a HT
will be received by another HT on the same channel if it is within range of the
transmitting radio. The range of a HT is determined by many factors including wattage,
antenna, topography, battery strength and obstructions. Duplex channels transmit on one
frequency but receive a signal back on a different frequency; therefore communications
on these channels is only possible when used in conjunction with a duplex UHF repeater
system. The duplex HT channels are 11, 12, 14, and 15.
Note: Channel 9 is a digital channel for future use.

30
Q
  1. Some buildings and other infrastructure such as tunnels and large transportation hubs have
    installed radio repeater systems for use by their employees and the FDNY. Which is the only
    correct statement about FDNY policy and these ARCS? (2.1.1)
    a. Some buildings’ radio repeaters have FDNY H/T repeater channels 14 and 15 programmed
    into it for FDNY use
    b. If a building’s radio repeater does not operate on an FDNY radio frequency, that system
    cannot be utilized by FDNY H/Ts.
    c. Use of so-called “In-house” radios, provided by building personnel, should be avoided due
    to unreliability and personnel accountability difficulties
    d. Buildings with a “leaky cable” require FDNY H/T duplex channels to be programmed if
    FDNY H/T are to utilize the system
A
  1. B

2.1.1 Types:
A. Duplex UHF Repeater (FDNY Programmed) - has a transmitter/receiver radio
which receives a signal on one frequency and simultaneously re-transmits it on
another frequency in the same UHF wavelength band. To allow the FDNY to use
our HTs with this system, the radio repeater is programmed to our duplex radio
frequencies. NYC Transit, WTC 7, and PATH Station (WTC) are examples of
this type radio repeater system.
B. Duplex UHF and Duplex VHF Repeaters (Proprietary) - some building
owners and agencies have maintained radio repeaters in their facilities which do
not operate on our frequencies. These systems cannot be utilized with FDNY
HTs. Generally, there are a limited number of in-house, UHF or VHF radios
stored at the site for use by FDNY members. The Incident Commander should
assign radios only as needed since there may also be no replacement batteries.
The Javits Center, Macy’s Department Store, and Grand Central Terminal are
examples of locations having these types of repeater systems.

31
Q
  1. You are a Lieutenant working your first day after FLSTP in Ladder 2. At 0915 you are
    assigned as the 1st due Truck for a report of fire at Grand Central Terminal. After fighting
    through heavy traffic you arrive first at the Grand Central rendezvous location. You would be
    correct to perform all but which of the following actions? (3.2.3 A)
    a. Activate the ARCS at the Fire Command Station
    b. Establish a H/T relay
    c. Designate a member to staff the incident command post
    d. Bring the Post Radio stored at the Fire Command Station to the incident location
A
  1. D

3.2.3 Other Infrastructure – Grand Central Terminal; Penn Station; PATH Station
(WTC); PATH Jersey City Line WTC)
A. 1st Arriving Ladder Company
1. Officer will activate the ARCS (1620 Key or ON/OFF switch) at the Fire
Command Station/Console, if so equipped.
2. Officer will instruct the member designated to staff the Incident Command
Post to monitor the tactical and/or repeater channel/relay messages.
3. Officer will remain on Channel 1, acquire in-house radios set to the
appropriate repeater channel, or switch HT to the duplex UHF radio repeater
channel (Channel 11 and 12), as appropriate.
4. Officer will ensure a functional test is performed prior to leaving the ICP.
5. Officer will notify the Dispatcher for re-transmittal to all incoming units if
in-house radios or Channel 11 and 12 are being used.
6. Officer and remaining members will proceed to the location of the reported
incident.
7. The HT relay (Channel 1-Primary Tactical) must still be established.

32
Q
  1. You are the first BC to arrive at the scene from the previous question where Ladder 2 is
    operating. After announcing your 10-84 you would be correct to perform which action?
    (3.2.3 B)
    a. Bring your Post Radio (set to channel 1) to the incident command post
    b. You or another member designated by you will monitor the in-house radio channel when in
    use
    c. While Ladder 2 is on the way to the incident location, you assess the functionality of the
    repeater system
    d. Order the use of the Post Radio to communicate with members at track level since its
    ability to communicate with below grade locations is superior to other available options
A
  1. B

