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Vet Nursing > Veterinary Genetics > Flashcards

Veterinary Genetics Flashcards

All information that was taught to me while attending Vanier College's "Animal Health Technology" Program, located in St-Laurent Montreal.

1
Q

What is genetics

A

The study of transmission or inheritance of characteristics from one generation to the next

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2
Q

What are the two types of heritable characteristics

A

Anatomical and functional

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3
Q

List a few reasons why the pea plant was a good study model for early day genetics

A

It was easy to cultivate, several distinct varieties, short lifecycle, hermaphroditic part, self fertilizing

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4
Q

What does true breeding mean

A

Offspring always resemble parents in the particular trait

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5
Q

What is a mono hybrid cross

A

A cross between individuals that differ only in a single characteristic

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6
Q

Explain Mendels law of segregation

A

Paired units separate during gamete formation

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7
Q

What is a gene

A

A unit of information about a specific trait passed from parents to offspring

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8
Q

What is a locus

A

Specific location where a gene sits on a chromosome

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9
Q

What is a genome

A

The complete set of genes that determine all the characteristics of an individual

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10
Q

What are alleles

A

Different versions of the same trait

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11
Q

What does homologous mean

A

Similar

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12
Q

What does heterozygous mean

A

Nonidentical alleles

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13
Q

What is a genotype

A

The particular alleles an individual carries for a given characteristic example RR

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14
Q

What is phenotype

A

observable traits of an individual

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15
Q

What are the four type of nucleotide bases

A

A (adenine), C (cytosine), G (guanine), T (thymine)

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16
Q

How do the bases pair

A

A with T, C with G

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17
Q

Describe how DNA information gets translated into protein

A

DNA, transcription, RNA, translation, protein

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18
Q

In RNA what is different about the bases

A

There is no T it is now U, uracil

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19
Q

What are the three types of gene mutations

A

Substitution, insertion, deletion

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20
Q

Where does mitosis occur

A

Somatic and germ cells

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21
Q

Where does meiosis occurred

A

Only in germ cells

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22
Q

When are chromosomes the most tightly condensed in mitosis

A

Metaphase

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23
Q

What are dihybrid crosses

A

Crosses between individuals whose phenotypes differ for two characteristics

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24
Q

What is the formula for finding the number of possible gametes

A

2N, where n is the number of heterozygous gene pairs

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25
Q

How do you determine the probability of two or more independent events occurring simultaneously

A

It is the product of their individual probabilities (multiply them)

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26
Q

What is special. About dichotomous diagrams

A

It cannot be used to study genes linked on the same chromosome

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27
Q

What are poly hybrid crosses

A

Crosses between individuals whose phenotypes differ for three or more traits

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28
Q

Describe the law of independent assortment

A

Each pair of homologous chromosomes are sorted into gametes independently of how other pairs of homologous chromosomes are sorted

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29
Q

Describe complete dominance

A

Occurs when the effect of one allele completely masks the effect of the other allele for a given trait. Cannot distinguish phenotype of heterozygous from homozygous dominant

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30
Q

Describe incomplete dominance

A

cross between two different homozygous individuals produces offspring whose phenotype is intermediate or a mix of that of the parents

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31
Q

Describe codominance

A

Occurs when non-identical alleles are both expressed visibly and independently to produce a new phenotype. Not a mix or intermediate form of both alleles. Example roan hair

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32
Q

What is pleiotropy

A

The ability of a given gene to influence expression of two or more traits

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33
Q

What does a Pleiotropic gene do

A

Influences the expression of traits that are clearly phenotypically different from each other

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34
Q

What happens if you have a W Gene

A

You’re completely white. The gene is Pleiotropic. Can influence eyecolor

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35
Q

What happens if you’re Mm

A

You’re a blue Merle

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36
Q

What happens if you’re mm

A

You’re a tricolor

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37
Q

What can the Merle gene cause?

