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Vet Nursing > Parasitology > Flashcards

Parasitology Flashcards

All information that was taught to me while attending Vanier College's "Animal Health Technology" Program, located in St-Laurent Montreal.

1
Q

What is the generic name of pyran

A

Pyrantel pamoate

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2
Q

What is the generic name for s-125

A

Sulfadimethoxine

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3
Q

Between the modified knots technique and the difil test, which technique allows for differentiation Dirofilaria Immitis and Acanthochocheilonema reconditum microfilariae

A

Modified knotts technique

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4
Q

Why is it important to differentiate between D. Immitis and A. Reconditum ?

A

Because A. Reconditum doesn’t need to be treated

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5
Q

What are the morphological differences between both types of microfilariae

A

D. Immitis has a straight body with a tapered end A. Reconditum has a curved body with a blunt head and a curved tail

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6
Q

Can a dog have heartworm and have a negative difil or knotts test ?

A

Yes if he has only adult male worms or the females could not have made microfilariae yet

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7
Q

Give two reasons why a dog might have heartworm and yet the rest Would come out negative

A

Due to the fact that it tests for females. If there is too little females or only males you might get a false negative

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8
Q

Give the kingdom, phylum and class of dipylidium caninum ova

A

Kingdom: Anamalia Phylum: Platyhelminthes Class: Cestoda

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9
Q

What is the the common name of dipylidium caninum ova

A

Flea tapeworm

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10
Q

Describe the dipylidium caninum ova

A

Oval with multiple circles inside. Transparent. No visible shell

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11
Q

Give the kingdom, phylum and class of echinococcus granulosis cyst

A

Kingdom: AnamaliaPhylum: Platyhelminthes Class: Cestoda

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12
Q

What is the common name of echinococcus granulosus cyst

A

Dog worms

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13
Q

What are the general characteristics of echinococcus granulosus cysts

A

Rounded/ovalish cyst with small circle/oval circles inside

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14
Q

List the materials required for a fecal centrifugation technique

A

Slide, tongue depressor, paper cups, sample, sheathers solution

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15
Q

What is the density of sheathers solution

A

1200 units

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16
Q

Describe the fecal centrifugation technique

A

Put 1g of feces in a paper cup, put 1cc of sheathers solution in a cup. Make a soup. Put 8cc of sheathers solution. Mix it, in a second cup put 2 layers of gauze over the second cup and filter solution. Squeeze out extra liquid from gauze. Put all garbage in garbage cup

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17
Q

What type of centrifuge is ideal to perform fecal centrifugation

A

Swinging, the triac allows the coverslip to be placed on it.

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18
Q

Whats the difference between single and double centrifugation technique ? What is the purpose of doing the double centrifugation ?

A

Double centrifugation the 1st step is done with water instead of sheathers or znSO4. When you centrifuge it, te water is less dense than eggs so any sample will go to the bottom of the container. Centrifuge again, this time with sheathers and sample will raise to top

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19
Q

What are the materials required for a simple fecal flotation

A

Fecal cup, tongue depressor, zinc sulfate, cover slip, slide

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20
Q

Describe how to do a simple fecal flotation

A

Fill fecal tunnel, put zinc sulfate until divot is filled, turn until it forms a brown solution. Clip it down when the solution is nicely mixed. Full up to the top with zinc sulfate, make a miniscus, and place coverslip on top. Wait 10 mins and place it on slide

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21
Q

What are the disadvantages to using a direct smear

A

If you have a small amount of feces you can have a false negative.

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22
Q

What does a hydrometer measure

A

The specific gravity of a liquid

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23
Q

What does the Refractometer measure

A

The amount of dissolved Solutes in a solution

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24
Q

Which of the two should be used to measure specific gravity an check that your solutions are still good

A

The hydrometer

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25
Q

What is the kingdom, phylum and class of ancylostoma caninum ova

A

Kingdom: animaliaPhylum: Nematoda Class: secementea

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26
Q

What are the general characteristics of ancylostoma caninum ova

A

Oval, transparent, granular appearance

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27
Q

What is the common name of ancylostoma caninum ova

A

Hookworm

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28
Q

What is the kingdom, phylum and class of trichinella spiralis encysted

A

Kingdom: animaliaPhylum: Nematoda Class: adenophorea

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29
Q

What is the common name for trichinella spiralis encysted

A

Pork worm

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30
Q

What are the general characteristics of trichinella spiralis

A

Transparent worm in a muscle. Spiral shaped.

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31
Q

What is the kingdom, phylum and class of trichuris vulpis

A

Kingdom: animaliaPhylum: nemathelminthesClass: Nematoda

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32
Q

What are the general characteristics of trichuris vulpis

A

Oval shaped, thick outer shell with bipolar plugs

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33
Q

What is the common name for balis ascaris

A

Roundworm

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34
Q

What is the kingdom, phylum, class of balis ascaris

A

Kingdom: animaliaPhylum: Nematoda Class: secernentea

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35
Q

What is the common name for w. Bankrofti

A

Roundworm

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36
Q

What is the kingdom, phylum and class of w. Bankrofti

A

Kingdom: animalia Phylum: Nematoda Class: secernentea

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37
Q

How is w. Bankrofti contracted

A

Mosquito

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38
Q

What is the common name of shistosoma mansoni

A

Trematode

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39
Q

What is the kingdom, phylum and class for shistosoma mansoni

A

Kingdom: animaliaPhylum: Platyhelminthes Class: Trematoda

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40
Q

What is the main carrier of shistosoma mansoni

A

Snails

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41
Q

What is the main carrier of balis ascaris

A

Raccoon

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42
Q

How do you differentiate between Taenia and dipylidium tapeworm

A

Taenia had 1 pore.

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43
Q

How do you do the modified knotts test

A

1 ml blood+ 9ml formalin. Then centrifuge at 1500, 5 min. Pour off supernatant, stain and then examine sediment.

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44
Q

Describe the fecal centrifugation technique

A

1g feces, 1cc sheathers, mix. Add 8cc sheathers. Mix. Filter one cup and pour solution in. Top it up to 13 cc. Put in centrifuge: 1500, 5 min. Top it up to make a miniscus and then put coverslip. Wait 5-10 mins

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45
Q

How do you perform a skin scraping

A

Put mineral oil on crusty region, squeeze area, scrape area, put crust and material on slide with mineral oil and chop it up. Scrape till area turns red, put it on the slide and add coverslip.

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46
Q

How do you perform the cellophane tape method

A

Take tape, sticky side down multiple times, mineral oil. Put tape on slide

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47
Q

Describe the cellophane tape for pinworm identification

A

Tongue depressor, tape. Fold tape over tongue depressor with sticky side out and press it on the butt hole. Don’t use mineral oil on the slide.

