Organism(s)/Diagnosis(s) Flashcards
(187 cards)
1
Q
S. aureus
A
- Clinical bases - Gram stain - Culture
2
Q
S. epidermidis
A
- Clinical bases - Gram stain - Culture
3
Q
S. saprophyticus
A
- Clinical bases - Gram stain - Culture
4
Q
S. pneumoniae
A
- Gram stain
- PCR
- Quellung reaction
- Latex particle agglutination test
5
Q
S. mutans, S. mitis, and S. sanguis
A
- Gram stain - Culture
6
Q
S. pyogenes
A
- Rapid strep test (ELISA-based) misses 25% of infections. So culture all negatives - Antibodies to streptolysin O (ASO) titer of >200 is significant of rheumatic fever
7
Q
S. agalactiae
A
- Gram stain - Culture
8
Q
S. bovis
A
- Gram stain - Culture
9
Q
Enterococci (E. faecalis and E. faecium)
A
- Culture on blood agar - Antibiotic sensitivities
10
Q
B. anthracis
A
- Gram stain - Culture - Serology - PCR
11
Q
B. cereus
A
- Clinical bases - Gram stain - Culture
12
Q
C. tetani
A
Clinical bases
13
Q
C. botulinum
A
Toxin demonstration
14
Q
C. perfringens
A
Clinical bases
15
Q
C. difficile
A
Toxin demonstration
16
Q
C. diphtheriae
A
Toxin demonstration by ELISA or Elek test
17
Q
L. monocytogenes
A
- Gram stain - Culture - CSF wet mount
18
Q
Nocardia
A
Culture
19
Q
Actinomyces
A
- Gram stain - Culture
20
Q
M. tuberculosis
A
- Sputum microscopy and screening with auramine-rhodamine stain (fluorescent apple-green) - Acid fast stain - PPD skin test (+ve indicates only exposure but not necessarily active disease) - Quantiferon-TB Gold test - Culture on Lowenstein-Jensen medium - No serology
21
Q
M. leprae
A
- Punch biopsy or nasal scrapings acid fast stain - Lepromin skin test (+ve in tuberculoid only)
22
Q
M. avium intracellulare
A
Nonchromogen
23
Q
M. kansasii
A
Photochromogen
24
Q
M. scrofulaceum
A
Scotochromogen
25
M. marinum
Photochromogen
26
M. catarrhalis
- Clinical bases - Gram stain - Culture
27
P. mirabilis
Culture of blood or urine for lactose-negative organisms with swarming motility
28
P. vulgaris
Culture of blood or urine for lactose-negative organisms with swarming motility
29
N. gonorrhoeae
- Gram stain - Genetic probes - Culture on Thayer-Martin medium
30
N. meningitidis
- Gram stain - PCR - Latex agglutination
31
H. influenzae
- Culture on chocolate agar - PCR - Latex particle agglutination
32
H. ducreyi
Clinical bases
33
B. pertussis
- Culture on Regan-Lowe or Bordet-Gengou media - Direct immunofluorescence (DFA) - PCR and serology
34
L. pneumophila
- DFA - Antigen urine test for one serogroup only
35
P. aeruginosa
- Gram stain - Culture
36
E. coli
- Gram stain - Culture
37
K. pneumoniae
- Culture
38
C. jejuni
- Culture on Campylobacter or Skirrow agar at 42 C
39
S. typhi
- Gram stain - Culture
40
S. enteritidis and S. typhimurium
Culture on Hektoen agar (H2S production)
41
S. paratyphi
- Gram stain - Culture
42
Shigella
Culture
43
V. cholerae
Culture on TCBS
44
V. parahemolyticus
Clinical bases
45
V. vulnificus
- Clinical bases - Gram stain - Culture
46
Y. enterocolitica
Stool culture 25 c, cold enrichment
47
Y. pestis
- Serodiagnosis and DFA - "Safety pin" staining
48
H. pylori
- Giemsa or silver stain - Culture - Breath test: C-urea swallowed, ammonia+ C-CO2 exhaled - Serology
49
L. interrogans
- Agglutination test - Culture - Dark-field microscopy (insensitive)
50
B. burgdorferi
- Serodiagnosis by ELISA (-ve early) - Western blot for confirmation
51
B. recurrentis
- Dark-field microscopy (Giemsa stain) - Serology
