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Vet Nursing > Instrumentation > Flashcards

Instrumentation Flashcards

All information that was taught to me while attending Vanier College's "Animal Health Technology" Program, located in St-Laurent Montreal.

1
Q

What is a stethoscope

A

An acoustical diagnostic instrument especially useful in the evaluation of heart and pulmonary sounds

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2
Q

What are the stethoscope ear tips made out of

A

Plastic, rubber, soft or hard. Many types and sizes available

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3
Q

What should ear tips do

A

Be cleanable, replaceable and comfortable. Seal the outer ear canal without entering the canal

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4
Q

In which direction should ear tips curve

A

Forwards

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5
Q

Describe the ear tube or binaural headpiece

A

Distributes the sound to each ear, should hold ear tips at a comfortable distance apart. Tension should be adjustable to accommodate a variety of head sizes

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6
Q

Describe the stethoscope tubing

A

Tubing should be flexible, smooth and thick walled to decreased ambient noise and improve sound transmission.

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7
Q

What is the variety of lengths that stethoscope tubing comes in

A

14-18 and 25-30

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8
Q

What are the two sound transmitted devices in the chest piece of a stethoscope

A

The diaphragm and the bell

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9
Q

Describe the role of a diaphragm in the chest piece of a stethoscope

A

Detects mainly high-frequency sounds and attenuates low-frequency sounds when diaphragm is applied firmly to the skin of the thoracic cage. Breath sounds, normal heart sounds, and some murmurs.

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10
Q

Describe the role of the bell in the chest piece of the stethoscope

A

Detects mainly low-frequency sounds, diastolic heart murmurs and bowel sounds. Apply lightly to skin if you press with too much pressure the underlying skin acts as a diaphragm that can mask low-frequency sounds

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11
Q

Describe the relationship between capacity of the Bell and diaphragm to register sounds and diameter

A

Larger equals better. Size dictated by practical means and patient size.

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12
Q

What are the two different arrangements that the bell and diaphragm can have

A

Two separate pieces, with one on either side of the chest-piece Combined into a single sided chest-piece

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13
Q

Describe how to use a one sided chest piece to pick up low and high frequency sounds

A

For the one sided chest piece a light pressure on the chest piece against the thoracic wall gives the effect of a bell and a firmer pressure converts it to a diaphragm

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14
Q

How many heart sounds do hear when you listen to a normal heartbeat

A

2 heart sounds

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15
Q

What is S one

A

Onset of ventricular Systole. Mitral and tricuspid valve’s close

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16
Q

What is S 2

A

Termination of ventricular systole. Aortic and pulmonary valves close

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17
Q

What is S3

A

Early diastole. Rapid ventricular filling

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18
Q

What is S4

A

Just after atrial contraction and just before ventricular systole. Large amount of blood entering quickly

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19
Q

What can you hear on the left side of the heart

A

Mitral valve, aortic valve, pulmonary valve

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20
Q

What can you hear on the right side of the heart

A

Tricuspid valve

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21
Q

How do you maintain the stethoscope

A

Can use soapy water or alcohol to wipe down surfaces. No steam sterilization. Ear tips can be removed for cleaning. Diaphragm can be removed to clean the chest piece

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22
Q

What possible reason we have for not hearing anything through the stethoscope

A

It’s been turned to the other side, not in the right area, obstruction of ear tip

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23
Q

What does the refractometer do

A

Measures protein concentration in a liquid, measures fluid specific gravity

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24
Q

How does the refractometer work

A

By refraction: bending of light rays as they pass from a medium into another with a different optical density

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25
Q

What fluid types can you measure protein concentration from in the refractometer

A

Plasma, body fluids, cerebrospinal fluid, liquids accumulating in body cavities

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26
Q

What is the unit for protein concentration

A

In grams per 100 mL

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27
Q

What is the specific gravity based off of

A

Weight of a substance compared to water.

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28
Q

What are exudate

A

Fluids containing a high amount of protein and cellular debris escaped from blood vessels. Usually a result of inflammation

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29
Q

What are transUdates

A

Fluids escaped from tissues or blood vessels. Contain small amount of proteins or solids

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30
Q

What is the built-in prisim used for in the refractometer

A

Deviation and dispersion of light

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31
Q

What is special about the scale of the refractometer

A

It needs to be calibrated and tested. Measures specific gravity of urine and protein concentration in grams per 100 mL

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32
Q

What are the four components of the refractometer

A

Eyepiece, cover plate, prism, calibration screw

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33
Q

Describe the AO TS refractometer

A

Plasma protein and urine specific gravity. Measures refractive index, protein concentration of plasma, urine specific gravity.

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34
Q

What does a uricon refractometer measure

A

Urine specific gravity, refractive index scale

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35
Q

What does the Leica vet 360 refractometer measure

A

Urine specific gravity for dogs and cats as well as serum or plasma protein in grams per 100 mL

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36
Q

How do you use the refractometer

A

Please drop of sample on prison plus gently close cover plate. Look at scale through eyepiece. Read result.

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37
Q

How do you clean the refractometer

A

Wipe clean with tissue paper and distilled water

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38
Q

Why do you avoid any gritty material on the prism

A

So that it doesn’t scratch the lens

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39
Q

How often should you calibrate the refractometer

A

Weekly

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40
Q

With what fluid should you calibrate the refractometer

A

Distilled water. Scale should read zero

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41
Q

How do you calibrate the refractometer

A

With the adjusting screw.

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42
Q

Can you immerse the refractometer and water

A

No

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43
Q

What do we do blood testing for

A

Complete blood, biochemistry, coagulation profile, immunology testing, blood bank testing, DNA testing

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44
Q

When you do a biochem what are the components

A

Protein, glucose, lipids, electrolytes, enzymes, hormones

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45
Q

What is plasma and what is it used for

A

Plasma is obtained after centrifugation of blood with a tube containing an anticoagulant such as EDTA, sodium site trait, heparin. Can be used for biochemistry analysis and total protein

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46
Q

What are EDTA tubes used for

A

Plasma collection after centrifugation. Hematocrit determination by microhematocrit Capillary tube and a blood smear

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47
Q

What is serum and what is it used for

A

Obtained after centrifugation of blood that has been allowed to coagulate. The clot composition is red blood cells white blood cells platelets fibrin and coagulation factors. Serum is used for blood biochemistry, red top tubes, tiger top tubes

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48
Q

What are the uses of the centrifuge

A

To separate cells and particulates from liquid part by centrifugal force

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49
Q

What is the supernatant

A

The lighter part of the fluid

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50
Q

What is the sediment

A

To heavier part of the fluid

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51
Q

What is the G Force

A

Acceleration to be applied to a sample

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52
Q

If we use the same rpm but different centrifuge with a bigger radius what happens to the G force applied to the sample

A

It is bigger. Take-home message is that the bigger the radius the bigger the G Force

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53
Q

What happens if you centrifuge something for too fast or too long

A

Cells can rupture or morphology is altered

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54
Q

What happens if you centrifuge something for too slow and too short of a time

A

Incomplete separation of the elements

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55
Q

What are the different types of centrifuges based on design

A

Swinging bucket, fixed angle centrifuge, horizontal micro hematocrit

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56
Q

What are the different types of centrifuges based on speed

A

Benchtop, micro centrifuge, high-speed, ultra centrifuges (for research)

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57
Q

What is a swinging bucket centrifuge used for

A

For urine or blood samples.

