Oral Path and Radio: Bootcamp

Question 1

If a pathological biopsy reveals cells with duct-like structures in a background of myxoid stroma, that cells are most likely to have proliferated?

Answer 1

Myoepithelial

Question 2

Where are granular cell tumors most commonly located in the oral cavity?

Answer 2

ANterior tongue

Question 3

IF a biopsy revelas the following, what is it?
-Dome shaped tumor, keratin pearls, and hyperchromatic nuclei

Answer 3

Keratocanthoma

Question 4

Common dentoalveolar anomalies associated with _______

supernumerary teeth
missing teeth
ectopic teeth
crossbite
retrusive maxilla
oro-nasal fistulas.

Answer 4

cleft lip and palate:

Question 5

What is the treatment for a traumatic bone cyst?

Answer 5

Curretage

Question 6

IF an amalgam filling is placed and gingiva surrounding presents erythematous and with white striae, what should you do?

Answer 6

Remove amalgam

Question 7

iF an HIV + pt presents with a white plaque on lateral borders of the tongue that can’t be wiped off, what caused it?

Answer 7

EBV
(Candida can be wiped off)

Question 8

Cytomegalovirus is assc with what HHV virus?

Answer 8

HHV 5

Question 9

WHat causes the blue hue of a mucocele?

Answer 9

Vascular congestion

Question 10

Histology of the excisional biopsy of the lesion reveals lots of granulation tissue and multinucleated giant cells

What is this lesion?

Answer 10

Peripheral giant cell granuloma
(Pyogenic granuloma does not have multinucleated giant cells0

Question 11

What bacteria typically causes erysipelas?

Answer 11

Strep pyogenes

Question 12

If a pt has a lesion suspicous of herpetic ulcer, what type of biopsy technique should be used?

Answer 12

Cytological smear

Question 13

Is a ranula trauma related or due to a sialolith?

Answer 13

Trauma

Question 14

WHat cell is malfunctioning in the case of a OKC?

Answer 14

Basal cells

Question 15

WHat cell is malfunctioning in the case of a Langerhans cell histiocytosis?

Answer 15

Dendritic cells

Question 16

WHat cell is malfunctioning in the case of a central ossifying fibroma?

Answer 16

fibroblasts

Question 17

WHat cell is malfunctioning in the case of a osteoblastomas?

Answer 17

Osteoblasts

Question 18

What Dx has Verocay bodies in Antoni-A areas?

Answer 18

Schwannoma

Question 19

IF a pt is on cyclophosphoamide, what is the pt more likely to have an infection of?

Answer 19

Herp zoster

Question 20

When Can pregnant pts receive radiographs?

Answer 20

At any point during pregnancy

Question 21

What is the radiographic presentation of sickle cell anemia?

Answer 21

Step ladder trabeculae

Question 22

Which of the following causes contrast differences in radiographs?
Size of sensor
Exposure time
Beam collimation
mAs

Answer 22

Beam collimation

Question 23

Where are structures that appear as double images positioned in a pano?

Answer 23

Near midline

Question 24

What is the best radiographic modality when a pt is experiencing trismus and limited mouth opening?

Answer 24

Pano

Question 25

IN the case of a subcondylar fracture, what direction is the condyle being pulled?

Answer 25

Anteriorly and medially by lateral pterygoid

Question 26

If an impacted tooth is resorbing an already erupted tooth, what type of resorption is happening?

Answer 26

External inflammatory resorption

Question 27

What is the best imaging modality to locate a broken needle that has gone into the submand space?

Answer 27

Occlusal or CT

Question 28

What is the first line treatment for a pt with ectodermal dysplasia

Answer 28

Ortho

Question 29

___________ is a neurological disorder that can result in recurrent facial paralysis, granulomatous swelling of the lips and face, and a fissured tongue. This syndrome usually becomes evident in young children and adolescents, and the cause is unknown.

Answer 29

Melkersson-Rosenthal syndrome

Question 30

__________ is a rapidly progressive muscle weakness caused by immune-mediated peripheral nervous system inflammation. It involves progressive muscle weakness beginning in the extremities that spreads proximally. -Usually preceeded by an infection

Answer 30

Guillain-Barre syndrome (GBS)

Question 31

The disease process characteristic of tuberculosis is an example of which type of necrosis?

Answer 31

Caseous

Question 32

This is the most common type of necrosis. It usually occurs due to hypoxia and results in the coagulation of proteins. One important thing to note is that tissue architecture is maintained -This type of necrosis can occur in all cells of the body except for the brain.