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48
Q

What is the class of balantidium coli trophozoites

A

Litostomatea

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49
Q

What is the class of demodex follicularis

A

Arachnida

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50
Q

What is the class of fasciola hepatica

A

Trematoda

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51
Q

What is the common name of phthirus pubis adult

A

Crab louse

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52
Q

What order of lice does phthirus pubis adult belong to and how can you tell simply by looking at it

A

Anoplura and it is due to the smaller head then it’s body

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53
Q

What does the Anoplura phthirus pubis feed on

A

Blood

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54
Q

Where does the phthirus pubis live on humans

A

In the pubic hair or any other course hair

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55
Q

What is the scientific name of the head louse

A

Pediculus humanus capitis

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56
Q

Where does the head louse live

A

On the hair of the head

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57
Q

What is the baby form of a louse

A

A nit, or egg.

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58
Q

How long does a nit take to hatch to nymph form

A

5-14 days

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59
Q

What is the order of the cimex lectularis

A

Hemiptera

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60
Q

What is the common name of cimex lectularis

A

Bed bug

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61
Q

What is the order of melophagus ovinus

A

Diptera

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62
Q

What is the common name of melophagus ovinus

A

Sheep ked

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63
Q

What species are infected with sheep ked

A

Sheep and goats

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64
Q

Where does the sheep ked live on the host

A

Deep into the Sheeps wool or the goats fleece

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65
Q

What materials are needed for the baermann technique

A

Champagne glass with hollow tube, mesh cloth, gauze, rubber band

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66
Q

What solution is use in the baermann technique

A

Water

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67
Q

Describe the baermann technique

A

Put 5 g of feces in gauze, close the rubber band. Place mesh in glass to hold the gauze. Fill with room temp water so larva can swim out into the glass. Let it sit for 24hrs

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68
Q

What is the purpose of conducting the baermann test

A

Larva of lungworm

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69
Q

How is the sample for baermann test collected

A

Fresh sample from a hard surface

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70
Q

What are three different possible solutions used for fecal shippin

A

SAF, formalin or 70% alcohol

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71
Q

What is the ratio of the volume of fece to the volume of shipping solution

A

1/3 feces to solution

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72
Q

What is the class for giardia trophozoites

A

Protozoa

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73
Q

What are small segments of tapeworms called

A

Proglottids

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74
Q

How is Taenia acquired

A

Ingestion of intermediate host

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75
Q

If you are a solution with 1260 what are you

A

Sheathers

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76
Q

What is the advantage to fecal centrifugation

A

More efficient at separating and its rapid.

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77
Q

Why do we do the baermann technique

A

To find lungworm larva

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78
Q

What is the scale to calibrate the microscope called

A

Stage micrometer

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79
Q

What is the majority of interactions of living organisms based upon

A

Food

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80
Q

What is symbiosis

A

When two living creatures live together

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81
Q

What is each member of a symbiotic relationship considered

A

Symbiont

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82
Q

Describe a predator prey symbiotic relationship

A

Short lived. Beneficial for one and detrimental for other.

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83
Q

What does phoresis mean

A

To carry.

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84
Q

What is a phoresic symbiotic relationship

A

One animal caries another

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85
Q

Describe a mutualist relationship

A

Both organisms benefit

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86
Q

Describe a commensalist relationship

A

Benefits one organism and has no harm to the other

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87
Q

Describe a parasitic relationship

A

The parasite lives on or with the host. Metabolic dependence of one on the other.

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88
Q

What is the differences between predator prey relationship and parasitism

A

Longer relationship. Don’t usually try to kill host.

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89
Q

What is parasitiasis

A

Presence of parasite with no clinical signs.

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90
Q

What is parasitosis

A

Presences of parasites and has a disease of parasites (clinical signs)

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91
Q

What is parasitism

A

A life relationship in which the parasite uses the host as a habitat and a food source.

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92
Q

What are the advantages to parasitism.

A

Infinite amount of food b

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93
Q

What is advantageous to a parasite with the movement of its host

A

Dispersion of the parasite

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94
Q

What does the host protect the parasite against

A

The environment, heat

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95
Q

How does a parasite evade the host fighting it

A

Attach to host cells, mutate

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96
Q

What are some ways parasites evade the host

A

Anticoagulants, opiate saliva secretion, covers self with human proteins. Forms cysts

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97
Q

What does the trypanosoma cause

A

Less milk, lose weight.

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98
Q

What percentage of herds and individuals are infected with trypanosoma

A

100% of herds and 90% of individuals

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99
Q

What is trypanosoma considered

A

A chronic, subacute problem.

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100
Q

What are some general things that parasites cause

A

Anemia, diarrhea, poor growth, malabsorption, respiratory problems, cardiovascular problems, ocular issues Dermatological issues

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101
Q

What can you get from uncooked beef

A

Tapeworm

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102
Q

What can you get from uncooked pork

A

Trichanosis

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103
Q

What parasites can you get from contact with cats

A

Toxoplasmosis

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104
Q

What parasite can you get from dogs

A

Toxocaris

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105
Q

What are parasites that live within the body considered

A

Endoparasites

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106
Q

What do endoparasites do

A

Cause an infection

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107
Q

What are parasites that live on the body called

A

Ectoparasites

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108
Q

What do ectoparasites

A

Infestation

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109
Q

What is an example of ectoparasites

A

Fleas

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110
Q

Give characteristics of an obligate parasite

A

Must use the host to survive and complete the development cycle. Can have a period outside host where transmission occurs

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111
Q

What is an example of a facultative parasites

A

S. Stercoralis

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112
Q

What are the characteristics of a incidental parasites

A

Short survival

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113
Q

What is an example of a hyper parasite

A

A tape worm in a flea

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114
Q

What does the parasitic load factor into

A

The development of the disease

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115
Q

What is the pre patent period

A

Time frame from infection with a parasite to that when the parasite can be recovered and diagnosed

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116
Q

What is a host

A

Animal providing habitat for a parasite

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117
Q

What are some general characteristics of parasites

A

Have at least one definitive host and may have one or more intermediate hosts.

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118
Q

What happens in a definitive host

A

Parasite matures to sexual and adult stage

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119
Q

What is an intermediate host

A

Larval, immature and juvenile stage of parasite.

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120
Q

What does toxoplasma gondii do to mice

A

Convinces mice to approach cats. Gets rid of olfactory receptors in mice brain so mice doesn’t sense danger

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121
Q

What is a paratenic host

A

Transport host. Form of intermediate host. No development of the parasite. Remains encysted.

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122
Q

What is a reservoir host

A

Source of infection for different species

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123
Q

What does a vermifuge do

A

Paralyzed worm to expel

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124
Q

What does a vermicide do

A

Kills worm

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125
Q

What is the phylum for Trematodes

A

Platyhelminthes

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126
Q

What’s the class for Trematodes

A

Trematoda

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127
Q

How do you further divide the class Trematoda

A

Monogenic and digenetic

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128
Q

What are Trematodes considered

A

Flukes

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129
Q

What is the general shape of Trematodes

A

Flattened dorsoventrally

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130
Q

What is the shape is Trematodes

A

Leaves

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131
Q

Do Trematodes have segments

A

No

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132
Q

What are monogenetic Trematodes considered

A

Ectoparasites

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133
Q

What do monogenetic Trematodes inhabit

A

Fish, reptiles and amphibians

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134
Q

How do monogenetic Trematodes attach

A

Gills, fins, mouth and skin

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135
Q

What is a digenetic Trematodes

A

Parasitic mammals.