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58
Q

What are the hanging specimen cups called in the centrifuge

A

Trunnions

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59
Q

What are the disadvantages of the swinging bucket centrifuge

A

Remixing of sediment or supernatant, at a very high speed there is heat buildup

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60
Q

What is a fixed angle centrifuge used for

A

Higher speeds and horizontal centrifuge without the heat buildup. For rapid sedimentation of small particles

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61
Q

What is the microhematocrit centrifuge used for

A

Used to separate blood from plasma using a very small sample. Separates packed cell volume, Buffy coat, plasma (containing clotting factor)

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62
Q

What is the timer used for on the centrifuge

A

Sets required time for spinning samples. Automatically turn centrifuge off after preset time

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63
Q

What is the tachometer

A

Dial setting the speed. Absent in some centrifuges run at preset speeds

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64
Q

How do you care and maintain the centrifuge

A

Should always be used on a level surface. Always balance samples in the centrifuge. Close lids. Clean spills immediately. Clean with mild detergents. Maintenance schedule as per manufacture

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65
Q

What are the safety musts with a centrifuge

A

Check power supply and cord, only operate with closed cover

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66
Q

What is special about the Triax centrifuge

A

Blood, urine, microhematocrit, break

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67
Q

What do you have to do to the triac when you want to run a microhematocrit tube test

A

Take out the trunnions. Position micro capillary hematocrit to correctly with the clay towards the outside. Use metal lid cover

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68
Q

What are some reasons that the Triax centrifuge will not work correctly

A

Poor balancing, instrument not level, forgot cover, wrong setting for time or speed, placed micro capillary hematocrit tube clay the wrong way

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69
Q

What are calibration and quality control needed for

A

Together ensure the accuracy of results. Complement each other and both are necessary

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70
Q

Define calibration

A

Establishes an initial point of measurement or data point. Think of scale that is zeroed. Think of refractometer who specific gravity is adjusted with the screw to read 0 when distilled water is used

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71
Q

Why is quality control necessary

A

It checks that the calibration is correct. This is the exam for the equipment.

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72
Q

How can you test a scale to make sure this reliably weighing your patient

A

Use a standard to verify, weight or concentration

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73
Q

What do calibration and quality control together determine

A

The accuracy of the method. Accuracy and precision equals reliability

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74
Q

What can you say if you analyze a sample And get the correct result

A

The instrument does demonstrates good accuracy

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75
Q

What can you say about an instrument if you repeat the same analysis on the same sample a few times and get results with little variation

A

It has good precision

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76
Q

When does something have good accuracy and good precision

A

Correct results and acceptable variation. The only good option

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77
Q

When can something have poor accuracy And good precision

A

Incorrect results but An acceptable degree of variation

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78
Q

When can something have good accuracy but poor precision

A

Correct results but unacceptable degree of variation

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79
Q

When does something have poor accuracy and poor precision

A

Incorrect results with unacceptable degree of variation

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80
Q

What are errors in scale measurements due to

A

Displacing, tare, surface, location on scale, care and maintenance

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81
Q

What is an otoscope used for

A

Observation of ear structures

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82
Q

What are the components of the otoscope

A

Handle, head, bulb, speculum

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83
Q

What is the ophthalmoscope used for

A

Observation of eye structures. Dilation of pupils.

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84
Q

What are the components of the ophthalmoscope

A

Handle, head, bulb

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85
Q

What is the woods lamp used for

A

Dermatological conditions, ocular conditions, ethylene glycol poisoning in humans

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86
Q

What are the two types of tattoo devices for small animals

A

Clamp or tattoo gun

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87
Q

What do microchips do

A

They use RFID technology it goes under the skin in dogs and cats. Intramuscular in avians. Ear tags in farm animals.

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88
Q

Describe the schiotz tonometer for measuring intraocular pressure

A

Use weight and gravity. Must be used vertically. Requires local anesthetic

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89
Q

Describe the tonopen

A

Weight measured to produce a specific amount of flattening the cornea. Can be used in any position. Requires local anesthetic. much less contact surface then Schiotz.

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90
Q

What can the laser cyte hematology analyzer do

A

Check red blood cells, Reticulocytes, white blood cells, platelet count

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91
Q

What species can lasercyte hematology analyzer analyze samples from

A

Cat dog equine

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92
Q

Which white blood cells are granulocytes

A

All the Phils

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93
Q

Which white blood cells are agranulocyte’s

A

All the cytes

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94
Q

How does the lasercyte hematology analyzer work

A

Each cell goes through a laser beam. Light is scattered by the cell and measured by four detectors based on size, complexity, granularity, light absorption. The time of flight through the laser beam is also recorded

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95
Q

What are the main components of the lasersight hematology analyzer

A

Reagent compartment containing sheath reagent bottle and waste bottle. Air filter, status light, loading tray

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96
Q

In the CBC5R kit which tubes are contained

A

Purple top tubes, gray top tube, red top tubes, yellow top tubes

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97
Q

What is inside the purple top tube

A

EDTA

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98
Q

What’s inside the grey top tube

A

Quality beads, and new methylene blue stain to stain reticulocytes.

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99
Q

What is inside the red top tube

A

Discard tube

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100
Q

What is inside the yellow top tube

A

Automated enzymatic cleaner

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101
Q

What does the sheath reagent do

A

Lyses red blood cells to isolate the white blood cells for analysis

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102
Q

Go through the steps of analyzing a sample with the lasercyte

A

Collect a sample, Fill purple top that collect tubes with 0.5 to 1.5 mL. Invert eight times before collecting and running. Put sample and gray top tube in the analyzer. Enter patient info and run it.

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103
Q

What are the different ways you can verify results from the laser sight analyzer

A

Dot Plot, blood smear

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104
Q

How do you calibrate the laser sight analyzer

A

It’s done at the factory

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105
Q

How is quality control run on the lasersight analyzer

A

Quality beads in reagent tubes and two different hemoglobin readings are done

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106
Q

How does maintenance on the lasersight analyzer work

A

It’s automated. After every sample, every four hours, and every 24 hours it flushes and rinses. After every 20 samples the extensive enzymatic clean happens. Weekly the air filter must be cleaned, the system is rebooted and backed up, sheath reagent amount is checked, waste bottle is emptied

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107
Q

What does the catalyst DX analyzer do

A

Chemistry analysis, electrolytes, UPC fructosamine phenobarbital.

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108
Q

How does the catalyst DX analyzer work

A

By chemical reaction

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109
Q

What are the main components of the catalyst DX analyzer

A

Touchscreen interface, sample drawer, waste drawer, maintenance access doors, tip and diluent drawer

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110
Q

What are the pre-loaded clips you can put into the catalyst DX on a laser

A

Chem: 17 for canine, chem: 15 feline, Chem: 10 Preanesthetic, Lyte 4: electrolytes

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111
Q

What are some other main components of the catalyst DX analyzer

A

lithium Heprin whole blood separator, pipettes, sample cups

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112
Q

How do you prepare a whole blood sample for the catalyst DX analyzer

A

.7 mL in lithium heparin separator. Swirl five times

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113
Q

How do you prepare a plasma sample for the catalyst DX analyzer

A

Whole blood in lithium heparin tube, mix, centrifuge. 300 µL in sample cup with no bubbles

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114
Q

How do you prepare a serum sample for the catalyst DX analyzer

A

Dry or SST tube, allowed to Claude, centrifuge, 300 µL in sample cup with no bubbles

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115
Q

How do you prepare a urine sample for the catalyst DX analyzer

A

Centrifuge, 300 µL of supernatant in sample cup

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116
Q

How do you analyze the sample in the catalyst DX analyzer

A

Select patient data, load sample, load clip or slides with the Lyte 4 first, run, view results on catalyst or vet lab machine.