52
T. pallidum
- Immunofluorescence or dark field microscopy - Serology: \* Nontreponemal antibody screening tests which contain an Ab that binds to cardiolipin (very sensitive) e.g. VDRL, RPR, ART, and ICE \* Specific test for treponemal antibody (more expensive) # Fluorescent treponemal antibody-absorption (FTA-ABS) # Treponema pallidum microhemagglutination (MHA-TP)
53
B. henselae
Clinical bases
54
P. multocida
Clinical bases
55
G. vaginalis
- Microscopy (Clue cells) - Amine whiff test (KOH) enhances fishy odor
56
E. corrodens
- Clinical bases - Culture
57
C. canimorsus
- Clinical bases - Culture (very slow and requires iron to and CO2 to grow) - PCR - Gram stain of CSF
58
HACEK group infections
- Clinical bases - Culture
59
B. fragilis
Biochemical tests and chromatography (anaerobes)
60
F. tularensis
- Serodiagnosis - DFA
61
Brucella spp.
Serum agglutination test (antibodies \>1:160 is +ve)
62
R. rickettsii
- Clinical bases - Serology IFA (4 fold increase in titer is diagnostic) - Weil-Felix test (Cross-reaction with OX strains of P. vulgaris)
63
R. akari
Clinical bases
64
R. prowazekii
Clinical bases
65
R. typhi
Clinical bases
66
O. tsutsugamushi
Clinical bases
67
C. burnetii
None
68
E. chafeensis
- IFA - PCR - Blood film
69
E. phagocytophila
- IFA - PCR - Blood film
70
Anaplasma spp.
Blood smear with Giemsa stain
71
C. trachomatis
- DNA probes and PCR - Giemsa, iodine, or fluorescent antibody-stained smear or scrapings (cytoplasmic inclusions) - Culture (tissue cultures or embryonated eggs) - Serology: DFA and ELISA
72
C. pneumoniae
Serology: complement fixation or microimmunofluorescence
73
C. psittaci
Serology complement fixation
74
M. pneumoniae
- Clinical bases - PCR or nucleic acid probes - ELISA and immunofluorescence (sensitive and specific) - Culture on sterol containing agar (Mulberry- shaped colonies) - Positive cold agglutinins
75
U. urealyticum
Non gram staining and urease +ve
76
H. capsulatum
- Clinical bases - Microscopy - Culture
77
C. immitis
- Clinical bases - Microscopy - Culture - Serology
78
B. dermatitidis
- Clinical bases - Microscopy - Culture
79
A. fumigatus
- Clinical bases - Microscopy - Culture - Serology - PCR
80
C. albicans
- Clinical bases - Microscopy - Culture - Serology - PCR
81
C. neoformans
- Clinical bases - Microscopy - Culture - Serology
82
Mucor, Rhizopus and Absidia
- Clinical bases - Microscopy - Culture
83
P. jirovecii
Silver staining cysts in bronchial alveolar lavage fluids or biopsy
84
M. furfur
- Clinical bases - KOH mount of skin scales (spaghetti and meatballs) - Wood lamp (UV) coppery-orange fluorescence
85
Dermatophytes
- Clinical bases - KOH mount shows arthroconidia and hyphae - Wood lamp bright yellow-green fluorescence of microsporum
86
S. schenckii
- Clinical bases - Microscopy
87
Paracoccidioidomycosis
- Clinical bases - Microscopy - Culture
88
G. lamblia
- Clinical bases - Microscopy (multinucleated trophozoites or cysts in stool)
89
E. histolytica
- Serology - Microscopy (trophozoites [with engulfed RBCs in the cytoplasm] or cysts with up to 4 nuclei in stool)
90
Cryptosporidium spp. (C. parvum)
Oocysts on acid-fast stain
91
I. belli
Acid-fast and elliptical oocysts in stool (contain 2 sporocysts each with 4 sporozoites)
92
C. cayetanesis
- Acid-fast and spherical oocysts (contain 2 sporocysts each with 2 sporozoites) - UV fluorescence
93
Microsporidia spp.
