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Pharm: Mental Dental Flashcards

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1
Q

What is the ideal drug to use for Ab prophy if. pt is allergic to Pen?

A

Azithromycin

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2
Q

Can Clinda be the correct answer if seen on the INBDE for ABx prophy if pt is allergic to pen or amox?

A

yes if azithro isn’t an answer choice

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3
Q

Mechanism of Action:

Damages microbial DNA and inhibits nucleic acid synthesis via reactive oxygen species
Indications:

is commonly prescribed in dentistry as a second line treatment that complements another antibiotic such as amoxicillin.

A

Metronidazole

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4
Q

Penicillin is cross-allergenic with ________, which is another β-lactam antibiotic, due to their similar chemical structure

A

cephalosporins

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5
Q

Mechanism of Action:

Inhibits protein synthesis (30s ribosomal subunit)
Indications:

Used as an adjunct in periodontal therapy
Concentrates well in the gingival crevicular fluid
Inhibits matrix metalloproteinases (MMPs) and helps prevents breakdown of collagen in gingival tissues

A

Tetracyclines (30s)

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6
Q

Mechanism of Action:

Protein synthesis inhibitor (50s ribosomal subunit)
Indications:

Commonly used in dentistry as an alternative to penicillin

A

Macrolides (50s)

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7
Q

___ LAs are metabolized in the liver

A

Amides
-Ones we use

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8
Q

_____ LAs are metabolized by pseudocholinesterase in plasma

A

Esters

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9
Q

What amide is the safest in children?

A

2% Lido

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10
Q

What amide is no safe in children?
-Longest duration

A

0.5 % Bupivicaine

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11
Q

What amide causes the least vasodilation?

A

2 or 3 %Mepivicaine

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12
Q

Which amide has one ester chain?
-Shortest duration

A

4% Articaine

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13
Q

What amide is linked to methemoglobinemia?

A

Prilocaine

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14
Q

Which ester is a vasoconstrictor?

A

Cocaine

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15
Q

What form of the drug can penetrate neuron membrane?

A

Non-ionized

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16
Q

How does increased blood flow affect duration of action?

A

Shorter duration of action

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17
Q

How does increased lipid solubility/ hydrophobicity affect duration of action and potency?

A

MOre potent, longer duration of action

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18
Q

How does increased protein binding affect duration of action?

A

Longer duration of action

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19
Q

How does decreased pKa affect onset of action?

A

Faster onset

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20
Q

How many mg of liquid is in a carp?

A

1.8 g 1800 mg

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21
Q

What is max dose of lido without epi in mg/kg?

A

4.4 mg/kg

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22
Q

What is max dose of lido with epi in mg/kg?

A

7 mg/kg

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23
Q

How deep in. mm should you go for a PSA block?

A

16 mm

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24
Q

What max nerve block has a high hematoma risk?