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117
Q

How do you maintain the catalyst DX analyzer

A

Empty the waste drawer, clean the internal components

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118
Q

How do you clean the internal components of the catalyst DX analyzer

A

Do it monthly and before quality control, lint free wipes with 70% alcohol

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119
Q

When do you do the quality control

A

Monthly,after the analyzer has been movedto verify system performance

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120
Q

How do you do a quality control sample

A

Client equals QC, patient equals lot number of QC clip, sample equals 300 µL vettrol solution, load QC clip and lyte 4 clip, compare results to pass fail values on QC log

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121
Q

What does the vet lab station do

A

Integrates results into a single report, organizes results, reduces manual data entry, integrates with clinics computer system

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122
Q

Why do we use an endotracheal tube

A

Protecting in maintaining a patient airway helps minimize anesthetic risk

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123
Q

What are the different types of material that endotracheal tubes are made out of

A

Red rubber, PVC, silicone

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124
Q

What are some different types of endotracheal tubes

A

Murphy, McGill, Cole

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125
Q

What is the purpose of endotracheal tube

A

Deliver anesthetic gas from breathing circuit to trachea and into patient’s lungs. To keep an open airway when in a critical condition

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126
Q

Describe the patient and of a endotracheal tube

A

The slanted end of tube that’s passed through the mouth and into the trachea

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127
Q

Describe the machine or circuit end of the tube

A

That end up or truths from the mouth and connects to the breathing circuit

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128
Q

Describe some general qualities of red rubber endotracheal tubes

A

Common, flexible, may collapse, difficult to detect occlusions due too solid colors, may absorb disinfectant solutions, short longevity.

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129
Q

Give some general characteristics of PVC tubes

A

Transparent, stiffer, higher risk of tissue trauma, less porous, has a radio opaque line

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130
Q

Describe some general qualities of silicone rubber tube

A

Expensive, strong and pliable, less irritating, resistant to cleaning

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131
Q

What are two special types of endotracheal tubes

A

Metal coiled tubes, fire resistant metal tubes

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132
Q

What is a stylet

A

Guides and facilitates insertion of small or flexible endotracheal tubes into the trachea

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133
Q

Describe the difference between the Murphy and McGill endotracheal tube

A

The Murphy has an eye

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134
Q

Describe the cole endotracheal tube

A

Short, uncuffed, for very small patients

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135
Q

Describe the sizing of tubes

A

French scale system. Pick three sizes of tube, one that will fit perfectly one that is one size larger, one that is one size smaller

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136
Q

How do you select the correct size of tube

A

Through gentle palpation of trachea, widest tube that will fit comfortably past larynx and into trachea without excessive force

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137
Q

What happens if you have increased mechanical dead space

A

You have decreased ventilation

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138
Q

How do you tell the length of an ET tube

A

Tip of nose to the thoracic inlet

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139
Q

What happens if the endotracheal tube goes beyond the thoracic Inlet

A

Risk of ventilation of only one lung.

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140
Q

What are the advantages of using cuffed endotracheal tubes

A

Decreased risk of aspiration, prevents leak of waste gas, prevents inspiration of room air

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141
Q

What are the disadvantages of cuffed tubes

A

Damage to trick your wall, compression of endotracheal tube lumen

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142
Q

Why is it important to attach the endotracheal tube properly to the patient

A

To prevent movement of the tube which can cause trauma to the trachea

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143
Q

How do you check the cuff prior to intubation

A

Fill it up with air and leave it for five minutes

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144
Q

What are some important points to remember about endotracheal tubes

A

Endotracheal tubes should be lubricated to avoid trauma to the trachea, never move or turn the patient while the endotracheal tube is connected to anesthesia machine, do not over inflate a cuff, deflate the cuff before extubating

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145
Q

How do you clean endotracheal tubes

A

So can mild soap detergent, scrub insides with a brush, and fleet cough slightly to clean fold, rinse well, air dry

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146
Q

How do you disinfect endotracheal tubes

A

Chlorhexidine, Excel, glutaraldehyde which is unstable

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147
Q

Which tubes can you autoclave

A

Silicone tube

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148
Q

Describe some general characteristics of endotracheal tubes

A

Allows control of airway, oxygen and inhalant delivered closer to lungs, lower oxygen flow required, allows for positive pressure ventilation if apnea, decreases anatomical dead space, prevent aspiration

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149
Q

Describe some general characteristics of facemasks

A

Relies on patient to maintain respiratory rate, uptake of oxygen and inhalant depends on patient respiration, higher oxygen flow required, cannot assist with ventilation

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150
Q

What is a laryngoscope used for

A

Increases visibility of pharynx larynx and the tracheal opening.

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151
Q

What are the five components of the laryngoscope

A

Handle, Blade, slip groove, light source, light pipe

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152
Q

What is a Macintosh blade

A

A curved laryngoscope Blade

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153
Q

What is a miller blade

A

A Straight laryngoscope Blade

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154
Q

How do you maintain and clean laryngoscope’s

A

Gently scrub blade in soapy H2O, Renton clean top water. Disinfect handle with alcohol.

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155
Q

What do you check if the unit fails to light or flickers

A

Check the lamp, batteries, replace parts

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156
Q

What are hair clippers used for

A

Used for hair removal. Surgical prep, around wounds, aesthetic procedures. Either electric or battery operated. Interchangeable blades.

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157
Q

How do you shave an open wound with the clipper

A

Put lube in the wound and shave around it

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158
Q

How do you hold the razor

A

With a pencil grip.

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159
Q

How do you know how much to shave for surgical prep

A

Minimum 10 cm in all directions from planned incision

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160
Q

How do you care in maintaining the clipper

A

Apply lubricating oil to blades and brush off organic material

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161
Q

What does the electrosurgery unit get used for

A

Uses high-frequency electric current to cut or coagulate tissue in a controlled manner

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162
Q

Describe the components of an electro surgery unit

A

Electrode, electrosurgical unit, ground plate, footpad

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163
Q

What happens when the footpedal of the electrosurgery unit is pressed

A

Current runs through the active electrode then runs through the tissue being incised through the patient into the ground plate. The ground plate brings the current from the patient back to the generator. A complete circuit is needed for the current to flow

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164
Q

Describe the active electrode in the electrosurgery unit

A

In contact with a very small area of the patient. High current density at that point. Maximizes the effects on the tissue.