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136
Q

Why are digenetic Trematodes considered

A

Endoparasites

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137
Q

What do schistosomas resemble

A

A tongue

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138
Q

Describe the morphology of digenetic Trematodes

A

Have no body cavity like cestodes

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139
Q

How do digenetic Trematodes attach

A

By a ventral sucker called acetabulum

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140
Q

What do the 2 blind ceca do from the digenetic Trematodes

A

End of digestive tract that Empties into the host by means of fluke puke

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141
Q

Describe the acetabulum

A

Tiny spines which face backwards enabling them to attach themselves

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142
Q

Describe the sexual reproduction of Trematodes

A

They’re all hermaphroditic except for schistosomas

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143
Q

Describe the Trematodes life cycle

A

Eggs, embryonate in the environment, contact with water

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144
Q

What happens to Trematodes when they make contact with water

A

Hatches and makes the motile stage.

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145
Q

What are the motile stage of Trematodes

A

Miracidium

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146
Q

What do the Miracidium do when hatched

A

Swim to a snail

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147
Q

What do Miracidium develop into

A

Sporocyst

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148
Q

What is a Sporocyst

A

Sack containing many redia

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149
Q

What is inside a redia

A

Cercariae

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150
Q

Why does the Cercarial stage have

A

Has a tail, to allow swimming

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151
Q

What are the three options for cercariae once he is out of the snail

A

Penetrate the skinAttach to vegetation and encystPenetrate a second incidental host

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152
Q

When the cercariae exits the snail how does it penetrate the host and cost

A

Swimmers itch. Duck is definitive host. does not develop further in humans.

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153
Q

Where does s. Mansoni normally end up

A

Intestine

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154
Q

What is an abhorrent migration

A

When a parasite migrates to the wrong place

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155
Q

What is metacercaria

A

When the Vegetation is ingested by definitive host

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156
Q

What happens when the Metacercaria is digested

A

Assist is digested releasing a juvenile fluke. Migrates to its preferred site and becomes an adult

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157
Q

What is the preferred site for most trematodes

A

G.I. tract

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158
Q

What is the one trematode that does not live in the gastrointestinal tract

A

Paragonimus kellicotti which lives in the lungs

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159
Q

Where do most schistosomes live

A

In the circulatory system

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160
Q

What is the one shistosome that doesn’t live in the circulatory system

A

Shistosoma mansoni which lives in GI tract

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161
Q

what is platynosomum fastosum

A

Lizard poisoning fluke

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162
Q

What is the first intermediate host of the platynosomum fastosum

A

Land snail

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163
Q

What is the second intermediate host of platynosomum fastosum

A

Lizard

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164
Q

Describe the organs where the lizard poisoning fluke lives

A

Liver, gallbladder, bile ducts

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165
Q

What are the symptoms of lizard poisoning fluke

A

Jaundice, vomiting, diarrhea, death

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166
Q

What is an operculum

A

An opening

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167
Q

What is nanophyetus salmincola

A

The salmon poisoning fluke in BC. It is the smallest fluke of domesticated animals.

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168
Q

What is the first intermediate host of nanophyetus salmincola

A

Snail

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169
Q

What is the second intermediate host of nanophyetus salmincola

A

Salmon

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170
Q

How do you get nanophyetus salmincola

A

From eating uncooked salmon.

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171
Q

What is the largest fluke of domesticated animals

A

Fasciolitis magma

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172
Q

Where does nanophyetus salmincola live

A

Small intestine

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173
Q

What is the first intermediate host of Alaria

A

Snail

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174
Q

What is the second intermediate host of Alaria

A

Frog, snake, mouse

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175
Q

Where does alaria live

A

In the intestine

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176
Q

What is paragonimus kellicotti

A

Lung fluke

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177
Q

What is the first intermediate host of paragonimus kellicotti

A

Snail

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178
Q

What is the second intermediate host of paragonimus kellicotti

A

Crayfish

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179
Q

How is paragonimus kellicotti diagnosed

A

Fecal sedimentation or flotation

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180
Q

What is heterobilharzia Americana

A

Canine schistosome. Found in the Gulf states of US. Enter via the skin.

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181
Q

What is the intermediate host of heterobilharzia Americana

A

Snail

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182
Q

Where is heterobilharzia Americana found in the body

A

In the mesenteric vein of the intestine and the portal vein.

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183
Q

What do heterobilharzia Americana cause

A

Bloody diarrhea, necrosis, initiation, anorexia

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184
Q

What is a miricidum

A

A larva that is already ready and has no hatching required

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185
Q

How do you diagnose heterobilharzia Americana

A

Fecal sedimentation

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186
Q

What phylum and class are cestodes in

A

Phylum platyhelminth, class Cestoda

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187
Q

What are cestodes referred to as

A

Tapeworm

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188
Q

Describe the general shape of cestodes

A

Flattened dorsal ventrally, ribbonlike and segmented, containing segments called proglottids

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189
Q

Describe the morphology of eucestodes

A

Has a scolex at the anterior end. Some have acetabula and Rostellum

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190
Q

What is a scolex

A

A head

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191
Q

What is a acetabula

A

Suckers

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192
Q

What is a Rostellum

A

Spiky head

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193
Q

If a cestode has a Rostellum what do you consider him

A

Armed

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194
Q

If I cestode does not have a rostellum what do you consider him

A

Unarmed

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195
Q

What is very special about eucestodes and how they intake food

A

They have no digestive track. They intake their food through the skin

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196
Q

What can we say about the proglottids that are close to the scolex

A

They are young proglottids

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197
Q

What can we say about the proglottids that are mid-distance from scolex

A

They are more mature

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198
Q

What can we say about the proglottids that are furthest from the scolex

A

They’re mature and gravid

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199
Q

What is cross fertilization when it comes to eucestodes

A

One proglottid fertilizes with another proglottid

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200
Q

What is self fertilization when it comes to proglottids

A

They fertilize themselves

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201
Q

What is special about eucestodes in terms of sexual reproduction

A

They are hermaphroditic.

