Orthotic Considerations for the Spine Flashcards

(71 cards)

1
Q

what does SIO stand for, and what does it encompass

A

Sacroiliac Orthosis - encompass the sacral and iliac regions of the lower spine and pelvis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what does LSO stand for, and what does it encompass

A

Lumbosacral Orthosis - encompass the lumbar and sacral regions of the lower spine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

what does TLSO stand for, and what does it encompass

A

Thoracolumbosacral Orthosis - encompass the cervical, thoracic, lumbar, and sacral regions of the spine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

what does CO stand for, and what does it encompass

A

Cervical Orthosis - encompass the cervical spine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what does CTO stand for, and what does it encompass

A

Cervicothoracic Orthosis - encompass the cervical and thoracic region

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

what does HCTO stand for, and what does it encompass

A

Head-Cervical-Thoracic Orthosis - encompass the head, cervical, and thoracic region

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Custom or Stock:

Ordered according to measurements taken of patient and is presized (S, M, L, XL)

A

stock

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Custom or Stock:

This mechanism is likely to increase probability of appropriate fit and function

A

Custom

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Custom or Stock:

Patient is casted or measured followed by orthotic fabrication to meet the exact dimensions of the cast

A

Custom

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Custom or Stock:

More difficult to obtain proper fit due to body morphology and size of anatomic landmarks

A

Stock

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what are the three major functions of spinal orthoses

A
  1. Immobilize gross spinal motions (limit the trunk in all degrees of freedom)
  2. Immobilize individual motion segments (reduce range of motion of an intervertebral segment)
  3. Apply external forces to correct deformity or prevent progression of a deformity
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Thee indications for spinal orthoses

A
  1. Immobilize gross spinal motions (limit the trunk in all degrees of freedom)
  2. Immobilize individual motion segments (reduce range of motion of an intervertebral segement)
  3. Apply external forces to correct deformity or prevent progression of a deformity
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Three indications for spinal orthoses in the category of:

Immobilize gross spinal motions (limit the trunk in all degrees of freedom)

A
  1. muscle strain, ligament sprain
  2. whiplash soft tissue injury
  3. NM based trunk weakness
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Two indications for spinal orthoses in the category of:

Immobilize individual motion segments (reduce range of motion of an intervertebral segment)

A
  1. Spondyloslisthesis

2. s/p Spinal fusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Two indications for spinal orthoses in the category of:

Apply external forces to correct deformity or prevent progression of a deformity

A
  1. Idiopathic scoliosis

2. Scheuermann’s Disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

for patients with spondyloslisthesis, what is the orthosis trying to do

A

keep them out of extension and bring them into flexion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Similar to the principles applied to other body regions, motion in spinal orthoses is controlled utilizing either __ or ___.

A

using 3 point or 4 point pressure systems

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

in general, where does the primary force originate when trying to correct a scoliosis

A

at the convex side projecting into concavity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

spinal curves are named according to the…

A

convexity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

3 point system controlling R lower thoracic curve (general)

A

Primary: Originating at the convexity on the R side, projecting medially

Secondary: above and below the convexity on the concave side (at the trimlines)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

is the control of rotation at the spine and control of rotation at the hip the same?

A

no, it is significantly different

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

why is controlling rotation in the spine and at the hp significantly different

A

osteokinematics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

rotation in the spine will be controlled through…

A

a four point pressure system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