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165
Q

Describe the ground electrode in the electrosurgery unit

A

In contact with a large area of patient. Low current density. Minimizes damage to tissues which are not in surgical site

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166
Q

What are some safety concerns with the electrosurgery unit

A

Risk of Burns to patient, current leakage

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167
Q

What are the advantages of the electrosurgery unit

A

Reduced blood loss, reduced foreign material, ease of hemostasis, reduced surgical time, small cutting element

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168
Q

What are some disadvantages of the electrosurgery unit

A

Greater tissue damage, reduced resistance to infection, can burn patient, fire and explosion hazard

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169
Q

How do you care and maintain the electrosurgery unit

A

White electrodes with alcohol moistened gauze pad while operating, sterilize electrodes. Clean the unit with mild soap or water

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170
Q

Why is proper surgical instrument care important

A

Patient safety, longevity of instruments

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171
Q

What can spotting, staining and corrosion do

A

Impaired function of surgical instruments, interfere with sterilization, shortening instrument life

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172
Q

How does spotting staining and corrosion impair function of surgical instruments

A

Rust in box lock area impair opening of instruments. Rusted scissor blades become doll

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173
Q

How can spotting staining and corrosion interfere with sterilization

A

Spores are protected from distruction by layers of iron oxide

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174
Q

Describe characteristics of spots on surgical instruments

A

Loose or semi adherent deposits on instruments surface. Usually wiped off with a cloth with minimal friction. Don’t physically or chemically effect instruments if they are removed

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175
Q

What can cause spots on surgical instruments

A

Mineral water deposits, chemical residues, steam residue, poor soil removal

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176
Q

Give some general characteristics of stains on surgical instruments

A

Tightly adhered deposits on instrument surface, can be an integral part of the surface, don’t physically or chemically effect instruments if they removed

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177
Q

What can cause stains on surgical instruments

A

Replating of metals, impure steam

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178
Q

What are surgical residues and what do they cause

A

Blood, tissue, pus. Contain chloride ions that cause corrosion. Primary cause of pitting, staining and discoloration of surgical instruments

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179
Q

How do you resolve surgical residues

A

Clean and dry instruments immediately after surgery, open hinged instruments

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180
Q

What can cause corrosion

A

Tapwater, harsh cleaners, residual detergent on surgery drapes

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181
Q

How can you test for rust

A

Taking an eraser and if there’s a pit mark under the stain then it is rust

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182
Q

What does an orange brown stain usually mean

A

Phosphate deposit. Caused by autoclave water, dirty autoclave, bleach, surgical wrappings

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183
Q

What does a dark brown stain mean

A

Caused by dry blood missed at cleaning stage, acidic solutions

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184
Q

What is a bluish black stains caused by

A

Plating which is contact between dissimilar metals

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185
Q

What is a multicolor or rainbow color caused by

A

Excessive heat during autoclaving

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186
Q

What are the steps for basic cleaning

A

Presoaking, manual cleaning, ultrasonic cleaning, inspection and repair, lubrication

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187
Q

What is Sterility

A

State of being free of viable micro organisms

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188
Q

What is sterilization

A

Process of killing micro organisms that remain on a clean instrument

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189
Q

What are four important conditions for the autoclave

A

Adequate contact between steam and micro organisms, sufficient moisture, exposure to temperatures lethal to heat resistant micro organisms, adequate time

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190
Q

What are four important parameters for ethylene oxide gas sterilization

A

Concentration of gas, exposure time, temperature, relative humidity

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191
Q

Is there any difference in the specific gravity of urine pre-versus post centrifugation

A

No because it measures the dissolved solute not the supersaturated particles

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192
Q

Do you use fresh or centrifuge sample of urine on the Chemstrip

A

Fresh

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193
Q

What does the laser cyte machine measure

A

Total number of red blood cells, hematocrit value, hemoglobin, erythrocyte

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194
Q

How does the laser cyte machine works

A

Using a laser it shines to the cells and registers size absorption granularity

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195
Q

What type of changes in blood can interfere with the analysis from the catalyst DX analyzer

A

Hemo lysis, coagulation of blood, agglutination

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196
Q

State three causes of hemolysis

A

Shake too hard, stressed Cat or dog, the needle is too small

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197
Q

Can you run a Chem 15 test while there is a phenobarbital test in progress

A

No

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198
Q

Name 5 objects used in the analyzer

A

PipetteClipsSample cupLithium heparin whole blood separator Pipette tips

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199
Q

In what type of tube should you collect your blood sample if you want to use plasma for your analysis and how much do you need

A

300 µL and a lithium heparin top

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200
Q

Which clip is always placed first in the catalyst dx analyze

A

Lyte 4 clip

201
Q

Which components of the catalyst DX idolizer should be filled and emptied regularly

A

The diluent drawer is filled and the waste drawer is emptied

202
Q

What are the two types of woods lamp

A

White light and black light

203
Q

What is the order of lamp removal when bulbs need to be replaced in the Woods lamp

A

The Inner lamp first and then the second lamp

204
Q

What is the order of lamp installation when a bulb is being replaced in the woods lamp

A

Install the two ultraviolet lamp first

205
Q

Which microchip type is accepted at the international level and in Canada

A

RFID/ISO

206
Q

What are the correct steps to clean disinfect and sterilize surgical instruments

A

Rinse in pH neutral water, immerse in soapy water, brush, ultrasonic for 10 minutes, rinse in tapwater, distilled bath, dry

207
Q

What are the three functions of the instrument milk

A

Lubricant, rusted inhibitor, anti microbial

208
Q

What do exposure tape indicators show

A

You’ve been exposed to gas

209
Q

What do you do dosimeter tape indicators show

A

Have you been exposed to correct concentration, correct time, correct temperature

210
Q

How frequently should you use a biological test indicator

A

Once a week

211
Q

What are the two types of anesthetic systems

A

Bain and circle

212
Q

List some components of the anesthetic machine

A

Compressed carrier gas supply, oxygen flow meter and anesthetic vaporizer, breathing circuit, scavenging system

213
Q

Describe the oxygen flow meter and anaesthetic vaporizer

A

Flowmeter allows oxygen carrier gas to flow at a rate of liters per minute. The oxygen gas picks up gas and anesthetic from the vaporizer.

214
Q

Describe the breathing circuit

A

Conveys carrier gases and inhalant anesthetic to the patient and removes exhaled carbon dioxide.

215
Q

What are the two types of breathing circuits

A

Re-breathing circuits a non-rebreathing circuits

216
Q

Describe the gas scavenging system

A

Disposes of excess and waste anesthetic gases

217
Q

What are the two types of anesthetic vaporizers

A

Percision and non Percision vaporizers

218
Q

How much oxygen does a healthy conscious animal receive in the air

A

21%

219
Q

How much oxygen does an animal received in the anesthetic system

A

Up to 100%

220
Q

Why is the oxygen percentage so high in the anesthetic system

A

Due to the fact that anesthetized patients have a decrease respiratory rate and tidal volume which causes a risk of hypoxia with normal air.

221
Q

Describe the compressed gas cylinders

A

Contain a large volume of courier gases in the highly pressurized compressed state.

222
Q

What are the two types of compressed gas cylinders

A

The E cylinder and the K cylinder

223
Q

Describe the E cylinder

A

Small and directly attached to a machine by the yoke

224
Q

Describe the K cylinder

A

Large and freestanding. Connected to the machine via the gas line

225
Q

What is the function of the anesthetic machine

A

To deliver oxygen and volatile anesthetic gas to and from patient and to deliver oxygen gas to critical patients. The carrier gas oxygen transport vaporized anesthetic gas to patient at a controlled flow rate.