202
Q

What can be said about a gravid proglottid and it’s reproductive organs

A

The reproductive organs have degenerated and only the uterus remains with the eggs inside

203
Q

Describe a proglottid egg

A

It is a six hooked hexacanth. It is born with all of its hooks already

204
Q

Describe to eucestode life cycle

A

Gravid proglottids are expelled. Proglottids rupture and release eggs. Ingested by an obligate intermediate host where it develops into a metacestode (6 different forms possible)

205
Q

What happens if a eucestode is eaten by a flea

A

It becomes a cysticercoid

206
Q

What happens if the eucestode is eaten by a mama

A

Becomes a cysticercus, coenurus, hydatid cyst

207
Q

Where do eucestodes live

A

In the digestive tract

208
Q

How do definitive host become infected with eucestodes

A

It’s the intermediate host at the metacestode stage

209
Q

What is the definitive host for taenia saginata

A

Human

210
Q

What is the intermediate host of Taenia saginata

A

Cattle

211
Q

What is the meta-cestode version of Taenia saginata

A

Cysticercus bovis

212
Q

Where is Cysticercus bovis found

A

Skeletal and heart muscle. Contracted from poorly cooked meat

213
Q

What is the definitive host for echinococcus multiculocularis

A

Canines. Humans are incidental hosts

214
Q

What is the intermediate host for echinococcus multiculocularis

A

Rodents

215
Q

What is echinococcus multiculocularis considered

A

A zoonotic disease

216
Q

What is cotyloda

A

Flat, ribbonlike, segmented pseudo tapeworms processing a scolex. Have a bothria

217
Q

What is a bothria

A

Long sticky slit

218
Q

How do cotyloda get their nutrients

A

Through the skin

219
Q

Do cotyloda have proglottids

A

Yes and they are hermaphroditic. Their eggs are operculated unlike eucestodes

220
Q

What happens when operculated cotyloda eggs go into the environment

A

They hatch with contact of water. The coracidium is released from egg

221
Q

What is a coracidium

A

Hexacanth embryo

222
Q

Who is the first intermediate host of cotyloda

A

Aquatic crustacean called copepod

223
Q

What happens to the coracidium inside of the copepod

A

It develops into a procircoid

224
Q

Who is the second intermediate host of cotyloda

A

A fish. Develops into a Plarocircoid

225
Q

How does the plarocircoid reach the definitive host

A

It is ingested by the fish. And develops into a sexually mature form of the tapeworm

226
Q

What is dipylidium caninum

A

The cucumber seed tapeworm.

227
Q

What is the intermediate host of the dipylidium caninum

A

The flea. Every metacestode ingested will become an adult tapeworm

228
Q

What is the PPP for dipylidium caninum

A

14 to 21 days.

229
Q

How do you diagnose dipylidium caninum

A

Fecal or visualization of proglottid

230
Q

How do you treat dipylidium caninum

A

Parasite and flea killer.

231
Q

Is dipylidium caninum zoonotic

A

Yes

232
Q

What is the intermediate hosts for Taenia pisiformis, hydatigena, Ovis

A

Rabbits, hares (pisiformis), ruminants (hydatigena), sheep (Ovis)

233
Q

How does a dog get Taenia pisiformis, hydatigena, Ovis

A

Must ingest intermediate host. Infectious cysts are in greater omentum or abdominal organs. Generally from uncooked lamb in raw diet

234
Q

What is Taenia taeniaformis

A

The feline tapeworm

235
Q

What are the intermediate hosts of Taenia taeniaformis

A

Mice, rabbits, rat

236
Q

How do cats get Taenia taeniaformis

A

By ingesting intermediate host

237
Q

Describe echinococcus granulosis and multilocularis

A

Tiniest veterinary cestodes. Very small proglottids. Highly zoonotic. Mimics cancer

238
Q

What is the intermediate host for echinococcus granulosis

A

Sheep, cattle, herbivores

239
Q

What is the intermediate host for multilocularis

A

Rats mice and voles

240
Q

What do echinococcus granulosis and multilocularis cause in the body

A

Hydatid cysts in the brain, liver, lungs

241
Q

What is diphyllobothrium Latum

A

Giant fish tapeworm.

242
Q

Who is the definitive host for diphyllobothrium Latum

A

Cats, dogs, humans

243
Q

What is the first intermediate host of diphyllobothrium Latum

A

Aquatic crustacean

244
Q

What is the Second intermediate host of diphyllobothrium Latum

A

Fish. Causes a Plerocercoid in muscle

245
Q

Is a parasite absorbs vitamin B 12 what does it cause

A

Anemia

246
Q

What is spirometra

A

Zipper tapeworm in small intestine

247
Q

Why is Spirometra called a zipper tapeworm

A

It unzips and releases its eggs

248
Q

What is the first intermediate host for the Spirometra

A

Crustacean

249
Q

What is the second intermediate host for the Spirometra

A

Fish or frogs.

250
Q

What do the majority of parasites have

A

Pathogenic potential

251
Q

Some parasites are minimally pathogenic but are considered

A

Opportunistic

252
Q

Where is cryptosporidium or pneumocystis found

A

In immunocompromise patients. There is no treatment

253
Q

What can lesions be caused by

A

Physical factors, parasites metabolism, host a reaction

254
Q

How can parasites cause lesions by physical factors

A

By either attachment organelle and mouthpieces, by their migration in body, by the lumen obstruction of an organTissue destructionNecrosis by compressionBleedingSecondary infectionsVectors

255
Q

What is the typical amount of acetabulum on a parasite

A

Four

256
Q

How can migration from the digestive tract to the preferred site happen

A

Via cavities or natural paths such as blood vessels and lymphatic system. Or directly through tissues such as fasciola hepatica

257
Q

How can lumen obstruction of an organ happen

A

From the presence of the parasite or as an inflammatory reaction from the body

258
Q

How does Dirofilaria Immitis obstruct

A

Obstructs the right ventricle and causes proliferative lesions in the pulmonary artery

259
Q

How does paRasitic tissue destruction occur

A

From feeding, development. Multiplying within tissue and interfering with metabolism

260
Q

What does toxoplasma do in terms of tissue destruction

A

Goes into the fetus. Can cause abortion or attack brain a neurological tissue. If I actually born there is a risk of developing schizophrenia as a child.

261
Q

What does ostertagia ostertagi do to cause tissue destruction

A

Causes inflammation of the stomach mucosa. Hydrochloric acid producing cells are replaced by mucus producing cells

262
Q

How does necrosis by compression of her

A

By growing causing a compression of the surrounding tissue. Atrophy, necrosis or loss of function due to nerve compression

263
Q

What does Echinococcus granulosis do

A

Affects the liver and lungs. After consumption of infected intermediate host

264
Q

What does diotophyma renale do

A

The roundworm of the kidney. Causes necrosis of right kidney

265
Q

Describe bleeding caused by fasciola hepatica

A

Can be fatal in the liver

266
Q

Describe what Ancylostoma caninum do

A

Attached to the intestinal mucosal as it feeds. So he creates an anticoagulant that continues the bleeding once detached.

