Oral Med Flashcards

(94 cards)

1
Q

What form of congenital heart defect needs abx prophy?

A

Cyanotic
5 that start wit T

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What drug is used in pt’s that have a pen allergy for abx prophy?

A

Azithromycin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

COndition where kidneys are unable to retain water
Body can’t produce or react to ADH properly
Polydipsia and polyuria

A

Diabetes Insipidus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

ESRD that is undergoing dialysis is what ASA class?

A

ASA 3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What should be done for a pt that is choking and unconscious?

A

CPR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What should be used to check pulse in children?

A

Carotid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What should be used to check pulse in infants and babies?

A

Brachial artery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Pt is overweight, has elevated Hb, peripheral edema, coughing and wheezing: what we got here?

A

Chronic bronchitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Does chronic bronchitis affect inspiration or expiration?

A

Both

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Does emphysema affect inspiration or expiration?

A

Expiration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Pt is older and thin, severe dyspnea, quiet chest, xray hyperinflation with flattened diaphragm?

A

Emphysema

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What are the 4 classes of drugs that can be used to treat COPD?

A

Anticholinergics (Tropiums)
Beta-Adrengergic Agonists (Epi, albuterol)
Corticosteroids (Prednisone)
Phosphodiesterase Inhibitors (Theophylline)
ABCD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What are the 5 classes of drugs that can be used to treat asthma?

A

Antihistamines (Diphenhydramine)
Beta-adrenergiic agonist (Epi, albuterol)
Corticosteroids (prednisone)
Decongestant (Pseudophedrine)
Leukotriene Rc Antagonists (Montelukast)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is Cushing’s syndrome main hormone effect?

A

Increased Cortisol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What hormone is the sign of primary Cushing’s?

A

Increased cortisol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What hormone is sign of secondary Cushing’s?

A

INcreased ACTH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What hormone is sign of tertiaryCushing’s?

A

INcreased CRH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Moon facies, buffalo hump, central obesity, HTN, Hypercalcemia, and mood changes/chronic tiredness are symptoms of _____

A

Cushings

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is the condition where cortisol is less very decreased?

A

Addison’s ds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Hyperpigmentation, Immuncompromised, fatigue, muscle weakness, and weight loss are symtoms of _____

A

Addison’s ds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is the biggest concern in an Addisonian crisis?

A

Hypovolemic shock

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What are the 4 phases of hemostasis in order?

A

Vascular (vasoc)
Platelet plug
Coagulation
Fibrinolytic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What are the 2 extrinsic clotting factors?

A

3 and 7

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What are ht e 3 intrinsic factors of coag?