226
Q

What happens if a cylinder is dropped

A

It will cause it to fly at a high velocity in the opposite direction of released gas.

227
Q

How do you calculate the liters of oxygen by the psi for the E cylinder

A

Times by .3

228
Q

How do you calculate the liters of oxygen by the psi

A

Times by 3.1

229
Q

When should oxygen tanks be changed

A

When pressure drops below 100 or 200 psi

230
Q

When should Oxymed be called

A

When pressure drops below 500

231
Q

Describe the pressure reducing valve

A

Reduces the pressure of the gas to a constant and safe operating pressure of 40 to 50 psi

232
Q

What is the flowmeter

A

Dial attached to a graduated glass cylinder and a moving indicator that indicates gas flow rate in liters per minute

233
Q

How do you read the ball indicator in the flowmeter

A

At the center of the ball

234
Q

How do you read the rotor indicator in a flowmeter

A

At the top of the rotor

235
Q

What happens if the flowmeters opened

A

Allows oxygen gas to flow through the machine if the dial is open and sets the gas flow in liters per minute

236
Q

What does the flowmeter reduce oxygen pressure to

A

15 psi

237
Q

What is the oxygen flush valve used for

A

Used to rapidly deliver a large volume of pure oxygen gas. Delivers oxygen gas directly into the circuit on bypasses oxygen flow meter and anesthetic vaporizer

238
Q

What is the uses for the oxygen flush valve

A

Rapidly delivers oxygen to critically ill patient. Rapidly fills depleted reservoir bag. Dilutes anesthetic gas remaining in the circuit

239
Q

What is the vaporizer used for

A

Convert liquid anesthetic to vapor anesthetic

240
Q

How do you know when to refill the vaporizer

A

If over half of the anesthetic has evaporated

241
Q

What is a Percision vaporizer

A

Delivers exact concentrations of anesthetic.

242
Q

What are some components to the circle rebreathing system

A

Fresh gas inlet, Unidirectional valve, pop off valve, reservoir bag, carbon dioxide absorber, pressure manometer, breathing tubes

243
Q

What is the fresh gas inlet

A

The point at which the carrier gas on the anesthetic gas enter the system

244
Q

How is the fresh gas inlet connected to the circle system

A

By the vaporizer outlet port

245
Q

What is a Uni directional valve

A

Located inside a clear housing that allows the anesthetist to observe the action of the valves. Can be used to monitor respiratory rate

246
Q

What happens when a patient enhales in the Uni directional valve

A

Inspiratory Uni directional valve will open to allow passage of fresh gas to the patient

247
Q

What happens to the Uni directional valve when the patient exhales

A

Carbon dioxide and anesthetic gas is released from the bloodstream and exhaled.

248
Q

What is the use of the pop off valve

A

Allows excess gas to exit the system and enter the scavenger. Prevents build up of excessive pressure within the circuit

249
Q

What position should the pop off valve always been when connected to the animal

A

Open

250
Q

Describe the reservoir bag

A

Rubber bag that gradually inflates as gases enter the circuit or patient exhales. Deflates one patient inhales.

251
Q

What are some uses of the reservoir bag

A

Flexible storage reservoir. Respiratory monitoring tool. Aids in confirming proper ET tube placement, allows delivery of oxygen and anesthetic gases to patient

252
Q

Why is bagging beneficial

A

Helps reinflate collapsed alveoli. can normalize respiratory rate

253
Q

How do you calculate which of reservoir bag you need

A

Minimum of 60 mL per kilogram

254
Q

What happens if your reservoir bag is too small

A

Reservoir may not be large enough for patient to breathe easily. May over inflate during expiration increasing the pressure in the patient’s airways

255
Q

What is the optimum size for reservoir bug

A

Three quarters full at peak inspiration

256
Q

What is the use of the carbon dioxide absorber

A

Absorb carbon dioxide

257
Q

How do you know when you need to change the carbon dioxide absorbing soda lime

A

The pH indicator causes granules to change color when saturated

258
Q

After how many hours of use is it recommended to change soda lime granules

A

14 to 18 hours of use

259
Q

What is the function of the pressure manometer

A

Indicates the pressure of gases within the breathing system

260
Q

What is the negative pressure relief valve used for

A

Admits room air into the breathing circuit if negative pressure is detected

261
Q

What are the breathing tubes used for

A

Carries anesthetic gas to and from the patient

262
Q

What are the three types of breathing systems

A

Total rebreathing (closed)Partial rebreathing (semi closed)Non rebreathing

263
Q

Describe the total rebreathing system

A

Closed Pop off valveAll gasses are recirculated Slow turnover of gasesOnly for animals over 7-10kg

264
Q

What are three concerns with total rebreathing

A

Co2 accumulationDifficult to exhaleO2 depletion

265
Q

Describe a semi closed system

A

Pop off left open All exhale gases escape to scavenger, requires high oxygen flow rate. For animals less than 10kg

266
Q

Describe the brain system

A

Tubing allows incoming gases to be warmed by the surrounding exhaled gases. Lighter and less cumbersome system. No CO2 canister

267
Q

Describe the induction flowrate

A

High oxygen flow rate to saturate circuit with carrier gas and static

268
Q

Describe maintence flowrate

A

Oxygen flow rate reduced

269
Q

Describe the recovery flow rate

A

Hi oxygen flow rate

270
Q

What is the unit for waste anesthetic gas concentration

A

Ppm

271
Q

What are the two categories of health hazards induced by long-term effects of anesthetic gas

A

Short-term problems and long-term problems

272
Q

What are some short-term problems of anesthetic gas

A

Fatigue, headache, drowsiness, depression, irritability

273
Q

What are some long-term effects of anesthetic gas

A

Reproductive disorders, liver and kidney damage, bone marrow abnormalities

274
Q

What is the list of gas toxicity in order

A

IsofluraneSevofluraneHalotaneMethoxyflurane

275
Q

What are two types of scavenging systems

A

Active system Passive system

276
Q

What does the active system do

A

Suction created by vacuum pump draws gas in the scavenger

277
Q

Describe passive systems

A

Positive pressure of gas in the machine pushes gas in the scavenger

278
Q

What is a risk in active and passive scavenging systems

A

Obstruction

279
Q

What are the two types of leak test

A

High pressure leak test at 50 psi low pressure leak test at 15 psi

280
Q

Why do you do a high pressure leak test

A

To check for leaks between gas tanks and flowmeters

281
Q

Why do you do low-pressure leak test

A

To test for leaks from anesthetic machine to breathing circuit

282
Q

How do you do a high-pressure system leak test

A

Turn the tank on. Note tank pressure reading. Turn tank off. Recheck tank pressure gauge one hour later

283
Q

Describe doing a low-pressure system leak test

A

Close pop off valve and occlude patient port. Set flowmeter to 2 L per minute. Turn off flowmeter when bag fully inflated

284
Q

When is a high pressure leak test done

A

Every week

285
Q

When is a low pressure leak test done

A

Every time machine is assembled for you

286
Q

What are seven ways to minimize gas release

A

Minimize use of anesthetic chambers. Avoid using masks to induce or maintain anesthesia.Used cuffed eT tubes for adequate size when possible. Ensure reservoir bag is synchronized with patients respiration. Avoid turning vaporizer and flowmeter on until machine is connected to ET tube.Do not release contents of reservoir bike into room area. Leave patient attached until extubation to allow expired gasses to enter the scavenging system