267
Q

What is the effect of bleeding as a physical factor

A

Anemia

268
Q

How can parasites cause secondary infections

A

From migration. Makes holes

269
Q

How can vectors cause lesions

A

From fleas, ticks, etcHaemobartonella, Lyme disease

270
Q

How can parasites cause a reduction in growth rate

A

Through competition for food which is of importance in production animals since it reduces the food intake of host. Can also affect milk, wool, meat production

271
Q

What does moniezia expansa affect and how is it transmitted

A

Ovines and it’s from an infected mite

272
Q

How does diphyllobothrium Latum cause vitamin deficiency

A

It accumulates vitamin B 12 and it’s own tissues which is necessary for red blood cell creation and function of brain

273
Q

How does parasitic toxin production work

A

Dermacentor Andersoni secrete a toxic substance in their saliva which gradually paralyzes and causes respiratory failure

274
Q

How does trichuris trichurias toxins affect humans

A

Cause a rectal prolapse due to nerve paralysis

275
Q

Why does giardia cause a greasy stool

A

Due to interference with lypolysis

276
Q

What does trichinella do to the immune system

A

Suppresses T lymphocytes causing malfunction of macrophages

277
Q

What does entamoeba histolytica do

A

Digests intestinal tissues

278
Q

What are some host reactions to a parasite

A

AllergyHypersensitivityeosinophiliaImmune system unresponsivenessHyperplasiaNeoplasiaInflammationGranuloma

279
Q

How can thysanosoma actinoides cause hyperplasia

A

Induce biliary canal hyperplasia

280
Q

How does spirocerca lupi cause neoplasia

A

Causes osteosarcoma and fibrosarcomas in wall of esophagus

281
Q

How does shistosoma haematobium cause neoplasia

A

Causes bladder cell carcinoma

282
Q

What are annelids

A

Leaches

283
Q

What are Acanthocephalans

A

Thorny headed worms

284
Q

What are characteristics of Arthropoda

A

Segmented body, exoskeleton, jointed appendages

285
Q

What are monogenetic Trematodes mostly considered

A

Ectoparasites Of aquatic species

286
Q

What are digenetic Trematodes considered

A

Endoparasites in large GI tract. But can also be found in blood and lungs.

287
Q

Describe the physical appearance of Toxocara Canis

A

Spaghetti

288
Q

Where does toxocara canis live

A

In the small intestine, also sometimes in the lungs

289
Q

What can happen to small breeds when they have a lot of Toxocara canis

A

Can cause obstruction

290
Q

How do Toxocara canis inhabit the small intestine

A

They are not attached to the intestine but rather have an undulating swim

291
Q

How long do Toxocara canis eggs lay dormant in the environment

A

2-5weeks

292
Q

What are some key features of nematodes

A

Large-size variety, have a body cavity, have a digestive track including rectum, have reproductive organs

293
Q

What type of eggs are Toxocara Cati

A

Oviparous

294
Q

What type of eggs are ancylostoma caninum

A

Oviparous

295
Q

What type of eggs are strongyloides westeri

A

Ovoviviparous

296
Q

What type of eggs are capillaria

A

Oviparous

297
Q

If a nematode produces larva it is said to be what

A

Lariparous

298
Q

Describe the direct life cycle for nematodes

A

Hello three is infective for definitive host. L4 and L5 develop in definitive host. L5 is a young adult nematode. L6 is an adult that lays eggs

299
Q

Describe the indirect lifecycle for nematode

A

In the intermediate host L1 L2 and L3 stages occur. Ingestion of the intermediate host where L4 and L5 develop in the definitive host

300
Q

What are the symptoms of spirocerca lupi

A

Obstruction

301
Q

What are the symptoms of physaloptera

A

Vomiting

302
Q

Vomiting and feces of spirocerca and physaloptera look like what

A

Spaghetti

303
Q

What is the PPP for Toxocara canis

A

21-35 days

304
Q

What is the PPP for Toxocara Cati

A

8 weeks

305
Q

What is the PPP for Toxocara leonina

A

8-10 weeks

306
Q

What can ancylostoma, tubaeforme, braziliense and uncinaria cause due to feeding on blood

A

Anemia

307
Q

What do strongyloides cause

A

Diarrhea.

308
Q

How is strongyloides transmitted

A

Skin and milk.

309
Q

what is special about strongyloides

A

there are no males and eggs hatch in intestine, L1 released in feces and L3 penetrates skin

310
Q

How is trichuris vulpis transmitted

A

By ingestion

311
Q

What is special about trichuris vulpis

A

Eggs are passed every 3 days and they are very heavy so they don’t float well

312
Q

What is aelurostrongylus abstrusus

A

Feline lungworm that causes nodules in alveolar ducts. Especially in fiv/felv cars.

313
Q

Where do aelurostrongylus hatch

A

In the lung and they are coughed up and swallowed. L1 is in feces.

314
Q

What is the intermediate host for aelurostrongylus

A

Snails and slugs (L1-L3)

315
Q

What are the paratenic hosts for aelurostrongylus

A

Rodents, birds, amphibians, reptiles

316
Q

What is the baermann test used for

A

Diagnosing feline lugworm aelurostrongylus

317
Q

What is filaroides olseri, hirthi and milksi

A

Canine lungworm. In trachea, bronchioles and lungs. Causes nodules and airway obstruction.

318
Q

Describe the transmission of canine lungworm

A

Ingestion of L1 from Dam to puppies. No outside development required

319
Q

Describe Capillaria aerophilia

A

In trachea and bronchi. Eggs are coughed up and swallowed

320
Q

How is diotophyma renale transmitted

A

By infective larva in annelid. Diagnosed by urine sediment

321
Q

What is dracunculus insignis

A

Guinea worm. From ingestion of intermediate host

322
Q

What is thelazia californiensis

A

In conjunctival sac and lacrimal canal. From intermediate host, the face fly.

323
Q

How do you stop an arthropod from growing

A

Use an insect growth regulator which stops the production of chitin

324
Q

What do arthropods cause

A

Pathology and diseases such as anemia, hypersensitivity reactions

325
Q

Describe the pathogenic potential of arthropods

A

They are parasites that cause disease, they are intermediate host for cestodes nematodes and trematodes. they are vectors of bacteria or viruses, they produce venom or toxins and harass production animals

326
Q

What arthropods produce venom or toxins

A

Scorpions, spiders, Ticks

327
Q

When arthropods harass production animals what happens

A

Cause lack of eating and sleep, loss of weight and production decreases, cause fear in horses and injuries

328
Q

Describe an arthropods ability to perforate skin

A

Hypodermis species a.k.a. the warble fly or cattle grub. Cause a severe reduction or complete loss of the value of leather

329
Q

What is the kingdom of the arthropod

A

Animalia

330
Q

What are the two subphyla’s for arthropods

A

Mandibulata and chelocerata

331
Q

Describe mandibulata

A

Have jaws and chew

332
Q

Describe the chelocerata

A

Have a pincer mouth that doesn’t grind

333
Q

Which animals are part of the mandibulata class of arthropods

A

CrustaceansMyriopodans: millipedes, centipedesInsects: Cockroaches, beetles, moths, butterflies, ants bees and wasps, true bugs, lice flies and fleas

334
Q

What are crustaceans considered

A

Ectoparasites of fish and amphibians. Intermediate host for some Helminths.

335
Q

Describe the anatomy of arthropods

A

Segmented body, invertebrate having an exoskeleton, jointed appendages

336
Q

What is a crayfish and intermediate host for

A

Lungworm Paragonimus Kellicotti.