A

12, 11, 9

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
What are the 3 comon pathway clotting factors?
10, 2, 1
26
What clotting factor and pathway does Hemophilia A affect?
Factor 8 intrinsic pathway
27
What clotting factor and pathway does Hemophilia B affect?
Factor 9 intrinsic pathway
28
What clotting factor and pathway does Hemophilia C affect?
Factor 11 intrinsic pathway
29
What are the vitamin K dependent clotting facotrs?
2, 7, 9, 10
30
Von willebrand ds affects what clotting factor?
Factor 8 (intrinsic)
31
_____ drug pulls thrombin and anti-thrombin together blocking factor 2
Heparin
32
____ drug inhibits factor Xa
Apaxiban
33
____ drug directly binds to thrombin (Factor IIa)
Dabigatran
34
Does aPTT test intrinsic or extrinsic coag?
Intrisic
35
Does PT/INR test extrinsic or intrinsic coag?
Extrinsic
36
How does use of Marijuana affect heart rate?
Tachycardia
37
____ drug blocks reuptake of dopamine, serotonin, and NE Abuse can lead to tachycardia, arrhythmias, HTN, pupil dilation, heart attack or stroke
Cocaine
38
Do amphetamines increase or decrease CNS?
Increaase
39
DO opiods cause xerostomia?
No
40
________ are a class of drugs that stimulate the central nervous system for the purpose of managing attention deficit hyperactivity disorder; also promote weight loss by causing appetite suppression. Amphetamines are also are used to manage daytime sleepiness due to narcolepsy and are associated with depression due to withdrawal.
Amphetamines
41
Autoantibodies that target the TSH rc and stimulate the release of thyroid hormone Fatigue, nervousness, heat intolerance, weight loss, tachycardia, exophthalmos, goiter
Graves ds
42
Stress leads to tachycardia, a fib, sudden fever, sweating, and loss of consciousness Tx w/ hydrocortisone, glucose, and propylthiouracil
Thyrotoxic crisis
43
The following are symptoms of ______: Weight gain, cold intolerance, bradycardia, goiter, Wormian bones
Hypothyroidism
44
____ is severe hypothyroidism in children seen w/ severely stunted physical and mental growth
Cretinism
45
____ is associated with severe hypotension Stress leads to bradycardia, severe hypotension, low body temp Tx: Levothyroxine, glucose
Myxedematous coma
46
_____ involves multiple neuromas, medullary thyroid carcinoma, and pheochromomcytoma of the adrenal gland
MEN2
47
What organ is the most common site of origin for metastasis to the thyroid gland
Kidney
48
Which thyroid condition is assc with delayed eruption of teeth, macroglossia, xerostomia, and radiating pain
Hypothyroidism
49
The following are signs of _____: Kidney stones, painful bones, ab groans, psychiatirc moans Browns tumors Generalized loss of lamina dura Salt and pepper Elevated alkaline phosphatase levels Loss of bone trabeculation
Hyperparathyroidism
50
The following are signs of _____: Paresthesai and tetany RO in skull by basal ganglia Pitted enamel hypoplasia Late eruption Dilaceration Increased RO in jaws
Hypoparathyoidism
51
In case of hyperparathyroidism, how is Ca affected?
iNcreased ca in blood and less accumulation in bone
52
In case of hypoparathyroidism, how is Ca affected?
Increased Ca in bone and less in blood
53
_______ presents in pregnancy is assc w/ high blood pressure, proteinuria, edema, and blurred vision
Preeclampsia
54
Are cat A good or bad for pregnancy?
Good
55
Cat D pregnancy drugs good or bad?
Bad
56
If preg pt, how ot treat supine hypotension syndrome?
Roll on left side
57
Oral manifestaions of _____ Gingivitis Increased caries risk Pyogenic granuloma SInus congestion Dental eriosion Hypersensitive gag reflex
Preg
58
Are HDL or LDL better for you?
HDL
59
Oral manifestations of _____ Increased calcification in pulp chamber Muscle pain and weakness INcreased Perio Ds
High cholesterol and Statins
60
What is most common H and N cancer?
SCC
61
Is HIV RNA or DNA virus?
RNA retrovirus
62
What is the CD4 count assc with AIDS?
<200
63
What is the main Dx test for HIV?
ELISA
64
What is the main bacteria involved in peptic ulcers?
H Pylori
65
What is the second leading cause of peptic ulcers?
Chronic NSAID use
66
What sleep cycle does obstructive events typically happen in children?
REM sleep
67
What oral finding is seen in the following conditions? Pierre Robin sequence Treacher collins Craniofacial microsomia
Mandibular hypoplasia
68
What oral finding is seen in the following conditions? MEN2B Abeckman Wideman's syndrome Amyloidosis Acromegaly Hypothyroidism
Macroglossia
69
What is the classification system to determine size of tonsils?
Brodsky score
70
WHat Ig is the most common? Principal antibody?
IgG
71
What Ig is the first responder?
IgM
72
What Ig is in saliva?
IgA
73
What 2 Heps are fecal oral?
A and E
74
What 2 Heps are got from contaminated blood?
C and B
75
2-6 week incubation period Acute rapid onset Doesn't lead to chronic ds or carrier state Jaundice, fever, malaise, loss of appetit, nausea Vax available
Hep A
76
High risk transmission 1-6 month incubation DNA virus (Dane particle) Jaundice, fever, malaise, loss of appetite, nausea Vax available OSHA requres that employers make the vax freely available to employees occupationally exposed to blood PEP available
Hep B
77
What form of Hep is the only DNA virus?
Hep B
78
What form of Hep does OSHA require that employers make the vax freely available?
Hep B
79
Most common bloodborne pathogen in US Low risk of transmission 2 week-6 month incubation period Usually asymptomatic No vax available, but tx is
Hep C
80
Oral manifestations of ____ Jaundice, petechiae, fetor hepaticus, atrophic glossitis, xerostomia, lichen planus, hepatocellular carcinoma
Liver dysfunction
81
Which Hep is a superinfection assc with another hep virus?
Hep D
82
The oral manfestations of ____ are: Leukoplakia SCC Nictotinic stomatitis Smoker's melanosis Hairy tongue Halitosis Smokeless tobacco keratosis Perio ds
Smoking
83
The following drugs are used to tx _____: Isoniazid
Latent TB
84
The following drugs are used to tx _____: Isoniazid Rifampin Pyrazinamide Ethambutol
Active TB
85
______ Acid fast bacillus Co infection with HIV common Spread via droplet nuclei
TB
86
____ is the TB skin test
Mantoux skin test
87
Are dental employees requred to get a TB test prior to beginning work?
Yes
88
ORal manifestations of _____ Ulcer Tuberculous osteomyelitis Scrofula
TB
89
Cancer of plasma cells -IgG, IgA, IgD Bone resorption and bone marrow replacement Anemia, leukopenia, thrombocytopenia Death by infection or renal failure Elderly
Multiple myeloma
90
Bence-JOnes protein found in urine is suggestive of _____
Multiple myeloma
91
The following drugs tx ____ Thalidomide Borrtexomib Bisphosphonates
Multiple myeloma
92
Oral manifestations of _____: PUnched out RL Amyloidosis of tongue Paresthesia Dysphagias
Multiple myeloma
93
Oral manifestations of ____: Oral submucous fibrosis SCC Attrition Gingival recession Extrinsic staining NOT XEROSTOMIA
Betel quid
94
Seed of areca palm fruit Quid= leaf package for chewing CNS stimulant similar to cocaine
Betel nut/quid