B. 1st Arriving Battalion Chief
1. The Chief will take the Post radio (set to Channel 2) to the Incident Command
Post.
2. The Chief will ensure a communications link (HT relay, in-house radio
channel, Channel 11/12) is established with the 1st Arriving Ladder Officer.
3. The Chief will monitor or designate the Battalion Firefighter or another member
to monitor the duplex UHF radio repeater channel (Channel 11 and 12) or the
in-house radio channel when in use.
4. The Chief may designate the duplex UHF repeater channel or the in-house
radio channel as the Command Channel.
5. The Post radio can be used to establish a Command Channel on Channel 2.
Notes:
• Once operations are underway and conditions dictate, the Incident Commander (IC)
can assess the functionality of the repeater system.
• Once confirmed it’s functioning, the IC may attempt to use the repeater system as a
Command Channel.
• Experience has shown that the Post radio may prove unreliable when communicating
to below grade locations.
• Sound powered phones can be used as an additional communications network

33
Q
  1. You are the incident commander at an alarm where FDNY personnel are utilized an ARCS.
    After several transmissions have been sent and received on the ARCS it fails. You would be
    correct to perform all but which of the following actions? (2.2, 5.1-5.3)
    a. Attempt to contact members on Channel 16, the designated H/T emergency channel
    b. Ensure the ARCS channel is monitored if the service is restored
    c. Be aware the Post Radio has higher wattage than the UHF mobile radio in the Battalion
    vehicle
A
  1. A

5.1 FDNY personnel should be alert to the signs of ARCS failure. Indications may include
unusual periods of radio silence or continued inability to make radio contact on the
ARCS Channel(s). If an ARCS system is not operational, the Incident Commander (IC)
should attempt to contact members through utilization of the HT on Channel 1 (Primary
Tactical).

34
Q
  1. You are the Lieutenant of the FAST truck at a 10-76 where the building repeater is being
    utilized on channel 11. During the operation the repeater system fails. The incident command
    post is not able to contact several members that were operating on channel 11. The incident
    commander turns to you and tells you to attempt to contact the members on the reverse channel.
    You know the reverse channel for channel 11 is channel:
    a. 17 on the post radio
    b. 17 on the handie talkie
    c. 18 on the post radio
    d. 18 on the handie talkie
A
  1. A

Note: If the Building duplex UHF radio repeater system fails, consider utilizing the
Reverse Channels of Post radio or FDNY mobile UHF radio to transmit an emergency
message (AUC 207, Addendum 16, section 5).
On the post radio and the UHF mobile radio:
Channel 17 is the Reverse Channel for (Building Radio Repeater) Channel 11
Channel 18 is the Reverse Channel for (Building Radio Repeater) Channel 12
Channel 19 is the Reverse Channel for (Subway Radio Repeater) Channel 14
Channel 20 is the Reverse Channel for (Subway Radio Repeater) Channel 15