A

PSA

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25
Which nerve block hits the ASA and MSA?
Infraorbital block
26
Bacteriostatic Folate synthesis inhibitor (competes with PABA) -Causes folic acid deficiency
Sulfonamides Sulfadiazine, Sulfamethoxazole
27
Bactericidal DNA synthesis inhibitor
Fluoroquinolones -Floxacins
28
Bactericidal Cell wall synthesis inhibitor, B lactam Cross allergenic with cephalosporins K: oral G: IV
Penicillins
29
Is Pen V or Pen G oral?
Pen V
30
What penicillin has the broadest gram negative spectrum?
Ampicillin
31
What penicillin is used specficially against pseudomonas?
Carbenicillin
32
Bacteriostatic Protein synthesis inhibiotr (30 S) Broadest antimicrobial spetrum
Tetracyclines Doxycycline
33
Bacteriostatic Protein synthesis inhibiotr (50 S)
Macrolides Erythromycin
34
What Abx has the broadest antimicrobial spectrum?
Tetracyclines
35
What drug is the drug of choice for prosthetic joint abx prophy?
Keflex 2 g
36
What ABX causes GI upset and pseduomonas colitis?
Clinda
37
What ABX is assc with aplatic anemia
Cholramphenicol
38
What ABX is assc with liver damage?
Tetracyclines
39
What ABX is assc with allergic cholestatic hepatitis?
Erythromycin estolate
40
Which antifungal is in troche form?
Clotrimazole
41
What NSAID is assc with GI issues more than others?
Aspirin
42
What NSAID is assc with kidney issues?
Ibuprofen
43
What 2 NSAIDs are selective Cox 2 blockers?
Meloxicam and Celecoxib
44
What NSAID is assc with blood dyscrasias?
Indomethacin
45
Which analgesic is assc with liver issues?
Acetaminophen
46
How does aspiriin cause analgesic and anti inflammatory response?
Inhibit PG2 synthesis via Cox 1 and 2
47
How does the antipyretic action of aspirin work?
Inhibits PG synthesis in temp regulation center of hypothalamus
48
HOw do corticosteroids exhibit analgesic and anti-inflammatory effects?
Inhibit phospholipase A2 blocking Arachadonic acid synthesis
49
WHat analgesic can cause Reye's syndrome?
Aspirin
50
ADME and abosorption deals with what part of pharmacology?
Pharmacokinetics
51
Is the pH or pKa higher for weak acids?
PkA is higher
52
Is the pH or pKa higher for weak bases?
pH is higher
53
Where is the majority of metabolism of drugs done in the body?
Liver
54
Do drug to drug interaction deal more with pharmacokinetics or pharmacodynamics?
Kinetics
55
Which elimination kinetics has a higher risk of drug accumulation?
Zero order kinetics
56
Which elimination kinetics is a constant fraction of drug that is eliminated per unit time?
First order kinetics
57
What part of pharmacology deals with rc binding/ agonist:antagonist?
Pharmacodynamics
58
What shape is a type 1 dose curve?
Sigmoid
59
What is the maximal effect of a drug on the type 1 dose response curve?
Emax (1)
60
If Kd (dissociating constant) is higher, how does the affinity respond?
Lower affinity
61
How is potency measured?
EC50 value
62
If the EC50 value is higher, is drug more or less potent?
Less potent
63
How does type 1 dose response curve shift in a competitive antagonist?
Right
64
How does type 1 dose response curve shift in a noncompetitive antagonist?
Down
65
Which dose response curve shows differences in number of subjects responding to curve?
Type 2 dose response curve (therapeutic, toxic, lethal)
66
How do you measure Therapeutic index in human studies?
TD50/ ED50 Toxic effect/Therapeutic effect
67
If the therapeutic index is higher, is the drug safer or more toxic?
Drug is safer
68
What portion of the nervous system does PSNS come from?
Cranial nerves and sacral nerves
69
What portion of the nervous system does SSNS come from?
Thoracolumbar region of spinal cord
70
How are PSNS preganglionic and postganglionic nerves in length?
Long pre, short post
71
What NT is released in pregang and post gang nerves in the PSNS?
Ach
72
How are SSNS preganglionic and postganglionic nerves in length?
Short pre, long post
73
All ganglionic rcs are what type of rc?
Nicotinic (nAChR: ionotropic)
74
The rc in target organs for PSNS are what type of rc?
Muscarinic (mAChR: metabotropic)
75
The rc in target organs for SSNS are what type of rc?
Adrenergic (metabotropic)
76
What NT do cholinergic rc bind?
ACh
77
What NT do adrenergic rcs bind?
NE and Epi
78
_____ rc: Bradycardia decreases HR and electrical conduction
M2
79
_____ rc: SLUDS and BAM -Salivation, lacrimation, urination, defeation, sweating -Bronchoconstriction, ab cramps, miosis
M3
80
What 3 conditions should Muscarinic agonist be avoided?
CHF, COPD/Emphysema, Peptic ulcers PSNS stimulation
81
The following drugs are what category? Pilocarpine, methacholine, Neostigmine, Organophosphates
M agonists
82
What is the reversal agent for organophosphates?
Pralidoxime
83
The following drugs are in what category? Atropine, scopolamine, propantheline?
M antagonists
84
The following drugs are what category? Tubocuraine, Succinylcholine, Mecamylamine, Hexamethonium, Nicotine
N antagonists
85
What are the 3 catecholamines?
Dopamine, NE, and epi
86
What 2 NTs stimulate adrenrgic rcs?
NE and Epi
87
Alpha adrenergic rcs act on _____
Smooth muscle vasculature
88
B1 adrenergic rcs act on ____
Heart
89
B2 adrenergic rcs act on _____
Smooth muscle of lungs
90
____ rcs cause vasoconstriction, urinary retention, and pupil dilation (mydriasis)
Alpha 1 adrenergic
91
____ rcs: Tachycardia INcrease HR, electrical conduction, and strength of contraction Renin release from kidneys
B1 rcs
92
____ Rcs: Bronchodilation, vasodilation, stop peristalsis
B2 rcs
93
What muscarinic rc has the opposite effect of the B1 adrenergic rc?
M2
94
The following drugs are what category? Isoproterenol, NE, Epi, Phenylphrine, Oxymetazoline, Dobutamide, albuterol
Adrenergic agonist
95
The following drugs are what category? Prazosin, chlorpromazine, Metoprolol, Atenolol, Propranolol, Carvedilol, Phentolamine, Phenoxybenzamine
Adrenergic antagonists
96
The following drugs are what category? Amphetamine, Tyramine, Ephedrine, Cocaine, Methylphenidate, TCAs, MAOIs
Sympathommimetics
97
The following drugs are what category? Guanethidine, Resperine, Clonidine, methyldopa
Smpatholytics
98
What 2 drugs agonize alpha 2 rcs but block SNS signal?
Clonidine and methyldopa
99
____ is a phenomena when NE can activate baroreceptors which stimulate reflex to reduce HR leading to an opposite response to what NE usually does
Vasovagal reflex
100
____ is a phenomena when epi's effect is turned into a vasodilatory effect when an alpha blocker (prazosin) is used causing a B2 dilatory effect
Epinephrine reversal
101
What 2 things are multipled to get BP?
BP: CO x PR
102
Pressure in ventricles before heart contracts
Preload
103
Pressure in arteries against which the ventricles must pump
Afterload
104
The following drugs are what category? Furosemide, hydrochlorothiazide, and spironolactone
Diuretics (Antihypertensives)
105
Which diuretic is can induce hyperkalemia?
Spironolactone
106
Which diuretic can induce hypokalemia?
Hydrochlorothiazide
107
The following drugs are what category? Verapamil, Diltiazem, Amlodipine, Nifedipine
CCB
108
The following drugs are what category? -Prils: Lisinopril
ACE inhibitors
109
The following drugs are what category? -Sartans: Losartan
ARBs
110
The following drugs are what category? -Digoxin and Digitalis
Cardiac glycosides
111
Type ___ antiarrhythmics are sodium channel blockers
Type 1
112
Type ___ antiarrhythmics are Beta adrenergic blockers
Type 2
113
Type ___ antiarrhythmics are potassium channel blockers
Type 3
114
Type ___ antiarrhythmics are calcium channel blockers
Type 4
115
_____ is used to treat manic depression
Lithium
116
Stage ____ general anesthesia: -Analgesia/feeling better
Stage 1
117
Stage ____ general anesthesia: Delirium
Stage 2
118
Stage ____ general anesthesia: Surgical anesthesia
Stage 3
119
Stage ____ general anesthesia: Medullary paralysis -overdose
Stage 4

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