Gram +ve, acid-fast spores in stool or biopsy material
94
T. vaginalis
Motile trophozoites in methylene blue wet mount (corkscrew motility)
95
T. gondii
Serology
96
N. fowleri
- Motile trophozoites in CSF - Culture on plates seeded with gram -ve bacteria
97
T. brucei
Blood smear (trypomastigote)
98
Acanthamoeba
- Star-shaped cysts on biopsy - Culture on plates seeded with gram -ve bacteria
99
P. vivax
Blood smear (enlarged RBCs with ameboid trophozoites)
100
P. ovale
Blood smear (Oval, jagged RBCs)
101
P. malarie
Blood smear (Bar and band forms, rosette schizonts)
102
P. falciparum
Blood smear (Multiple ring forms crescent-shaped gametes)
103
T. cruzi
Blood smear (trypomastigote)
104
L. donovanii
Blood smear (macrophages containing amastigotes)
105
L. braziliensis
Blood smear (macrophages containing amastigotes)
106
Leishmania spp.
Blood smear (macrophages containing amastigotes)
107
B. microti
- Blood smear with Giemsa stain (ring form and "Maltese cross") - PCR
108
E. vermicularis
- Sticky swab - Microscopy (Ova has flattened side with larvae inside)
109
A. lumbricoides
Bile stained knobby eggs or adult round worms
110
T. canis or cati
- Clinical bases - Serology
111
T. trichiura
Barrel-shaped eggs with bipolar plugs
112
S. stercoralis
- Larvae in stool - Serology
113
T. spiralis
- Clinical bases - Muscle biopsy
114
A. braziliense and caninum
Clinical bases
115
N. americanus
Larvae in stool and ova (oval, transparent with 2-8 cell stage visible inside)
116
W. bancrofti
- Microfilariae in blood - Eosinophilia
117
B. malayi
- Microfilariae in blood - Eosinophilia
118
Loa Loa
- Microfilariae in blood - Eosinophilia
119
O. volvulus
Skin snips from calabar swellings
120
D. medinensis
- Increased IgE - Worm eruption from skin
121
T. Solium
- Biopsy - Proglottids or eggs in feces
122
T. saginata
Proglottids or eggs in feces
123
D. latum
- Biopsy - Proglottids or eggs in feces
124
E. granulosus
- Imaging - Serology
125
E. multilocularis
- Imaging - Serology
126
S. mansoni and japonicum
Eggs with lateral spines
127
S. haematobium
Eggs with terminal spines
128
Non-human schistosomes
None
129
C. sinensis
Operculated eggs
130
F. hepatica
Operculated eggs
131
F. buski
Operculated eggs
132
P. westermani
Operculated eggs
133
S. scabiei
- Clinical bases - KOH mount of scrapings - Direct dermoscopy
134
P. humanus and P. pubis
Clinical bases
135
B19
- Serology - Molecular biology
136
HPV
- Clinical bases - Pap Smear (Koilocytic cells [cells with perinuclear cytoplasmic vacuolization and nuclear enlargement]) - In situ DNA probes and PCR
137
BK
- ELISA - PCR
138
JC
- ELISA - PCR
139
Adenovirus
ELISA
140
HBV
- HBsAg - IgM to HBcAg
141
HSV-1 and HSV-2
- Clinical bases - PCR and large amount of RBCs in CSF (encephalitis) - Tzanck smear (Multinucleated giant cells and Cowdry A intranuclear inclusions) - Immunofluorescence (largely used now) to distinguish HSV-1 from HSV-2
142
VZV
- Tzanck smear (Cowdry A) - PCR
143
EBV