A

Coat color dilution as well as deafness,blindness and sterility

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38
Q

What happens if you’re MM

A

All white, generally dead and blind and often sterile

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39
Q

What is penetrance

A

Proportion of individuals carrying a particular gene that also expresses the expected associated trait

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40
Q

What is complete penetrance

A

Hundred percent of individuals looking the exact same way (for a gene)

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41
Q

What is incomplete penetrance

A

A faction of individuals looking the same way (for a trait)

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42
Q

What is expressivity

A

When I given genotype is visibly expressed but the degree of expression of the expected phenotype can be variable in different individuals. Example: 2 patients suffering from the same disease but with different severity

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43
Q

What is epistasis

A

The act of stopping and masking

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44
Q

What is a gene that masks called

A

Epistatic gene

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45
Q

What is a gene that are masked called

A

Hypostatic gene

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46
Q

What happens when epistasis occurs

A

No longer have the expected phenotypic ratio for dihybrid crosses

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47
Q

What is dominate epistasis

A

Strong epistasis. only one copy is needed. Manifests itself in heterozygous and homozygous dominant

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48
Q

What is recessive epistasis

A

Both copies of the epistatic gene are required. Manifest itself exclusively in homozygous recessive

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49
Q

What happens if you are WW or Ww

A

You will be white

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50
Q

If you are wwB what are you

A

Black

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51
Q

If you are wwbb what are you

A

Brown

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52
Q

If you are WwBb what are you

A

White

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53
Q

What two genes are examples of recessive epistasis

A

Agouti gene, color gene

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54
Q

If you are aa what are you

A

Solid color

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55
Q

What happens if you are cc

A

Albino

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56
Q

What is collaboration

A

Interaction between two different genes that influence the same trait to produce a new phenotype that neither gene could produce alone. Example comb shape in chickens

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57
Q

What are modifier genes

A

Genes that influence the expression of other genes through their expressed product

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58
Q

In the absence of the main gene what do modifier genes do

A

They have no visible effect

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59
Q

What are examples of some things that modifier genes have changed

A

Quantity of black spots in Holstein cattle, tail length in Manx cats

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60
Q

Describe genetic recombination

A

Establishment of new allele combinations and offspring. Great variations in details of their traits

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61
Q

What are the three ways to establish new allele combinations

A
  1. Crossing over between homologous chromosomes2. Independent around the assortment of homologous chromosomes into gametes3. Random fusion of gametes during fertilization
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62
Q

When does crossing over occur

A

In prophase one of meiosis

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63
Q

When does independent assortment occur

A

Metaphase one of meiosis

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64
Q

What is the specific area where chromatids cross each other and exchange genetic material called

A

Chiasma

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65
Q

How do you know if gametes are recombinant or non-recombinant

A

Recombinant genes carry a new combination of alleles. Non-recombinant genes contain the same genotype as the parent chromosome

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66
Q

The greater the distance between the two genes the ______ the chance that crossover will occur

A

Greater

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67
Q

Is frequency and crossover between two location proportional to distance or nonproportional to distance

A

Proportional

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68
Q

What is a genetic map

A

A graphical representation of the order in which linked genes are distributed along a chromosome. Also indicates the distance that separates a given gene from other genes

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69
Q

How do you calculate percent recombination

A

Number of recombinants divided by total number of individuals times 100

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70
Q

What does each percent mean in terms of units of distance

A

1% = 1 unit of distance

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71
Q

What is the unit used with genetic maps

A

Centimorgans cM

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72
Q

What is the maximum recombination value

A

50%

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73
Q

What is cytogenetics

A

A bunch of genetics devoted to the study of number, structure, behavior of chromosomes both in normal, and pathological state in the cell

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74
Q

What is a karyotype.

