Otolaryngology Flashcards
(58 cards)
About the function of the outer hair cells we can get objective information on
A) tympanometry
B) BERA
C) otoacoustic emission
D) investigation of stapedial reflex
C) otoacoustic emission
The patients has no ear pain in:
A) perichondritis of the ear
B) herpes zoster oticus
C) angina
D) otosclerosis
E) lymphadenitis of the neck
D) otosclerosis
The term “acoustic impedance” refers to the
A) pressure in the middle ear.
B) resonancy of the external ear.
C) hearing loss of inner ear origin.
D) acoustic resistance.
E) spatial hearing.
D) acoustic resistance.
Rinne’s test is informative in:
A) conductive hearing loss
B) sensorineural hearing loss
C) perforation of the tympanic membrane
D) sudden hearing loss
A) conductive hearing loss
Tenderness with pressure on the tragus or traction on the auricle is typical in:
A) othematoma
B) external otitis
C) mastoiditis
D) otosclerosis
B) external otitis
The patient suffers from vertigo and unilateral hearing loss and tinnitus for 1 hour. The probable diagnosis is:
A) acoustic neurinoma
B) neuronitis vestibularis
C) vertebrobasilar insufficiency
D) Ménière’s disease
D) Ménière’s disease
The patient suffers from hearing loss on the right side. Weber test is lateralized to the right side. Probable cause of the hearing loss is:
A) otosclerosis on the left side
B) cerumen on the right side
C) Ménière’s disease on the right side
D) sensorineural hearing loss on the right side
B) cerumen on the right side
By the help of Valsalva maneuver we can
A) diagnose otosclerosis
B) ventilate the middle ear
C) detect nystagmus
D) exclude conductive hearing loss
E) evaluate the respiratory function of the nose
B) ventilate the middle ear
Which part of the tympanic membrane should be preferred when doing a paracentesis?
A) antero-inferior quadrant
B) antero-superior quadrant
C) postero-superior quadrant
D) postero-inferior quadrant
A) antero-inferior quadrant
In adult patients with unilateral, recurring catarrh of the Eustachian tube you should exclude:
A) peritonsillar abscess
B) adenoid hypertrophy
C) malignant tumor in the epipharynx
D) deviated septum
C) malignant tumor in the epipharynx
Possible complications of mastoiditis do not include:
A) meningitis
B) subperiosteal abscess
C) cavernous sinus trombosis
D) Bezold-abscess
E) otogenic hidrocephalus
E) otogenic hidrocephalus
Peripheral facial palsy cannot be caused by:
A) polyomyelitis
B) herpes zoster oticus
C) mastoiditis
D) chronic otitis media with cholesteatoma
E) otosclerosis
E) otosclerosis
The anatomic structure(s) opening into the middle nose cavity is/are:
A) nasofrontal and nasolacrimal ducts
B) sphenoidal sinus and Eustachian tube
C) maxillary sinus, frontal sinus and anterior and middle ethmoid cells
D) posterior ethmoid cells
E) only the maxillary sinus
C) maxillary sinus, frontal sinus and anterior and middle ethmoid cells
During the treatment of a nasal furuncle always avoid
A) hospitalization and bed rest
B) incision and pressing (squeezing) of the lesion
C) parenteral antibiotic therapy
D) application of warm compresses
B) incision and pressing (squeezing) of the lesion
For the treatment of a simple rhinitis we recommend
A) nasal drops for 5 to 7 days
B) antibiotics
C) NSAIDs
D) corticosteroids
A) nasal drops for 5 to 7 days
Most relevant therapy of allergic rhinitis consists of:
A) vasoconstrictor agents
B) antibiotics
C) NSAIDs
D) elimination of the allergen
D) elimination of the allergen
An elder patient presents with unilateral sanguinous, purulent, foul-smelling nasal discharge. You think of:
A) frontal sinusitis
B) malignant tumor of the nose or a paranasal sinus
C) ozaena
D) infected dental cyst
E) angiofibroma
B) malignant tumor of the nose or a paranasal sinus
Most common location of nasal bleeding:
A) nasopharynx
B) middle turbinate
C) superior meatus
D) anterior part of nasal septum
E) posterior part of the nasal septum
D) anterior part of nasal septum
In acute upper airway infection of an infant, one-sided swelling of the upper and lower eyelid appears. Which condition would you think of?
A) acute rhinitis
B) acute maxillary sinusitis
C) acute ethmoiditis
D) allergic reaction
C) acute ethmoiditis
The term “blow-out fracture” refers to a(n)
A) frontobasal fracture.
B) zygomatic fracture.
C) cheekbone fracture.
D) orbital floor fracture.
E) frontal bone fracture.
D) orbital floor fracture.
A middle-aged male patient has a painless, freely mobile mass of about 30 mm in one parotid gland for 5 years. Facial nerve funtion is intact. The probable diagnose is
A) osteoma in the external acoustic meatus
B) glomus caroticum tumor
C) pleomorph adenoma
D) salivary stone in the parotid gland
E) malignant tumor of the parotid gland
C) pleomorph adenoma
Necrotic, coated lesion of the tonsils suggests a(n)
A) scarlatina-associated tonsillitis
B) mononucleosis
C) agranulocytic angina
D) tonsillitis follicularis
E) herpangina
C) agranulocytic angina
Adequate therapy of chronic tonsillitis includes
A) suction of the tonsils
B) squeezing the detritus out of the tonsils
C) high doses of antibiotics
D) tonsillectomy
D) tonsillectomy
After tonsillectomy, urgent hospitalization is needed if the patient presents with
A) oedema of the soft palate and uvula
B) tenderness of cervical lymph nodes
C) haemoptoe
D) intense pain irradiating into the ears
E) swallowing difficulties
C) haemoptoe