35
Q
  1. Burning buildings under construction are extremely dangerous to firefighters. Which
    hazard is incorrectly listed? (213-214)
    a. The major life hazard during the day will be workers on upper floors, especially the crane
    operator in the cab of the crane.
    b. After work hours there will be no major life hazard, only a collapse hazard.
    c. The dried out formwork supporting the freshly poured floors creates a maze-like layout.
    d. Propane and coal may be used to heat concrete during the curing stage
A
  1. B
36
Q
  1. Cranes collapse most often when they are overloaded and during fires. Do you: (215)
    a. Agree or d. Disagree
A
  1. D
37
Q
  1. You are the lieutenant of the first arriving unit for a fire in a building under construction.
    You observe heavy black smoke off the top of the building that is obscuring your view of the
    crane at the top. The Site Safety Officer meets you and says the fire is spreading towards the
    crane. You would be correct to order a collapse zone equal to:
    a. The height of the fire floor
    b. The height of the building
    c. The height of the crane
    d. 500 feet in all directions
A
  1. C
38
Q
  1. During drill a covering Lieutenant was discussing cast in place concrete buildings under
    construction. He made the following points, which is incorrect? (216)
    a. For a serious fire the strategy should be defensive, using outside large caliber streams.
    b. Floors are usually poured every 48 hours, “fast-track” projects are poured sooner.
    c. After 27 days concrete reaches its maximum strength
    d. Construction engineers state that if the formwork has been burned away within 24 hours of
    pouring the entire concrete floor can collapse.
A
  1. B
39
Q
  1. When heated to high temperatures concrete can spall. Which is a correct statement about
    spalling? (216-217)
    a. Spalling is the failure of the innermost layer of concrete
    b. Spalling is caused by the application of water on super heated concrete
    c. The only method of spalling is when the concrete simply drops, similar to a plaster ceiling
    collapse.
    d. Concrete always contains some small amounts of moisture
A
  1. D
40
Q
  1. The Captain of Engine 2 was discussing buildings under construction and their unique
    characteristics during a fire. Which is an incorrect statement? (218, 219)
    a. The most serious fires involve the combustible formwork used to support cast-in-place
    concrete floors
    b. Although many ignition sources exist in the worker’s shanty, the number one source is
    illegal smoking
    c. Even if charred, firefighters should not remove the supporting timbers of formwork during
    overhaul operations after extinguishing a small fire.
    d. If outside large caliber streams are being used to extinguish fires involving formwork
    supporting floors, all members should be removed from the building^. B
A
  1. B
41
Q
  1. You are a Battalion Chief and the incident commander for an incident involving an injured
    worker in a building under construction. Concerning the transportation of members to the
    location of the injured worker, which is correct? (221)
    a. Any hoist may be used to transport personnel
    b. Members should use the hoist suggested by the workers at the site
    c. Firefighting equipment may be sent to upper floors by way of the material hoist car as long
    as a firefighter is in the hoist to safeguard the gear
    d. Firefighters should only use hoists where the car operator rides inside the car
A
  1. D
42
Q
  1. Asbestos removal projects and fire protection systems in buildings under construction and
    renovation are important issues to firefighters. Which statements made during MUD are correct?
    (222-223)
    a. The EPA requires a floor undergoing asbestos removal to be sealed tight and placed under
    a vacuum
    b. An asbestos contaminated building is required by the EPA to be completely enclosed in
    plywood on all four sides
    c. If used, fire retardant plywood will not burn but may generate large quantities of smoke
    d. If during construction, the cap at the top of a standpipe is open, an effective firefighting
    stream may be attained but an additional line must be immediately stretched.
    e. If firefighters are unable to pump water to an upper floor hoseline, they should immediately
    search for the presence of an OS&Y valve and check its position
    f. The cellar outlet valve is usually installed and maintained open while the floor outlet valves
    are usually installed in the closed position.
A
  1. A, B
43
Q
  1. Which is incorrect about large caliber streams (LCS)? (227, 230)
    a. Any solid-stream nozzle 1 ½” in diameter are considered LCS
    b. Fog stream flowing more than 300 gpm are LCS
    c. The destructive pressure of a LCS is greatest in the area where the water leaves the nozzle
    d. The most serious collapse danger of LCS is brick or other building parts being blasted
    away from the building causing partial collapse
A
  1. D
44
Q
  1. Water accumulation in buildings during fire extinguishment operations is a safety issue
    which is compounded when multiple LCS are used. A Tower Ladder officer was discussing
    water accumulation during drill, which statement should be corrected? (227-228)
    a. An average tower ladder stream of 500 gpm can deliver 4,000 lbs per minute of water
    b. Most water will flow out of the building into the street
    c. On average 25% of the water will be absorbed by the building materials and contents
    d. In an effort to limit the amount of water, a LCS should only be directed at flame, never at
    smoke
A
  1. C
45
Q
  1. The use of a LCS frequently occurs in a smoke filled atmosphere that at times blocks a
    view of the building requiring firefighters to rely on their listening abilities. Which is correct
    about the sounds of an LCS? (230)
    a. If a “splattering” sound is made the stream is most likely striking the wall of a wooden
    building
    b. When the sound is a loud “drum beat” the stream likely entered a window or other opening
    c. A loud “drum” sound is made when the stream strikes a brick wall
    d. A distant rumble indicates the stream is being operated through an opening
A
  1. D
46
Q
  1. During drill on ladder pipe and other aerial master stream operations and placement the
    officer made several statements, which is not correct? (230,231)
    a. The aerial master stream nozzle is most effective when placed close to the window of the
    building
    b. The widest horizontal range is attained with the nozzle low in the window and 15’ from the
    building line
    c. When there is a danger of wall collapse the aerial master stream apparatus must be
    positioned out of the collapse zone
    d. The tip of the aerial device must be kept away from the wall a distance greater than the
    height of the wall above the bucket floor.
A
  1. B
47
Q
  1. During the Safety Coordinator’s class of the Battalion Chief’s Command Course a newly
    promoted BC made the following statements about the strategies for LCS use. In which two
    statements was the Chief correct?
    a. If a tower ladder is to be used for final extinguishment, the incident commander must
    prepare for total building collapse and withdraw all members from inside the building
    b. Defensive overhauling should only be performed for a limited time, generally 2 to 4 hours
    c. A LCS may be used for a “temporary knockdown” as long as all members leave the
    building
    d. Use of a LCS prior to an interior attack must be coordinated and approved by the incident
    commander
A
  1. A, D
48
Q
  1. The newly assigned Proby was telling the members of Engine 2 about the characteristics of
    the foam used in the FDNY. Which statement made by the Proby needs to be corrected?
    (2.1, 2.3.1, 2.3.7)
    a. Both high expansion (Hi-Ex) and low expansion foam are used in the FDNY
    b. Although Protein foam is not carried by the FDNY, it might be encountered at some bulk
    plants
    c. A class “A” combustible materials fire in the hold of a ship may be extinguished with Hi-
    Ex foam
    d. Aqueous Film Forming Foam (AFFF), which is used in our 2 ½ gallon foam extinguisher,
    is the one foam that can address all of the FDNY’s foam needs.
A
  1. D