337
Q

What is the copepod an intermediate host for

A

Cotyloda the pseudotapeworm, or diphyllo bacterium

338
Q

What are crustaceans also the intermediate host for

A

Dracunculus insignis (the guinea worm in dogs)

339
Q

Describe insects

A

Three-part body, three pairs of jointed legs, compound eyes and one pair of antenna

340
Q

Describe Cimex Lectularis (bedbug)

A

Periodic parasite of humans, rabbits, poultry and chickens. Nocturnal produce a distinctive odor from their stink gland. Eggs are laid in the cracks and crevices and emerge in 6 to 10 days to feed on blood for 2 to 5 minutes.

341
Q

Can bedbugs infect cats or dogs

A

No

342
Q

What do lice cause

A

Pediculosis

343
Q

What are the two orders of lice

A

Mallophaga (chewing/biting)Anoplura (sucking)

344
Q

Describe the anatomy of lice in general

A

All components of insects but wingless, dorsoventrally flattened

345
Q

Describe the anatomy of the Mallophaga lice

A

Usually smaller than unemployed. Yellow, large rounded head that is wider than the widest part of the thorax

346
Q

Describe the anatomy of the anoplura lice

A

Larger than mellophaga, red to gray color. Smaller head that is more narrow than the widest part of the thorax.

347
Q

What is the host for the mallophaga lice

A

Mammals and birds

348
Q

What is the method of transmission for the Mallophaga lice

A

Animal to animal. Adults are directly transmitted or go phoresis on the fly. Other life stages are transmitted by fomites

349
Q

What do Mallophaga lice feed on

A

Skin, debris, hair. Plus or minus blood and cause dermatitis.

350
Q

What is the host for the Anoplura lice

A

Domestic animals: not cats OR birds.

351
Q

How is the Anoplura lice transmitted

A

From animal to animal. Adults go directly and other stages go on fomites

352
Q

What does the anoplura lice feed on

A

Blood and causes anemia

353
Q

What is pediculus humanus capitis

A

Non disease carrying head lice only found on humans

354
Q

What is pediculus humanus humanus corporis

A

Disease carrying body lice

355
Q

What is phthirus pubis

A

Crab or pubic lice

356
Q

What are three stages of the anopluran or mallophagian lice life cycle

A

The nitThe nymph (has 3 nymphal stages)Adult

357
Q

Describe the nit stage of lice development

A

Cements to hair or feather shaft. Hatches in 5-14 days

358
Q

Describe the nymph stage of the lice life cycle

A

Has 3 nymphal stages (2-3 weeks)

359
Q

Describe the adult stage of the lice life cycle

A

Similar in appearance to nymphal stage but larger and have functional reproductive organs that allow them to mate and lay eggs

360
Q

What does a diptera insect have

A

Two wings

361
Q

What do adult flies feed on

A

Blood, tears saliva and mucus.

362
Q

What are flies considered

A

Periodic parasites

363
Q

Where are there larva of flies laid

A

In the sub cutaneous tissues or internal organs of animals

364
Q

Describe the female only flies that feed on blood

A

Simulium (black fly)Culicoides (sand flies) ** host for onchocerca cervicalis in equines. Culex (mosquito)

365
Q

Describe the culex mosquito

A

Can cause anemia. Lay eggs in water. Transmit heartworm

366
Q

What do other Mosquitos besides the culex transmit

A

Malaria, w. Bancrofti, trypanosoma

367
Q

Describe the male and female flies that feed on blood

A

The glossina fly (tst tse fly) that transmits trypanosoma

368
Q

What are the flies that feed on tears saliva and mucus

A

Musca domestica (house fly)Musca automnalis (face fly)Sarcophaga (flesh fly)

369
Q

Describe the house fly

A

Made to spread pathogens. Facultative myiasis which is maggots

370
Q

Describe the face fly

A

Spread pinkeye in cattle

371
Q

Describe the flesh fly

A

Facultative myiasis. Made to spread pathogens

372
Q

What is the cuterebra species or (warbles)

A

In rodent species mostly, occasionally in cat or dog in head or neck. Adults lay eggs at entrances of rodent Burroughs

373
Q

How do cats and dogs get infected with warbles

A

Sniff rabbit holes

374
Q

Warbles are usually cutaneous but are also known for its aberrant migration sites into the

A

Cranial volt and nose

375
Q

What color is L2 of the warbles

A

White

376
Q

What color is L3of the warbles

A

Black is covered in spines

377
Q

Describe ctenocephalides canis/felis

A

High economic importance in veterinary medicine. Prolific and easy to transplant. Host to host contact or from environment

378
Q

Describe the adult flea

A

Brown, laterally flattened to allow for slithering through hairs. Piercing mouth part that acts like a siphon. Posterior leg is much bigger then the anterior pairs. Feed on blood and leave dried blood as dirt.

379
Q

Describe the first flea stage

A

Eggs. Pearly white do not stick to host and instead fall on the ground.

380
Q

Describe the larva flea stage

A

Maggot- like and covered in small hairs. Feed on flea dirt, organic debris, shell or other flea larva. Do not develop in sunlight and therefore prefer dark places such as the edge of the walls

381
Q

Describe the pupae stage of the flea

A

Cocoons found in soil, and vegetation, in carpets, under furniture, on animal bedding. Prevents the pupa from desiccating and is very sticky. Lasts months to years and the change in vibration and CO2 reactivates them

382
Q

What is the pathology from fleas

A

They are an annoyance, they cause pruritis, they cause flea allergic dermatitis, cause iron deficiency anemia and death, can transmit many pathogens

383
Q

In which animals can fleas cause iron deficiency anemia and death

A

Young animals, dogs cats goats cattle sheep

384
Q

What pathogens can fleas transmit

A

Dipylidium caninum (Cestoda), Acanthochocheilonema reconditum

385
Q

What Microorganisms can fleas transmit

A

Hemoplasma (mycoplasma), yersinia pestis (plague), francisella tularensis (tularemia)

386
Q

How do you do a diagnosis of fleas

A

Identification of adult or identification of flea dirt

387
Q

How long is the treatment or elimination of fleas

A

Minimum three months. Can be long in cases of moderate to severe infestations

388
Q

How do you eliminate fleas

A

Eliminate the fleas on the pet, eliminate existing environmental infestation, prevent subsequent reinfestation

389
Q

How do you mechanically remove fleas

A

Flea comb, vacuuming of rugs carpets bedding and couches. Clean all upholstery

390
Q

What are some flea adulticides

A

Frontline plus, advantage multi, advantix, capstar, revolution, trifexis bravecto

391
Q

What is special about TriFlex us

A

A lot of reported deaths within the hour of application

392
Q

What are some insect growth regulator’s

A

Program, Sentinel, frontline plus, advantage two, revolution

393
Q

What are the 4 to 5 developmental stages of ticks

A

Egg, larva, nymph, adult

394
Q

What are the two types of mites

A

Sarcoptiform and non sarcoptiform

395
Q

Describe sarcoptiform mites

A

Cause Severe dermatologic problems and intense pruritis. Tiny oval to round bodies

396
Q

what are the sarcoptidae form of the sarcoptiform mites

A

Burrow or tunnel in epidermis. Diagnose by skin scraping

397
Q

What is the psoroptidae form of the scarcoptiform mites

A

On the surface of the skin or in the ear canal

398
Q

Describe the sarcoptidae mites

A

Male and female’s breed on the surface of the skin. Female burrows into the skin and deposits 40 to 50 eggs then dies. 3 to 10 days after depositing, the larva emerge exit the tunnels molt into nymphs and become adults in 12 to 17 days.