287
Q

What are the hazards of ionizing radiation

A

Harmful to immature and rapidly dividing cells

288
Q

What is a millisievert

A

Unit for measuring amounts of low-level radiation received

289
Q

What is the acceptable exposure limit of radiation per year

A

50 mSv’s per year

290
Q

What is the exposure limit for five years of radiation

A

100 mSv

291
Q

What is the limit of radiation for a declared pregnant worker

A

4 millisievert’s

292
Q

Which patients are at risk for x-rays

A

Breeding animal

293
Q

What are three sources of exposure to radiation for personnel

A

Primary beam, scatter radiation, x-ray tube hosting

294
Q

Do lead gloves protect from the primary beam

A

No just from scatter radiation

295
Q

How do you expose large animals to the primary beam

A

Use a cassette holder instead of holding the cassette with your hands

296
Q

What is scatter radiation

A

It is produced when x-rays from the primary beam change direction after colliding with objects in their path. Large portion travels in an upward path towards chest and head of restrainer.

297
Q

What is a personal radiation monitoring device called

A

Dosimeter

298
Q

What does a dosimeter do

A

Registers amount of radiation received

299
Q

What are the two dosimeter types

A

Film badge dosimeter, thermoluminescent dosimeter

300
Q

How often is the dosimeter sent to the lab for analysis

A

Every three months or every two weeks during pregnancy

301
Q

How do you shield yourself from radiation

A

Using protective apparel, a portable lead wall, collimation.

302
Q

What are four examples of protective apparel for radiation

A

Aprons, thyroid shield, gloves, lead-based glasses

303
Q

How do you clean lead apparel

A

With a soapy water and a soft brush

304
Q

What is a portable led wall used for

A

Preventing radiation.

305
Q

What does an aluminum filter do

A

Absorbs soft x-rays

306
Q

What does collimation do

A

Reduces exposure to primary beam and scatter radiation

307
Q

What is fluoroscopy

A

Special imaging modality that uses x-rays to produce a real time moving image. Used for evaluation of dynamic processes and to facilitate surgical treatment

308
Q

What is digital radiography

A

Uses digital sensors instead of traditional film

309
Q

What are the two types of digital radiography

A

Computer radiographyDigital radiography

310
Q

What is computer radiography

A

Image receptor screen is phosphor crystals that become energized during exposition. Latent image is read by a laser and sent to the computer

311
Q

What is digital radiography

A

The image sent directly to the computer

312
Q

What are the advantages to digital radiography

A

Reduced need for retakes, time efficiency, easier storage, can be sent to specialists

313
Q

What is a cat scan

A

X-ray generating tube that makes a continuous circular movement around the patient. X-rays are picked up by a row of detectors and table moves in sync with x-ray tube. A computer is used to mathematically reconstruct a cross-sectional images of a body area

314
Q

Why do we do CAT scans

A

Visualize internal organs, bones, soft tissue, blood vessels

315
Q

What is an MRI

A

Does not use ionizing radiation. Uses strong magnetic field and radio waves to form images of the body. Provides better imaging then CAT scan for soft tissues

316
Q

What is an ultrasound

A

Does not use ionizing radiation. Uses soundwaves with a higher frequency than the upper limit of the human hearing range. Gives a dynamic image. Allows for better soft tissue differentiation then x Rays

317
Q

What is ionizing radiation

A

Radiation composed of particles that carry enough Kinetic Energy to liberate an electron from an atom.

318
Q

What is radiation

A

Energy that comes from a source and travels through media or space.

319
Q

What are the two forms of radiation use the medical imagery

A

Corpuscular an electromagnetic

320
Q

What are x-rays considered

A

A form of electromagnetic radiation

321
Q

Describe electromagnetic radiation

A

Has no Mass, no charge, can travel in a vacuum, constant speed, travels in a straight line, its wavelength is inversely proportional to its energy

322
Q

What is wavelength

A

Distance between two consecutive corresponding points. Measured in nanometers

323
Q

What is frequency

A

The number of cycles per second. Inversely proportional to the wavelength

324
Q

What is energy

A

Proportional to the frequency and inversely proportional to the wavelength

325
Q

Describe a shorter wavelength

A

High frequency and high energy

326
Q

Describe a long wavelength

A

Low-frequency and low energy

327
Q

What are four basic properties of x-rays

A

Can penetrate through materials that absorb or reflect visible light. Can make certain substances fluoresce. Can produce Latent images on film. Can cause biological changes in living tissue

328
Q

Describe x-ray production

A

Produced in an x-ray tube that is a glass tube with a vacuum

329
Q

What is the Cathode

A

Produces the electrons

330
Q

What is the anode

A

Attracts electrons and creates X-rays

331
Q

What are the two components of the cathode

A

Coiled wire filaments and focusing cups

332
Q

What is the cathode controlled by

A

The mA

333
Q

What are the two components of the anode

A

The tungsten target and copper casing

334
Q

What are the two types of anodes

A

Stationary and rotating

335
Q

Where is a stationary anode usually found

A

In dental or small portable x-ray units

336
Q

Where is the rotating anode generally found

A

And large x-ray units

337
Q

Describe the logic behind the focal spot

A

The smaller the focal spot the more heat at the spot and the clear the image

338
Q

Describe the angle of the anode target

A

Smaller angle makes a smaller focal point and better detail

339
Q

What is a penumbra

A

The loss of detail

340
Q

What happens if the focal spot is bigger than the pinpoint

A

Causes a penumbra

341
Q

On which side is the primary X-ray beams intensity stronger

A

On the cathode side

342
Q

What is a transformer necessary for

A

Necessary to multiply the incoming voltage to the necessary kilovolt a

343
Q

What are step down transformers used for

A

Provides electricity to heat the filament and creates mA

344
Q

What do step up transformers do

A

Creates the KVP

345
Q

Which type of current is necessary to generate X-rays

A

Direct current

346
Q

What does monophasic direct current needs to be changed to

A

Triphasic

347
Q

What is the KVP

A

The difference between the cathode on the anode. Determines the speed and energy of electrons. Causes a high penetrating power

348
Q

What is the MA

A

Determines the quality of x-rays in the beam

349
Q

What is MAS

A

Total quantity of x-rays produced in a certain amount of time

350
Q

What do x-rays due to the film

A

Make the radiographic film go black

351
Q

How do you reduce scatter radiation

A

Collimate and use an anti-diffusion grid

352
Q

What is the collimator used for

A

Nerves the atomic region to x-ray. Decreases scatter radiation. Increases quality of image

353
Q

What is the anti-diffusion grid

A

Thin vertical lead strips that absorb x-rays which travel at abnormal angles

354
Q

What does the potter Bucky diaphragm do

A

Prevents the outline of the grid from appearing on the film by moving the grade during the exposure

355
Q

Describe the cassette

A

Lightproof, rigid, has two intensifying screens, contains foam padding. Lead blocker for patient ID

356
Q

Describe the back of the Cassette

A

Lead lined to absorb back scatter radiation

357
Q

What crystals are located in the intensifying screen

A

Phosphor crystals that expose the film an account for more than 95% of film exposure