2.3.1 There are a wide variety of foam concentrates, each designed to behave in slightly
different fashions for a specific purpose. There is not any one specific foam
concentrate that will solve every problem the department faces. Different
concentrates may be required for different fuels. Concentrates that work well on
most fuels have other drawbacks that prohibit their use in everyday operations,
such as freezing considerations or corrosiveness of the concentrate. For this
reason, the FDNY finds it necessary to utilize a number of foam concentrates.

49
Q
  1. Select the correct statements about the use of foam in the FDNY (2.2 C, 2.4 A,
    2.3.5, 4.2)
    a. When a pre-mixed foam solution is used from an extinguisher a foam handline should be
    made ready
    b. It is permissible, under certain circumstances, to pour foam concentrate into the booster
    tank of an Engine apparatus
    c. The pour points of all foam concentrate used by the FDNY is above freezing
    d. Different types of foam concentrate should never be mixed for storage in tanks
    e. Two different types of low expansion foam may be used simultaneously
    f. Hi-Ex and Low Expansion foam may be used together
    g. Foam cannot prevent ignition, it is only intended to extinguish active flames
A
  1. A, B, C, D, E
50
Q
  1. Mixing water and foam concentrate in the proper ratios will produce foam solution; FDNY
    members have several options to achieve this mixture. Which choice indicates an incorrect
    understanding of the FDNY foam policy? (2.4)
    a. One method to make foam solution is by inserting an eductor in the hoseline which will
    mix foam concentrate into the flowing water
    b. The easiest method to make foam solution is to utilize the Foam Injection Metering Module
    (FIMM) found on all new (2012) FDNY engine apparatus
    c. When using the FIMM, concentrate is injected into the pump where it mixes with water
    and is discharged as foam solution. No eductor is needed.
    d. If an eductor is not available concentrate can be dumped directly into the booster tank. The
    engine being used should not be connected to a hydrant.
A
  1. B

Foam solution can be produced by injecting a supply of concentrate at the proper
proportion into a pumper that is also receiving a source of water. The foam and
water mix in the pump and are discharged as solution. This is accomplished by
means of the Foam Injection Metering Module (FIMM) built into the Satellite
pumpers. Satellite Units also carry a portable FIMM, which can be used if the
built-in FIMM is out-of-service or the back-up Satellite Unit with a conventional
pumper will operate

51
Q
  1. You are a Battalion Chief working in Battalion 5 on an overcast Saturday day tour. In
    preparation for supervising multi-unit drill you review the companies assign to Battalion 5.
    When you notice that Engine 13 has a Foam Carrier you write down a few notes about Foam
    Carriers. Which of the following are incorrect? (6.3)
    a. Foam carriers cannot pump concentrate to other units while also being supplied with water
    and used to for direct fire attack
    b. All Foam Carriers carry 1000 gallons of fluoroprotein concentrate
    c. A 7500 CFM Hi-Ex foam generator and 50 gallons of Hi-Ex concentrate are stored on the
    Foam Carriers
    d. When special called to alarms, a maximum of three members are permitted to ride in the
    Foam Carrier
    e. Foam Carriers have the ability to pump concentrate to the Foam Tender
    f. If a Foam Carrier is designated as an attack unit on a gasoline truck fire, a water source
    should be identified prior to the units arrival
A
  1. B, C, D

6.3.1 For incidents that exceed the foam capabilities of the first alarm units, the
Department has placed 10 Foam Carriers in service. These units are pumpers that
have been specially outfitted for foam operations. They carry no water; instead
their booster tanks are filled with 1000 gallons of Fluoroprotein concentrate or
Alcohol Resistant Fluoroprotein Foam (Fluoropolydol). They are equipped with
a preconnected 310 GPM foam deck pipe and portable eductors for hand line
operations as well as 10 lengths of 3½” hose for water supply. They also carry a
7500-CFM Hi-Ex foam generator. Due to weight restrictions, they shall carry
five 5-gallon cans of Hi-Ex and five 5-gallon cans of Alcohol Resistant
Fluoroprotein foam concentrate. Also, a maximum of two members, including
the Chauffeur, shall be permitted to ride in the Foam Carrier.