Answer 32

Coagulative necrosis

Question 33

The main mechanism involved in this necrosis is enzymatic destruction. This, as the name suggests, leads to liquefaction and loss of tissue architecture. This type of necrosis usually occurs in the brain or as a result of bacterial infection.

Answer 33

LIquefactive necrosis

Question 34

Cafe Au Lait spots are present in what syndrome?

Answer 34

McCune Albright

Question 35

What is the maximum viral load count of human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) considered to be "undetectable" in a patient?

Answer 35

<50 copies/mL

Question 36

Background and/or Patient History Optic glioma Patient has vision loss in the right eye Current Findings Multiple pigmented lesions on the patient’s iris Pigmented lesion seen on the patient’s arm

Answer 36

Neurofibromatosis type 1

Question 37

Which ganglion is HSV latent in?

Answer 37

Trigeminal gang

Question 38

_______ is a condition of possible autoimmune or familial origin characterized by hypopigmentation of the skin due to an acquired loss of melanocytes. This condition causes areas of patching with loss of skin pigmentation, usually appearing white or pink. This can occur on any location of the body, including the hair and the oral cavity.

Answer 38

Vitiligo

Question 39

_______ necrosis which describes tissue death caused by extreme ischemia, oftentimes localized to the extremities.

Answer 39

Gangrenous

Question 40

________ refers to high blood pressure that does not have a known or identifiable cause. It is also referred to as primary hypertension. This is the most common form of hypertension, with a prevalence of 90% for all hypertension cases.

Answer 40

Essential hypertension

Question 41

Each of the following are common features of multiple myeloma EXCEPT one. Which is the EXCEPTION? Hypocalcemia Anemia Lytic bone lesions Dence Jones Proteinuria

Answer 41

Hypocalcemia

Question 42

______ presents as an acute, large, doughy swelling that causes severe and generalized pain.

Answer 42

Cellulitis

Question 43

What can caused an enlarged tongue in Rheumatoid arthritis?

Answer 43

AMyloidosis

Question 44

An increase in stimulated salivary output is seen in which of the following conditions? Sjogren's syndrome SLE Lichen planus Mononucleosis

Answer 44

Mononucleosis

Question 45

How do you handle a situation where a pt is symptomatic Tb and is seeking elective dental care?

Answer 45

Delay care until pt has been declared noninfectious by a physician

Question 46

Which of the following HPV strains are assc with oropharyngeal cancer? 2 6 11 16

Answer 46

HPV 16

Question 47

What lab value is increased in osteomalacia?

Answer 47

Alkaline phosphatase

Question 48

________ is an autosomal dominant disorder characterized by the presence of lower lip pits and either cleft lip with/without cleft palate or isolated cleft palate. Lip pits form as a result of improper fusion of the four growth centers of the lower lip in fetal development. The patient has had repair of her cleft lip and lip pits, but has a persisting cleft palate.

Answer 48

Van der Woude syndrome

Question 49

What bacterial growth phase do abx ideally attack bacteria in?

Answer 49

Log phase

Question 50

The majority of bacteria in the oral cavity fall into which of the following temperature requirement categories? Mesophile Psychotroph Thermophile Hyperthermofile

Answer 50

Mesophile

Question 51

What bacteria causes infective endocarditis?

Answer 51

Strep viridans

Question 52

What are the oxygen requirements for the majority of the bacteria in the oral cavity?

Answer 52

Facultative anaerobe

Question 53

All of the following are microorganisms found in an odontogenic periapical radiolucency EXCEPT one. Which is the EXCEPTION? Lactobacillus Fusobacterium Actinomyces Enterofaecalis

Answer 53

Lactobacillus

Question 54

What should you do about scheduling a pt with erypsielas with an active infection?

Answer 54

Refer to PCP to get Abx prior to scheduling

Question 55

The bacterial enzyme glucosyltransferase, of Streptococcus mutans, produces which polysaccharide that contributes to the adherent properties of dental plaque?

Answer 55

Dextran

Question 56

What bacteria does clinda not have any activity against?

Answer 56

Pseudomonas aureginosa

Question 57

Which of the following types of cancer is most commonly associated with Epstein Barr virus? ORal Nasopharyngeal Oropharyngeal Salivery gland

Answer 57

Nasopharyngeal

Question 58

Does Cleidocranial dysplasia present with hypo or hyperdontia?

Answer 58

Hyperdontia

Question 59

Factor V leiden casuses what complication of the jaws?

Answer 59

Osteonecrosis

Question 60

What is the most likely diagnosis of the findings? Current Findings Right eye ptosis and miosis Right-sided facial anhidrosis

Answer 60

Horner syndrome

Question 61

What is the treatment of choice for regional odontodysplasia?

Answer 61

Removable partial dentures