358
Q

Describe a slow screen

A

High definition when exposure time is not critical

359
Q

Describe a medium speed

A

Good resolution with relatively low exposure time

360
Q

Describe a fast speed

A

Reduce exposure time and lower MAS needed

361
Q

What are five factors that affect screen speed

A

Phosphor type, crystal size, layer thickness of phosphors, reflective later efficiency, dyes in phosphor layer

362
Q

Describe the emulsion layer of the x-ray film

A

Has silver halid crystals

363
Q

What are the four steps to manual developing

A

Developer five minutes. Fix or 10 minutes. Final wash 30 minutes. Drying

364
Q

Where does the waves of electrical activity start in the electro cardiogram

A

The waves of electrical activity starts in the sinoatrial node and travels to the internodal tracks through atrial contraction. Then it travels to the atrioventricular node where the purkinje fibers cause ventricular contraction

365
Q

What does the P wave represent

A

Electrical depolarization of atrial myocardium prior to contraction

366
Q

What does the QRS complex

A

Depolarization of ventricle myocardium prior to contraction

367
Q

What does the T wave represent

A

Ventricular re polarization

368
Q

What does the electrocardiograph do

A

Sensitive voltage metering instrument that amplifies hearts electrical impulses

369
Q

What position does the animal need to be placed for an electro cardiogram

A

Right lateral recumbent sea on a non-conductive surface. Limbs need to be perpendicular and parallel to each other

370
Q

What is a pair of electrodes called

A

A lead

371
Q

What is the principal lead used to assess arrhythmias

A

Lead to placement

372
Q

What is blood pressure

A

Pressure exerted by circulating blood on arterial walls

373
Q

What is the systolic pressure

A

Highest pressure of the cardiac cycle

374
Q

What is diastolic pressure

A

Lowest pressure of cardiac cycle

375
Q

What is map

A

Mean arterial pressure

376
Q

What is blood pressure an indicator of

A

Anesthetic depth Cardiac functionOrgan perfusion

377
Q

What are two indirect blood pressure monitors

A

Doppler bpOscillometer bp

378
Q

What is a Doppler bp monitor

A

Continuously monitor hr and heart rhythm

379
Q

What are the 4 arteries where yu can place the Doppler

A

Median palmar arteryDorsal pedal artery Coccygeal arteryFemoral artery

380
Q

What is pao2

A

Oxygen partial pressure in the arteries

381
Q

What is sao2

A

Arterial hemoglobin saturated with O2

382
Q

What light is used by the pulse oximeter

A

Oxygenated hemoglobin absorbs red light Deoxygenated hemoglobin absorbs infrared light

383
Q

What are two factors affecting accuracy of the pulse oximetry device

A

External light sourcesElectro cautery Tissue thicknessDarkly pigmented tissuesWell perfused areaArea with no hairExcessive movementHypothermiaAnemiaDrug effects

384
Q

What does a capnograph do

A

Measures amount of co2 in patients inhaled and exhaled air.

385
Q

What is an electrocardiogram

A

Graphic representation of the hearts electrical activity as it travels to the cardiac conduction system

386
Q

What are some endoscopic evaluations of the respiratory tract

A

RhinoscopyTracheoscopyBronchoscope

387
Q

What are some endoscopic evaluations of upper GI tract

A

EosophagoscopyGastroscopyDuodenoscopy

388
Q

What are some endoscopic evaluations of lower gi tract

A

Colonoscopy, ileoscopy

389
Q

What are some endoscopic evaluations of urinary and genital tract

A

Cystoscopy,UrethroscopyColposcopy

390
Q

What is abdominal endoscopy by surgical incision called

A

Laparoscopy

391
Q

What is interventional endoscopically used for

A

Foreign body removal, surgical interventions

392
Q

What are components of the endoscope

A

Insertion tube, light delivery, air/water pipes, instrument channel and suction and control cables

393
Q

What is the illumination lens used for

A

Light source

394
Q

What is the objective lens used for

A

Focus adjustment

395
Q

What is water flushing used for

A

Cleaning lens and clearing view

396
Q

Why do we do a leak test and when does it happen

A

Be performed every time the endoscope is used to ensure no damage has been caused during the use of the instrument. Needs to be performed prior to cleaning and disinfecting

397
Q

How should the endoscope be cleaned

A

Washed and cleaned of all visible organic debris in the neutral pH detergent. Use a special brush to clean the device

398
Q

What is endoscopic

A

Looking inside the body for medical reasons. Allows a valuation of areas within the body in the minimally invasive manner

399
Q

What are two types of ultrasonic scaler’s

A

Magnetostrictive ultrasonic scaler and Piezoelectric ultrasonic scaler

400
Q

What are the two types of scalars available

A

Ultrasonic scaler’s, sonic scalars

401
Q

Describe ultrasonic scaler’s

A

Most commonly used in Veterinary practice. Driven by an electric micromotor. Can cause cavitation and implosion of water to help disrupt the calculus

402
Q

Describe a magnetostrictive ultrasonic scaler

A

Tip vibration generated by magnetostrictive mechanism

403
Q

Describe a piezoelectric ultrasonic scaler

A

Tip vibration generated by piezoelectric mechanism in hand piece.

404
Q

Describe sonic scalers

A

Air driven Tip vibrates at sonic frequencies

405
Q

What are the two pieces to the magnetostrictive ultrasonic cleaner

A

The tip and the stack

406
Q

Describe how you use the magnetostrictive ultrasonic cleaner

A

Light sweeping strokes using a modified pencil grip across a tooth surface

407
Q

What happens if the stack or tip is inefficient

A

Thermal damage to teeth

408
Q

Can the stack and tip be placed in the ultrasonic cleaner

A

No. It is okay to autoclave the stack and the tip though

409
Q

What is a sonic scaler used for

A

Supragingival scaling

410
Q

What is the maximum amount of time when using a scaler on teeth

A

Three consecutive seconds

411
Q

At what point should you replace the tip

A

When it is 2 mm down

412
Q

What water can be used with a mechanical scaler

A

Distilled or filter water

413
Q

What is the sharp tip manual scaler usd for

A

Supragingival use

414
Q

What is the curette used for

A

Subgingival use.

415
Q

What is the function of polishers

A

Polishing helps prevent pocket errands by removing microinches

416
Q

What type of handpiece is ideal for polishing teeth

A

Low-speed hand pieces

417
Q

What are mechanical scalars used for

A

Allow rapid and easy removal of tartar.

