Other Protozoa 1 Flashcards

(72 cards)

1
Q

What are the basic groups containing parasitic protozoa?

A

Apicomplexa, Sarcomastigophora, Ciliophora

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2
Q

What are the characteristics of Apicomplexa organisms?

A

Have an apical complex which helps orient the organism toward the host; moves via gliding.

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3
Q

How do organisms of the group Sarcomastigophora move?

A

Pseudopodiae or flagella for movement.

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4
Q

How do organisms of the Ciliophora group move?

A

Have cilia.

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5
Q

Balantidum coli belongs to what group of protozoa?

A

Ciliophora.

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6
Q

What species are affected by B. coli?

A

Occurs in humans, cattle, pigs, horses; possible reservoirs in pigs.

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7
Q

What are the two forms that the organism B. coli takes?

A

Trophozoite: growing form with cilia; Cyst: stage which walls itself off within the protective cyst.

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8
Q

B. coli is more prevalent in which type of climate?

A

Warmer ones.

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9
Q

Describe the infective status of B. coli.

A

Fecal oral route; waterborne; occasionally causes symptomatic disease called Balantidiasis.

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10
Q

Describe the prevalence of B. coli in pigs.

A

Up to 100%; higher in intensive systems.

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11
Q

Describe Acanthamoeba spp.

A

Environmental free-living protozoan that sometimes causes problems as an opportunistic pathogen.

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12
Q

What is the disease associated with Acanthamoeba spp?

A

Contact lens associated dermatitis; can cause neurological signs if it spreads beyond the eye.

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13
Q

What is the phylum Sarcomastigophora named for?

A

The two groups: Sarcodina and Mastigophora.

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14
Q

Are organisms of the phylum Sarcomastigophora intracellular or extracellular?

A

Tend to be extracellular.

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15
Q

Most of the organisms of veterinary importance within the phylum Sarcomastigophora are within which group?

A

Mastigophora; variable degrees of pathogenicity.

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16
Q

What are the infection sites of organisms of the phylum Sarcomastigophora?

A

Mastigophora: mucosal surfaces usually in digestive or reproductive tract; Sarcodina: blood and lymph.

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17
Q

What are the important genera to know within the mucosoflagellates?

A

Giardia, Trichomonas/Tritrichomonas, Histomonas.

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18
Q

What are the important species within the genus Giardia?

A

G. lamblia, G. duodenalis, G. intestinalis.

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19
Q

What are the assemblages of Giardia and how are they classified?

A

8 assemblages from A to H based on prevalence in humans.

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20
Q

Most human infections of Giardia come from which assemblages?

A

A and B.

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21
Q

Most cattle infections of Giardia come from which assemblages?

A

A and E.

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22
Q

What is the most common species in terms of zoonotic transmission of Giardia?

A

Horses.

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23
Q

What region does Giardia infect within the host?

A

GIT.

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24
Q

Describe the host range of Giardia.

A

Very broad host range; found pretty much everywhere.

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25
Taxonomy and links to pathogenicity of Giardia are ________ and __________.
Confusing and complex.
26
Which stage of Giardia are you most likely to see in practice?
Most commonly will see cyst stage; trophozoite stage is fragile.
27
Which stage of Giardia has the classical flagellated appearance?
Only trophozoite stages.
28
How do Giardia infections usually occur?
Through ingestion of dormant cysts from drinking water or food sources.
29
What animals are most susceptible to infection by Giardia?
Young animals.
30
In terms of Giardia, __________ is much more common than ________.
Infection is much more common than disease; majorly asymptomatic.
31
Giardia has zoonotic potential via what sources?
Water, food, and direct contact.
32
Describe the attachment/pathogenicity of Giardia.
Attachment to intestinal mucosal layer; villous atrophy seen with infection.
33
Giardia infections can be hard to clear. Why?
Evasion of host immune responses due to complex evolution.
34
What is the pre-patent period of giardiasis?
Up to 3 weeks.
35
Describe the symptoms of giardiasis.
Varies from asymptomatic to acute diarrhea, steatorrhoea, and dehydration.
36
Villous atrophy caused by giardiasis results in what?
Compromised absorption of micronutrients such as vitamin B12.
37
What are the methods of diagnosis of giardiasis?
Fecal float in zinc sulphate, copro-antigen ELISA, PCR.
38
Why is a fecal float not the best choice for diagnosis of giardiasis?
Cysts are easier seen than trophozoites, but still difficult.
39
What is the treatment for giardiasis?
Fenbendazole and albendazole, along with metronidazole.
40
What are the methods of control for giardiasis?
Hygiene, vaccination, education regarding drinking water sources.
41
What is Giardivax?
Inactivated trophozoites that reduced shedding but not clinical signs.
42
What is traveller's diarrhea?
Human giardiasis commonly seen in travelers drinking contaminated water.
43
Describe the host range of Trichomonas.
Many species infecting a wide variety of mammals and birds.
44
Where in the host does Trichomonas infect?
Intestinal tract and reproductive tract.
45
How is Trichomonas transmitted in cattle?
Transmitted venereally from bull to cow via mating.
46
What does Trichomonas cause in cows?
Infertility; AI bulls are screened for Trichomonas.
47
Describe infection of Trichomonas in cats.
No reproductive involvement; proliferates in GIT.
48
What Trichomonas species is responsible for early abortion and lowered fertility in cattle?
T. fetus.
49
Bulls infected with T. fetus are carriers but _____________
Asymptomatic.
50
How is T. fetus controlled?
Testing of bulls; TrichGuard vaccine.
51
Where is T. fetus eradicated?
Parts of Europe.
52
Is T. fetus notifiable?
Yes.
53
What is the species of Trichomonas that affects cats?
Also T. fetus, but genotype is distinct from bovine isolates.
54
What does T. fetus cause in cats?
Diarrhea, sometimes with blood; chronic colitis.
55
T. fetus can also be found in ____________________ cats.
Clinically normal.
56
What is T. fetus commonly misdiagnosed as?
Giardia due to similarities in clinical signs.
57
How do you distinguish Giardia from T. fetus in cats?
Via fecal culture or molecular ID.
58
Why is treatment of T. fetus difficult?
Metronidazole and BZ's are ineffective against Trichomonas.
59
What is the species of Trichomonas that infects birds?
T. gallinae.
60
What are the characteristics of T. gallinae?
'Canker' or 'frounce'; common in pigeons.
61
What does T. gallinae cause?
Difficulty swallowing, diarrhea, and respiratory distress.
62
What is the treatment for T. gallinae in birds?
Remove infected birds; medication in drinking water.
63
What species does Histomonas meleagridis infect?
Gallinaceous birds; causes severe disease in turkeys.
64
What is the name of the disease caused by H. meleagridis?
'Blackhead' or 'infectious enterohepatitis.'
65
What are the different forms taken by H. meleagridis?
Cystic, amebic, and flagellate.
66
The life cycle of H. meleagridis includes involvement from what other organism?
Heterakis gallinarum.
67
H. meleagridis is seen mostly in birds that share what characteristic?
Birds with access to the environment.
68
What are the pathogenic effects of H. meleagridis?
Ulceration and caseous necrosis of caeca; liver involvement.
69
H. meleagridis has a ______ mortality in young turkeys.
100%.
70
What species are less seriously affected by H. meleagridis but act as carriers for turkeys?
Domestic chickens.
71
What is the key to control of H. meleagridis?
Prevention.
72
What are sometimes used as treatment for H. meleagridis?
Nitarsone and paromomycin.