52
Q
  1. A covering Deputy Chief unfamiliar with the capabilities of the Satellite Units with respect
    to the FDNY Bulk Foam Delivery System made the following statements during MUD. Select
    the only correct statement. (6.4.1)
    a. The Foam Injection Metering Module needs to be attached to any inlet of the Satellite’s
    regular 2,000 gpm pumper.
    b. The 500 gpm aerating foam nozzle carried by the Satellite can be placed directly on the
    discharge threads of any engine’s deckpipe after it is fitted with a special adapter
    c. The 1,000 gpm Angus Cannon can be attached directly on the discharge threads any Tower
    Ladder waterway or Satellite monitor
    d. Satellites carry approximately 160 gallons of Hi-Ex concentrate and a Hi-Ex foam
    generator
A
  1. D

6.4.1 Satellite Units
A. The units of the Satellite system provide three key components of the Foam
Delivery System:
1. The 2,000-gallon per minute pumpers provide the proportioning function
through their FIMM when concentrate is pumped into it.
2. The accompanying Satellite apparatus provides large capacity nozzles;
both 500 GPM and 1,000 GPM aerating foam nozzles. The 500 GPM
model may be placed directly onto the discharge threads of any
2½ appliance, including a Tower Ladder.
3. The 1,000-gallon per minute Angus Cannon can be used on the Satellite
monitor or can be fitted with a special adapter for attachment to any
Tower Ladder waterway. The Satellites carry the adapter and the
wrenches necessary to fit the 1000 GPM Angus Foam Cannon to
Tower Ladders.
B. The Satellites carry a 7,500 CFM High Expansion Foam Generator.
C. They also carry approximately thirty-two 5-gallon cans of Hi-Ex
concentrate.

53
Q
  1. A first alarm assignment of three engines and two ladders should provide how many
    gallons of foam concentrate?
    a. 50
    b. 60
    c. 65
    d. 75
A
  1. C
54
Q
  1. You are a Battalion Chief responding as a Foam Coordinator on the transmission of a
    signal 10-87. While responding you review foam operations and the Foam Coordinators duties.
    Which is incorrect? (6.4.3)
    a. Two Foam Coordinators should be responding to this incident
    b. Report to the incident commander, do not go to the Staging Area if one has been
    established
    c. This is a Hi-Ex foam operation
    d. After the operation is complete, the first to arrive foam coordinator must request a foam
    inventory through the dispatcher only if a 10-86 was transmitted
A
  1. D
  2. Upon completion of a major foam operation, the first to arrive Foam
    Coordinator must request a foam inventory through the dispatcher.
    The Dispatcher will notify Foam Depots via teleprinter to provide an
    inventory
55
Q
  1. The FDNY uses several different types of foam. Which are the correct statements?
    (3.1.2, 3.2.1, 3.4.2, 3.5, 3.6.3)
    a. 5-gallon containers of Fluoropolydol concentrate are color coded brown
    b. Alcohol resistant foam is the superior extinguishing concentrate for both hydrocarbons and
    alcohol fuels8. B, E
    c. AFFF is the most widely used concentrate in the FDNY
    d. Limited supplies of Alcohol Resistant Aqueous Film Forming Foam are stocked by the
    Haz Mat Unit
    e. A dry chemical extinguisher should be discharged into the foam stream to extinguish three
    dimensional fires of burning fuel.
A
  1. B, E

3.1.2 Distribution
Fluoroprotein foam is the most widely used concentrate in the department.
Five-gallon cans are issued to every engine and ladder company. It is stored in
bulk on the Foam Tender and in the Foam Carriers. Marine companies also are
issued 55-gallon drums of this foam.

3.5 Foam Concentrate Identification
It is imperative that the correct foam concentrate is used for the correct situation.
To insure that the foam concentrates do not get mixed, they are color-coded (banded)
around the top, as follows:
• Fluoroprotein BROWN
• Alcohol GREEN
• Hi-Expansion YELLOW
• AFFF BLACK

3.4.2 Distribution
Although the FDNY does not stock or use ARAFFFs, it is very common in the oil
industry and could be encountered at any operation involving mutual aid