- Heterophile-antibody +ve (IgM that recognize Paul-Bunnell antigen on sheep and bovine RBCs) - Serology (VCA, EBNA, EA)
144
CMV
- Biopsy (Owl-eye inclusion) - Basophilic intranuclear inclusions - Serology, DNA detection and virus culture
145
HHV-6
Clinical bases
146
HHV-8
- Clinical bases - Serology - PCR
147
Variola
- Clinical bases - Intracytoplasmic inclusions (Guarnieri bodies)
148
Molluscum contagiosum
- Clinical bases - Eosinophilic cytoplasmic inclusions
149
Norwalk virus and Noro-like virus
- RIA - ELISA
150
Hepatitis E virus
- Abs to HEV - ELISA
151
Polio
Serology
152
Coxsackie A
Virus isolation from throat, stool or CSF
153
Coxsackie B
Virus isolation from throat, stool or CSF
154
Enterovirus 71
Virus isolation from throat, stool or CSF
155
Echoviruses
Virus isolation from throat, stool or CSF
156
Rhinoviruses
Clinical bases
157
HAV
- IgM to HAV - Serology
158
St. Louis encephalitis virus (SLE)
- Serology - Hemagglutination inhibition - ELISA - Latex particle agglutination
159
West Nile encephalitis virus (WNV)
- Serology - Hemagglutination inhibition - ELISA - Latex particle agglutination
160
Dengue virus
- Serology - Hemagglutination inhibition - ELISA - Latex particle agglutination
161
Yellow fever virus (YFV)
- Serology - Hemagglutination inhibition - ELISA - Latex particle agglutination
162
HCV
- Antibody to HCV - ELISA
163
Eastern, Western and Venazuelan equine encephalitis viruses (EEE, WEE, VEE)
- Cytopathology - Immunofluorescence - RT-PCR - Serology
164
Rubella virus
Serology
165
Coronavirus
Clinical bases
166
SARS-CoV
- Clinical bases - Antibodies to SARS-Cov - RT-PCR - Isolation of virus in culture
167
Measles virus
Serology
168
Mumps virus
- Clinical bases - ELISA - IFA - Hemagglutination inhibition
169
Parainfluenza virus
RT-PCR
170
RSV
- IFA - ELISA - RT-PCR
171
Human metapneumovirus (MNV)
RT-PCR
172
Rabies virus
- Clinical bases - Brain biopsy (intracytoplasmic inclusions [Negri bodies]) - DFA (impression smears of corneal epithelial cells) - PCR (usually too late)
173
Ebola and Marburg viruses
- Level 4 isolation of virus - ELISA - PCR
174
Influenza A virus
- Clinical bases - Serology (rapid tests)
175
Influenza B virus
- Clinical bases - Serology (rapid tests)
176
California and LaCrosse encephalitis viruses
Serology
177
Hantavirus
RT-PCR
178
Lymphocytic choriomeningitis virus (LCMV)
- Serology - Level 3 isolation of virus
179
Lassa fever virus
- Serology - Level 4 isolation of virus
180
Reovirus
Serology
181
Rotavirus
ELISA
182
Colorado tick fever virus (CTFV)
Serology
183
HIV
- Serology: ELISA (initial screening) - Serology: Western blot (confirmation) - RT-PCR (detection of virus in blood [evaluate viral load]) - PCR (detect HIV infection in newborns of HIV +ve mother [provirus]) - p24 antigen (early marker of infection) - CD4:CD8 T-cell ratio (evaluate progression of disease)
184
HTLV-1
Serology
185
HTLV-2
Serology
186
Hepatitis D virus
- Hepatitis D Ab - HBsAg
187
Zika virus
Serology