A

It photographic or schematic representation of a set of chromosomes in metaphase from somatic cell of a given species

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75
Q

What does karyotyping show

A

Number of chromosomes, structure which is species specific. Allows you to sex chromosomes and chromosomal abnormalities

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76
Q

What are the two types of chromosomal abnormalities

A

Changes in chromosome number, changes in chromosome structure

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77
Q

Which of the two chromosomal abnormalities are the cause of most embryonic deaths

A

Changes in chromosome number. More than 50% of human miscarriages

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78
Q

What is euploidy variation

A

When an entire set of chromosomes is abnormal in number

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79
Q

What is it aneuploidy variation

A

Where one or a few individual chromosomes or are abnormal in number

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80
Q

How many chromosomes does a haploid individual have

A

23

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81
Q

How many pairs of chromosomes does a diploid individual

A

46

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82
Q

How many pairs of chromosomes does a triploid individual have

A

69

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83
Q

How many pairs of chromosomes does a tetraploid individual have

A

92

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84
Q

What is abnormal haploidy

A

Development of non-fertilized ovum into an embryo. Undergoes mitosis. Most often in chickens and they generally die

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85
Q

What is polyploidy

A

More than one pair of homologous chromosomes. Triploidy is most common

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86
Q

What is polyploidy due too

A

Due to Polyspermy. Fertilization by more than one sperm

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87
Q

What is digyny

A

Two female pro nuclei with one male pronucleus

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88
Q

How does tetraploidy occur

A

The cell goes through DNA duplication and mitosis but does not undergo nuclear division

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89
Q

What is Nullisomy

A

Minus one pair of chromosomes 2n-2

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90
Q

What is monosomy

A

Minus One chromosome in the pair. 2n-1 Turner syndrome

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91
Q

What is polysomy

A

Increased numbers of chromosomes

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92
Q

What are the two types of Polysomy

A

Trisomy and tetrasomy

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93
Q

What is trisomy

A

Only increased by one extra chromosome. Down syndrome

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94
Q

What is Tetrasomy

A

Increased by 2 chromosomes

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95
Q

What are aneuploidy variations due to

A

Non-dis junction. Failure to separate

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96
Q

What are interspecies matings

A

Meetings between two different species. Donkey plus horse equals mule

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97
Q

When is it easier to obtain a hybrid in interspecies mating

A

When the mail contributes a lower amount of chromosomes

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98
Q

what is specific about AutoSomal chromosomes

A

Each pair is similar in length shape and gene sequence

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99
Q

If you have a homologous pair of sex chromosomes what type of sex are you

A

Homogametic sex (xx, zz)

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100
Q

If you have a non homologous pair of sex chromosomes what type of Sex are you

A

Heterogametic sex (xy, zw)

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101
Q

How do scientists do sperm sorting

A

They put a fluorescent marker that binds to DNA. The fluorescent glow is stronger on the x then y.

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102
Q

What is a pseudo-autosomal region

A

Only homologous area where crossover may occur during prophase one

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103
Q

What is SRy

A

Sex determining region y. Males only

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104
Q

What does the presence of a Barr body indicate

A

An inactivated x

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105
Q

Before sexual differentiation what do both males and females possess

A

Gonads and Wolffian and Müllerian ducts

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106
Q

What is sexual differentiation

A

When the embryo of undifferentiated sex turns into male or female

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107
Q

What does the SRy gene do

A

Is the master gene for sexual differentiation. Codes for protein that induces plus regulates reaction necessary for male sexual differentiation

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108
Q

With SRy what are the steps of sexual differentiation

A

Expression of SRy gene. differentiation of gonads into testicles. Male reproductive organs

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109
Q

Without the SRy gene what are the steps

A

Gonads to ovaries to female reproductive organs

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110
Q

What do testicles produce

A

Hormones for development of male reproductive system. Testosterone plus anti Müllerian hormone

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111
Q

What does testosterone do

A

Differentiation of wolffian duct. Seminal vesicles, ductus deferens plus epididymis. Develops penis and scrotum