399
Q

Who does the sarcoptes scabiei species affect

A

Affects pigs, humans, cats, dogs.

400
Q

Describe sarcoptes scabiei in dogs

A

Can be zoonotic, have suckers on their legs, contagious on contact. Some dogs are carriers an asymptomatic

401
Q

How do you diagnose Sarcoptes scabies in dogs

A

Deep skin scrapings

402
Q

How do you treat Sarcoptes scabies in dogs

A

Moxidectin, imidacloprid, ivermectin

403
Q

What is notoedres Cati

A

Feline mange or scabies. From direct contact

404
Q

How do you diagnose notoedres cati

A

Deep skin scraping

405
Q

How do you treat Notoedres Cati

A

Selemectin, moxidectin/imidacloprid and ivermectin 

406
Q

Where do psoroptidae mites live on the body

A

Reside on the surface of the skin or in the ear canal

407
Q

How long is the lifecycle for psoroptidae mites

A

10 to 18 days(Mites can live off the host for 2 to 3 weeks)

408
Q

What is otodectes cynotis

A

The ear mite.

409
Q

Describe how otodectes cynotis is transmitted

A

Direct contact or indirect; from mites or living outside.

410
Q

What does otodectes cynotis cause

A

A very pruritic pedal pinna response

411
Q

How do you diagnose otodectes cynotis

A

Visualization and swam in mineral oil.

412
Q

What is a pedal pinna response

A

Where you touch the ear and the leg shakes

413
Q

What do otodectes cynotis look like in the ear

A

White or translucent

414
Q

What shape are non sarcoptiform mites

A

Cigar shaped

415
Q

What is Demodex

A

Many species and humans, Demodectic mange Non-pathogenic normal fauna of skin

416
Q

How is demodex transmitted

A

Mom to baby.

417
Q

Where is demodex found

A

In hair follicles and sebaceous glands.

418
Q

What happens with demodex in young immunodeficient animals

A

Causes the demodicosis;is localized or generalized and is an Alopecic region

419
Q

how do you diagnose demodex

A

Clip fur or squeeze skin to express mites. Continue until capillary bleeding occurs. Place it on slide with mineral oil. Scrape with scalpel to see if it is generalized.

420
Q

What is trombicula

A

Chiggers (thrombiculosis)Orange crusty dermatosis. Difficult to diagnose because it doesn’t stay long on the animal

421
Q

What are Cheyletiella parasitovax

A

Walking dandruff visible to the naked eye. Can be zoonotic but self limiting.

422
Q

How do you diagnose cheyletiella parasitovax

A

visualization of bite marks or scotch tape

423
Q

Describe the anatomy of ticks

A

Cheilicerae (2 pincers)Hypostome (straw) - penetrating, sucking mouthpiece. Anchors them in place.

424
Q

What do ixodid ticks have that covers all or parts of their body.

A

A chitin armor (shield)

425
Q

What do argasid ticks have

A

No chitin armor.

426
Q

Describe the pathology of a tick

A

Blood feeding activity. Saliva can be toxic and cause tick paralysis. Ticks are vectors of parasites, bacteria, viruses, rickettsia and organisms

427
Q

Which tick born diseases does the 4DX test diagnose

A

Anaplasmosis, borrelia, erlichia

428
Q

What is special about the tick lifecycle

A

Requires three hosts until it becomes an adult that can lay eggs

429
Q

What are some tick facts

A

It can feed on several different hosts and transmit limes disease. It can live 2 to 3 years without feeding but a female needs blood before fertilization and egg laying.

430
Q

How long does disease transmission require

A

24-48hr after attachment. They need to suck up and regurgitate.

431
Q

What tick prevention drugs are used on cats

A

Etofenprox, fipronil (frontline), and flumethrin

432
Q

What is approved for use in dogs

A

Advantix products, frontline, seresto(8 month collar for cats and dogs) , bravecto.

433
Q

What is the otobius megnini

A

Spinose ear tick that lives in the ear canal

434
Q

What does the Ixodes scapularis (ca, eq, human, deer) transmit

A

Lyme (borrelia burgdorferi), tularemia, babesia microti and ehrlichia (humans)

435
Q

What does the rhipicephalus sanguineus tick do

A

Invades homes and kennels and transmits ehrlichia canis.

436
Q

Which ticks are part of the ixodid (hard) tick category

A

Dermacentor variabilis (ca, hu): dog tick that causes tick paralysis. RMSF vector. Dermacentor andersoni (ca, hu): Rocky Mountain wood tick. Primary RMSF vector. Amblyoma americanum (mammals): lone star tick. vector of tularemia and RMSF

437
Q

What are the two most common nematodes of the G.I. tract of ruminants

A

Haemonchus contortus in goats and sheep.Ostertagia ostertagi in cows.

438
Q

Describe Haemonchus contortus

A

Barberpole nematode. One of the most pathogenic nematodes of ruminants. Causes severe anemia and Edema and goats and sheep

439
Q

Describe Ostertagia ostertagi

A

Male Calves are susceptible and adults are immune. Causes acute or chronic gastritis.

440
Q

What happens in the acute form of Ostertagia ostertagi

A

Loss of protein, anemia, death

441
Q

What happens in the chronic form of Ostertagia ostertagi

A

Kills HCL producing cells

442
Q

How is haemonchus and ostertagia transmitted

A

From ingestion of infected ovaLocated in abomasum and all intestines.

443
Q

How is haemonchus and ostertagia diagnosed

A

On fecal flotation of ruminants. Shows a trichostrongyle.

444
Q

If a trichostrongyle was recovered from a dog what would it be

A

A hookworm

445
Q

How are haemonchus and ostertagia treated

A

With many common dewormers but it causes resistance

446
Q

What is now the new way to prevent resistance from dewormers by nematodes.

A

Famacha method: anemia guide with pictures. Fecal egg count: used to track parasite infestation levels, individual susceptibility and anthelmintic effectiveness. ***have to be reduced by at least 90% or considered a failure.

447
Q

What are some other management strategies to reduce the need for deworming

A

Selective breeding for more parasite resistant sheep or goat’s by culling the most susceptible animals and introducing parasite resistant breeds.Pasture management. Managed intensive rotational grazing with non-susceptible species such as horse, cattle, swine or poultry. Using cows to vacuum up after calves since adult females are resistant to Ostertagia.

448
Q

What is the concept of refugia

A

Antihelminthic’s have contributed to severe drug resistance. Genetically resistant worms have become retained.