418
Q

What is the function of the lead blocker and what do you have to keep in mind when taking X-rays

A

The function is for identification of children and do not place any relevant patient body part in the corner

419
Q

What is the function of the foam pressure pads in the cassette

A

Ensure close contact of film screens

420
Q

What are two ways to break cassette

A

Physical damage, leakage of fluid into cassette

421
Q

What is the function of the intensifying screens and what are they contain

A

Convert x-ray it’s a photons that are responsible for most of the film exposure 95%. Contain phosphor crystals that is responsible for this conversion

422
Q

How do we clean and care for the cassettes or screens

A

Keep closed, free of dust hair or artifacts. Avoid scratching when inserted or removing filmed. Clean with mild soap and water

423
Q

What is important to know when selecting an appropriate screen

A

decision based on speed and efficiency

424
Q

What is the direct exposure film used for

A

Used if needed better detail better quality image. No cassette required

425
Q

How should film be stored and handled

A

In a box in vertical position

426
Q

What is KV P in which transformer does it require

A

Kilovoltage peak and a step up transformer

427
Q

What is mA and which transformer does it need

A

Milliamperage and step down transformer

428
Q

What is the function of the x-ray tube height adjustment lock

A

To prevent The tube from moving and allows you to convert from table top to cassette

429
Q

What is S I D

A

Source image distance

430
Q

How do you place the body in relation to the anode and cathode

A

Thicker portion of the body towards the cathode

431
Q

What are the three things that happens when an x-ray strikes an object

A

Transmission, scatter, absorption

432
Q

How many intensifying screens do you have per cassette

A

Two

433
Q

What do the intensifying Screens contain

A

Phosphor crystals

434
Q

What happens when phosphor crystals are hit by x-rays

A

They fluoresce

435
Q

What are the advantages of the automatic developer

A

Shorter time than manual development. Standardized so it is a consistent quality

436
Q

How do you keep the Rock rollers and guides clean in an automatic processor

A

Send a scout through to started. Use cleaning film to cover all rollers wait for a beep and then put the next one and

437
Q

How often do you replace the chemical solutions in an automatic processing

A

Once a month

438
Q

What are the four common dental films use and which two are used at Vanier

A
  1. We used 2 for small dogs and cats and 4 for dogs
439
Q

Which side of the film is placed facing the x-ray tube

A

The white side towards the tube

440
Q

What is the purpose of the dimple in the film and which direction to place it with respect to the animal

A

The dimple helps identify where the film was. We place the dimple rostrally

441
Q

Can the dental X-ray beam be collimated

A

No it cannot

442
Q

On the control panel for the dental x-ray unit which buttons control the following settings: film type, time and KV P

A

Film type: people buttonsTime: film type settings KVP: tooth settings

443
Q

What are the three steps to the developing process for the dental x-ray unit

A

Developer water and fix

444
Q

How long do you develop the film for

A

30 seconds

445
Q

How long do you rinse the film for

A

Three shakes

446
Q

How long do you fix the film for

A

60 seconds

447
Q

Within the protective cover of the film which one is the actual film

A

The middle one

448
Q

What are the two reflective sheets around the film

A

Lead foil backing to reduce scatter radiation

449
Q

Why do you do quality-control for film

A

To minimize radiation exposure to patients and personal. To produce good quality radiographs. To decrease number of repeated films

450
Q

Name three functions of the Cassatt

A

Rigid lightproof and prevent exposure to light but allow x-rays to penetrate. Film holder. Contains intensifying screens that convert x-rays in the visible light

451
Q

How do you perform a high pressure leak test

A

Turn tank on by turning tank outlet valve and note tank pressure reading. Then turn tank off. Check gauge in one hour

452
Q

At what pressure should we change the tank

A

100 to 200 psi

453
Q

At what pressure should we call Oxymed

A

500psi

454
Q

What is the purpose of the oxygen cylinder

A

Compressed gas so large amount stored in small cylinder.

455
Q

What is the purpose of the tank outlet valve

A

Allows oxygen to flow into the machine when open

456
Q

What is the purpose of the tank pressure gauge

A

Pressure of gas remaining when opened

457
Q

What is the purpose of the pressure reducing valve

A

Almost constant flow of gas into machine and reduces pressure to 40 to 50 psi

458
Q

What is the purpose of the oxygen line

A

For freestanding cylinders it transports oxygen to anesthetic machine

459
Q

Why do we do a high pressure leak test

A

To check for leaks between the gas tank and the flowmeter

460
Q

What is the purpose of the flow meter

A

Turns on or shuts off oxygen flow through machine. Decreases gas pressure to 15 psi

461
Q

What is the purpose of the vaporizer

A

Vaporizes liquid anesthetic to gas

462
Q

What is the purpose of the indicator window

A

Allows viewing of liquid anesthetic levels

463
Q

What is the purpose of the oxygen flush valve

A

To dilute the line with oxygen

464
Q

What is the purpose of the fresh gas inlet

A

Mix of oxygen and anesthetic has

465
Q

What is the purpose of the reservoir bag

A

Stores gas, ensures ET tube is in trachea, allows delivery of oxygen

466
Q

What is the function of the pop off valve

A

Allows access gas to exit the system

467
Q

What is the function of the scavenger

A

Collects and disposes waste gas

468
Q

What is the function of CO2 absorber

A

Absorbs co2 from rebreathed air

469
Q

What is the function of the pressure manometer

A

Measures gas pressures in breathing system

470
Q

What is the purpose for a low pressure leak test

A

Checks for leaks from the anesthetic machine to breathing circuit at 15 psi

471
Q

What is the induction rate for the circle system

A

100-200 ml/kg/min

472
Q

What is the induction rate for the Bain system

A

130-300ml/kg/min

473
Q

What is the maintence rate for the circle system

A

25-50ml/kg/min

474
Q

What is the maintenance rate for the Bain system

A

140-200ml/kg/min

475
Q

Why do we use keyed filler devices

A

Prevent introduction of incorrect anesthetic

476
Q

What habits can minimize exposure to Anesthetic gas

A

Refill vaporizer at the end of the day. Recap bottles before discarding. Store vaporizer filling devices in sealed bag.

477
Q

How do you clean flutter valves

A

Mild soap and water

478
Q

What is the purpose of the manual mode of the ecg

A

To control the lead used

479
Q

Why do we adjust the pen temperature and damping

A

Adjust to get optimum thickness at the lowest possible temperature

480
Q

How do we identify leads on paper

A

The event marker button

481
Q

How is spo2 measured

A

With both red and infrared light

482
Q

What does a pulse oximeter measure

A

Pulse oximetry saturation, functional oxygen saturation of arterial hemoglobin, pulse rate

483
Q

Can you use a ecg and a Mri at the same time

A

Nope

484
Q

What must you do if the EKG is stored for more than one month

A

Remove the batteries

485
Q

What does the capnograph measure

A

Inspired and expired co2, rr, spo2 and pulse rate

486
Q

What is the normal systolic bp in a cat or dog

A

120mm Hg

487
Q

What is the minimum systolic bp

A

80mm Hg

488
Q

How often should the hand piece be charged

A

After each days use

489
Q

How long should the hand piece and footpedal be charged for

A

At least 90 mins

490
Q

What is the function of the dental probe

A

For locating some gingival plaque and to evaluate enamel

491
Q

What is the function of the dental mouth mirror

A

Good for visualizing lesions

492
Q

What is the function of the MOuth speculum

A

For maintaining mouth open

493
Q

What is the function of the dental scaler

A

Removing supragingival calculus only

494
Q

What is the dental curette used for

A

Remove subgingival calculus

495
Q

What is the function of the periosteal elevator

A

For lifting gingiva

496
Q

What happens if foot pedal is depressed half way

A

Tip is activated and h20 flows

497
Q

What happens if foot pedal is completely pressed

A

Activated boost

498
Q

Which three parts can be steam sterilized in the cordless dental polisher

A

Outer sheath, color ring, handpiece cradle

Vet Nursing (27 decks)

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