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112
Q

What does the anti-Müllerian ducts do

A

Destroys Müllerian ducts plus prevents formation of female organs

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113
Q

What do ovaries produce

A

Estrogen

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114
Q

What is the difference between sex linked And autosomal traits

A

Autosomal traits are present in two copiesSRY present in one copy

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115
Q

Describe Autosomal mutation

A

If one allele is affected there’s still another good copy

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116
Q

Describe sexual mutation

A

Sexual differentiation and health effects are caused

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117
Q

What are abnormal number of sex chromosomes due too

A

Non-disjunction of sex chromosomes

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118
Q

When nondisjunction of sex chromosomes happens in females: what’s the outcome

A

XX or 0

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119
Q

When nondisjunction of sex chromosomes happens in males: what’s the outcome

A

XY, XX, YY or O

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120
Q

With abnormal numbers of sex chromosomes what is affected

A

Phenotypes are usually not affected but sexual traits are usually affected

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121
Q

What is XO

A

Turner syndrome (dwarfism and no sexual development)

122
Q

What is XXX

A

Trisomic female (tall + small head + delayed speech)

123
Q

What is XXXX

A

Tetrasomic. More severe version of Trisomic symptoms

124
Q

What is YO or YY

A

Never observed in live animals

125
Q

What is XXY or XXXY

A

Klinefelter (male tortoiseshell cat➡️ sterile and no sexual behavior)

126
Q

What is XYY

A

Criminal gene: stature increased + learning disability

127
Q

What does intersexuality mean

A

Having both male and female characteristics. Hermaphrodite

128
Q

What is gonadal intersexuality.

A

When you are wrong on the inside

129
Q

What are the two types of gonadal intersexuality

A

XX: external female + testisXY: external male + ovaries

130
Q

What are the two examples of phenotypic intersexuality

A

XX: ovaries plus external male genitals. XY: testes plus external female genitals

131
Q

What is the only TrueType of hermaphrodite

A

Ovotestis. Both ovary + testical tissue

132
Q

What is testicular feminization

A

Affects XY. Who’s somatic cells do not respond to testosterone. Testees secrete testosterone but target tissues that don’t respond. Unable to convert testosterone to active form

133
Q

What is a freemartin

A

Sterile female born as a twin to a normal male

134
Q

What is a Chimara

A

Two or more different populations of genetically distinct cells originating from different zygotes. To identify use karyotype of white blood cell

135
Q

If it is a dominant X-linked mutation and the male is affected what will be the outcome for the offspring

A

All female offspring will be affected and no issue for males

136
Q

If it is a dominant X-linked mutation in the female are affected what will happen to the offspring

A

Half will be affected half will be normal

137
Q

If it is a recessive X-linked mutation in the male is affected what will happen to the offspring

A

None will be affected but all female will be carriers

138
Q

If it is a recessive X-linked mutation and the female is a carrier what will happen to the Offspring

A

Half of the males will be affected half of the females will be carriers

139
Q

Described as z linked traits

A

Allow for simple and rapid sexing at early age

140
Q

What is a mosaic

A

Individual was cells having more than one genotype from a simple zygote

141
Q

What is sexed influence genes

A

Genes whose phenotypic expression varies depending on the sex of the individual.

142
Q

What are cats often selected because of

A

Coat type

143
Q

What are hairs

A

Columns of bound dead cells organized in three layers Medulla cortex and cuticle

144
Q

what are melanin pigments produced by

A

Melanocytes

145
Q

Where in the hair is the melanin pigment deposited

A

In the Medela and cortex of primary hairs

146
Q

How do melanocytes produce melanin

A

Melanocytes produce melanin from tyrosine in presence of tyrosinase

147
Q

What is the hereditary inability to produce melanin called and what gene is responsible

A

Albinism and then gene is the recessive gene cc

148
Q

What are the two types of melanin pigments responsible for all coat colors

A

Eumelanin and pheomelanin

149
Q

What color do eumelanin granules make

A

Brown, black

150
Q

What colors do pheomelanin granules make

A

Red, orange, yellow

151
Q

Does pigment appear all at once or is a gradual

A

It is gradual. Pigments may be produced at various stages of development and some adult coloration is present in newborn, in others the coat color is modified until adult coat is completely developed

152
Q

What is a wild type gene

A

The original gene

153
Q

What are some environmental modifiers that can alter coat appearance

A

Age, disease, hair clipping, malnourishment, UV light, temperature, chemical agents

154
Q

What is the wild type labeled with

A

+

155
Q

What are all deviations from the wild type due to

A

Mutations

156
Q

What is the original purebred cat

A

Tabby cat. The cat breeds that don’t look like tabbies simply carry other types of genes that prevent the tabby coat pattern from appearing it is always present.