449
Q

What is refugia

A

Worms that are genetically not as resistant to antihelminthics. Keep nonresistant ones so that they spread on the non resistant worms. Avoid deworming all animals before turning them out onto clean postures.

450
Q

What is dictyocaulus

A

Affects cows, sheep and goats. It is a lungworm that is transmitted through the ingestion of larva.

451
Q

How do you diagnose dictyocaulus

A

Baermann technique

452
Q

What is thelazia

A

Eye worm that affects cows, sheep, goats and dogs.

453
Q

What is the intermediate host for thelazia

A

Musca automnalis (face fly)

454
Q

What are the two common Cestoda of farm animals

A

Moniezia in cows, sheep and goats.Taenia saginata in cows.

455
Q

What is moniezia.

A

Moniezia in cows, sheep and goats. Lives in GI tract and has various symptoms. More severe symptoms in young.

456
Q

What is Taenia saginata

A

In muscles (larval stage) of cows. It’s the beef tapeworm of humans.

457
Q

What are the two common Trematodes in farm animals

A

Fasciola hepatica in bo and ov Fascioloides magna in domestic and wild ruminants

458
Q

What is fasciola hepatica

A

In Bo and ov. Lives in the bile ducts.

459
Q

Describe fascioloides magna

A

In domestic and wild ruminants It is a giant liver fluke or Deer fluke.

460
Q

What are the common apicomplexans of the GI tract in large animals

A

Eimeria (bovine, ovine, caprine) isospora. Cryptosporidium (bovine, ovine, caprine).

461
Q

What does eimeria cause

A

Diarrhea and dehydration

462
Q

What does cyptosporidium cause

A

Diarrhea in calves that can be severe. Zoonosis.

463
Q

What is a flagellate of large animals

A

Tritrichomonas fetus that causes abortions

464
Q

What are the types of lice that farm animals are affected with

A

Mallophaga and Anoplura.

465
Q

List all the flies that farm animals are affected by

A

Tabanus (horse fly)Haematobia irritans (horn fly)Melophagus ovinus (wingless fly)M. Automnalis (face fly)Hypoderma (bot fly)Oestrus Ovis (nasal boy fly)Cochliomyia hominivorax (screw worm)

466
Q

What does the Tabanus (horse fly) do

A

Have a painful bite. They are a nuisance.

467
Q

What does the Haematobia irritans (horn fly) do

A

Lay eggs in dehorned animals wounds.

468
Q

What does the Melophagus ovinus (wingless fly) do

A

Lives deep in wool or fleece. Feeds on blood causing anemia. Damages skin and wool and parasite infested feces cause wool staining.

469
Q

What does the M. Automnalis (face fly) do

A

Feeds on ears, saliva, mucus. Vector of pink eye and thelazia.

470
Q

What does the Hypoderma (bot fly) do

A

Burrows into the skin and pokes in and out for air.

471
Q

What does the Oestrus Ovis (nasal boy fly) do

A

Burrows into the flesh of the nose

472
Q

What does the Cochliomyia hominivorax (screw worm) do

A

Invade fresh and contaminated skin wounds like C-sections. Economically impact the United States because they attacked the livestock. Has the appearance of a screw. Reportable to state and federal authorities, it had been eradicated but importation of animals brought it back.

473
Q

Where are the sarcoptidae scabiei mites found

A

Under surface of skin in bogus and Ovis.

474
Q

Where are the psoroptidae mites found

A

On the surface of skin of cuniculi, bovis and Ovis.

475
Q

Where is the psoroptidae chorioptes mite found

A

Foot and tail mite. Located on lower part of the body.

476
Q

Where is the non sarcoptiform mite found

A

Demodex is found in hair follicles.

477
Q

What ticks are large animals affected by

A

Ixodes scapularis: deer tickDermacentor andersoni: Rocky Mountain wood tick Amblyoma americanum: lone star tick Dermacentor albipictus: winter moose tick

478
Q

What are the pig nematodes of the GI tract

A

Ascaris suum (roundworm)Trichuris suis (Whipworms)

479
Q

Why is the pig nematode of the musculoskeletal system

A

Trichinella spiralis which is found in pig or horse muscle.

480
Q

How do you diagnose trichinella spiralis

A

Examination of muscle (often diaphragm muscle)

481
Q

Explain the zoonotic potential of trichinella spiralis

A

Undercooked meat. Also from bears, fox, seals. Cause a very painful infection due to fever and larva in body actively creating cysts.

482
Q

What is the tapeworm of the pig

A

Taenia solium

483
Q

What is Taenia solium

A

Zoonosis from undercooked pork. Forms a Metacestode in muscle. If eggs are ingested humans develop cysticercosis and become an intermediate host. This can lead to epilepsy and death

484
Q

What are the ciliate protozoans of the GI tract

A

Balantidium coli. Only ciliate to parasitize humans. Wash all fruits and vegetables with clean water to prevent it.

485
Q

What is the pig apicomplexans

A

CystoisoaporaCryptosporidium

486
Q

What arthropods are pigs affected by

A

LiceFlies Mites (sarcoptes and demodex)

487
Q

What are some generalities associated with livestock parasites

A

Parasite burdens are not evenly distributed in the herd. About 20% of animals harbor about 80% of parasites. Treatment is done for the herd and not the individual, the goal is not to eliminate but rather reduce the parasite burden. Severely affected individuals are often culled from the herd.

488
Q

Describe the morphology of the acanthocephala

A

Long cylindrical nose with retractable probiscus. Probiscis is covered in spines which allows attachment organelles. Has males and females. Absorb nutrients by their body surface

489
Q

How many eggs are laid by an adult acanthocephala per day

A

1/4 million per day

490
Q

Describe the egg of the acanthocephalan

A

Contains a larval form. Unique shape with three shells.

491
Q

Describe the lifecycle of the acanthocephalan

A

Ingestion of egg by arthropod intermediate host. Egg hatches in the intermediate host and develops into a stage with an inverted proboscis (acanthella). The intermediate host is ingested and the proboscis everts which allows for attachment to the intestine

492
Q

What is the oncicola canis

A

Lives in small intestine, the proboscis can perforate the intestinal wall and cause peritonitis.

493
Q

What is the intermediate host for oncicola canis

A

Dung beetle

494
Q

How do you diagnose oncicola canis

A

Fecal flotation.

495
Q

Describe protozoa

A

Most protozoa are free living organisms that are Uni cellular and motile. Mostly microscopic and into forms a cyst or a trophozoite

496
Q

How are protozoans classed in their phylla

A

Based on their movement style:FlagellatesAmoebaeCiliatesApicomplexans

497
Q

Describe flagellates

A

May come in two forms. At least one flagellum in the trophozoites form which allows for movement. They live in liquid: blood, lymph, CSF. Tear drop and pear shaped.

498
Q

What are some flagellate pathogens

A

TrichomonasGiardiaTrypanosoma

499
Q

How do amoeba move

A

By pseudopods

500
Q

What are the two forms that amoebas come in

A

Trophozoite form and cystic form

Vet Nursing (27 decks)

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