why is a four point pressure system necessary to control rotation in the spine

A

it is necessary to manage the counter-rotation present between upper and lower trunk utilized in a variery of functional activities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
controlling R rotation, what is the general 4 point system
Trunk: 1. Posterior Right 2. Anterior Left Pelvis: 1. Anterior Right 2. Posterior Left
26
Indications for Cervical Orthoses (COs)
soft tissue injuries primarily due to trauma in which c-spine stability is not affected
27
what is the most mobile segment of the spine due to design
the cervical spine (7 vertebrae and surrounding soft tissue)
28
three types of COs
1. flexible 2. semi-rigid 3. rigid
29
does the soft foam collar control motion? why or why not
no - no bars and no bands
30
purpose of the soft foam collar
reminds the patient to limit motion of the neck
31
does the soft foam collar provide stability
very little control of the cervical spine
32
what type of general CO is a Philadelphia Collar
semi-rigid
33
describe the outside of Philadelphia collar's appearance
outer plastic/semi-rigid frame
34
describe the inside of Philadelphia collar's appearance
inner soft pad or closed cell foam shell
35
why is the Philadelphia collar considered semirigid
rigid bars, no bands
36
CTOs are considered ______ COs
rigid
37
why is there increased control in CTOs
increased control due to materials and increased stability from the orthotic because the design extends down to the thoracic spine
38
indications of CTOs
- ligamentous injuries of cervical spine - stable cervical spine fractures - s/p cervical spine fusion/stabilization
39
in the two post design for rigid cervical orthoses, where do the anterior and posterior sections attach
anterior: mandibular portion posterior: occipital portion
40
what is a key feature of the two post design in rigid cervical orthoses
shoulder straps
41
what does SOMI stand for relative to CTOs
Sterno-Occiplital-Mandibular Immobilizer
42
what type of post design in CTO
three point design
43
what type of patients use CTOs
patients with poor head control
44
what type of orthosis is a Halo Orthosis
CTO
45
indications for Halo Orthosis:
injury to C-Spine resulting in instability (fractures)
46
Halo Orthoses are an alternative to...
traction
47
how long are Halo Orthoses used for
immobilization for 6-12 weeks until fracture is healed/stable
48
what special consideration for care must be taken into consideration for halo orthoses
clean the pin sites where the halo goes into the skull
49
Three indications for Thoracic, Lumbar, and Sacral Orthoses
1. increase intra-abdominal pressure 2. intervertebral stabilization/support (segmental immobilization) 3. global limitation of motion
50
a corset is a _______ orthosis
semi-rigid
51
what is a corset typically made of
canvas or dacron material, reinforced with vertical "stays"
52
on the corset, vertical "stays" are similar to
bars
53
what can the stays of a corset be made of
plastic or metal (with varying degrees of stability)
54
what parts of the spine can corset encompass
- sacral - lumbosacral - thoracolumbar sacral
55
a rigid spinal orthosis will have both ____ and ____ present
bars and bands
56
what must a rigid spinal orthosis be composed of
solid material such as metal or rigid plastic
57
what is the cause of an idiopathic scoliosis
no known cause
58
three types of scoliosis
1. idiopathic 2. neuropathic 3. myopathic
59
to find the degree of present scoliosis, what method is commonly used
the Cobb method
60
describe the initial setup of using the Cobb method
choose the most tilted vertebrae above and below the apex of the curve
61
after the most tilted vertebrae has been found, then what (Cobb angle)
the angle between intersecting lines drawn perpendicular to the top of the top vertebrae and the bottom of the bottom vertebrae is the Cobb angle
62
what Cobb angle indicates surgery
greater than 40 degrees
63
are three point pressure systems utilized to control motion in the spine
yes
64
what is one of the earliest and most effective designs for idiopathic scoliosis
Milwaukee Orthosis
65
three indications for Milwaukee Orthosis
1. scoliosis curves between 25-40 degrees 2. children who are not yet skeletally mature 3. apex of curve is at T8 or above
66
what design also adresses the problem of scoliosis, but is more appropriate for curves with an apex below T8
Boston TLSO
67
the Boston TLSO is higher on the same/opposite side of the convexity
higher on the opposite side of convexity
68
what does the Charleston Orthosis do
provides overcorrection of the curve in the opposite direction
69
what does the Charleston Orthosis attempt to control/correct
a scoliotic curve
70
what shaped curve is the Charleson Orthosis most appropriate to correct
C shaped
71
the Charleston Orthosis is known as...
An Overcorrection Orthosis