157
Q

What is the eumelanin production gene

A

B+

158
Q

What is the agouti gene

A

A+

159
Q

What is the tabby Gene

A

T+

160
Q

What does the B Gene do

A

Direct synthesis of black melanin by hair melanocytes, allows presence of black pigment and their variations. Anything not orange or cream

161
Q

What is the agouti gene do

A

Controls pigment distribution within hair, distributes pigment unevenly within hair. alternating light and dark bands

162
Q

What does the aa gene do

A

Solid coat

163
Q

What does the A- gene do

A

Agouti

164
Q

What does the tabby Gene do

A

Controls proportion and placement of agouti and uniform hairs on body. Determines coat pattern

165
Q

What does a wild type cat genotype look like

A

A-B-T-C-

166
Q

If a cat is aaBB he is what

A

Solid black

167
Q

What are the basic coat colors

A

Black, chocolate, cinnamon, red

168
Q

What are the dilutions of the basic coat colors

A

Blue, lilac, fawn, cream

169
Q

What is b

A

Chocolate

170
Q

What is b1

A

Cinnamon

171
Q

What is the color difference due to

A

Different shape and different amounts of eumelanin pigment. Black pigments are sphyerical brown pigments are oval

172
Q

What is the order of dominance for basic coat colors

A

B+(black)>b(chocolate)>b1(cinnamon)

173
Q

What does the pheomelanin producing gene do

A

Red, orange, yellow colors. Wild type O+ allows expression of B allele. Mutant O of this gene is epistatic. Doesn’t allow for expression of B allele

174
Q

Where is the O or O+ gene located

A

Carried on chromosome x. Three phenotypes in females and only two in males

175
Q

What does XO+ do

A

Wild type. No red pigment. Allows expression of B gene alleles (Blacks and browns)

176
Q

What does XO do

A

Mutant. Epistatic over B gene. Red, orange, rusty.

177
Q

What is XO also Epistatic over

A

aa. An orange cat will always have agouti hair it will never be solid orange

178
Q

What is a Torti

A

Orange and black

179
Q

What is a Torby

A

Orange black and white

180
Q

What does the color dilution gene do

A

D+ allows for normal expression of B. dd dilutes the coAt to blue, lilac, fawn and cream

181
Q

If individual is xOxO or xOy then

A

Red phenotype regardless of which alleles are present at B gene Loci. Impossible to determine which B alleles are present since masked

182
Q

If a cat is S then

A

He is spotted white

183
Q

If a cat is W gene he is

A

Completely white

184
Q

If a cat has cc gene the he is

A

Albino

185
Q

What is the wild type for white spotting

A

s+. No white spots produced

186
Q

When S gene is present what happens

A

White spots are present in variable sizes

187
Q

What is a bicolor cat

A

Half to two thirds white coat cat

188
Q

What is a harlequin cat

A

Mostly white with color exclusively on head, tail, 2or 3 spots on back

189
Q

What is A van cat

A

Only head and tail colored

190
Q

What is the wild type for the w gene

A

w+. Allows expression of coat color genes

191
Q

What is a pleiotropic gene

A

A gene that influences phenotypic expression of two or more traits

192
Q

With the W gene what else can happen

A

Blue eyes and 60 to 70% of white cats, deafness in 40 to 50% of white cats. Extent to which iris color and hearing structures affected is variable

193
Q

What is the order of dominance for the color extension gene

A

C+>cB ~ cS > c

194
Q

What is a cB cat

A

Burmese. Slightly less intense paler color on body but not extremities.

195
Q

What is a cS cat

A

Siamese. Significantly less intense body colored. Intensely colored points

196
Q

What color are Siamese kittens born

A

White but extremities darkened overtime

197
Q

What is that Chinchilla gene

A

This gene transforms agouti pattern into pattern where only tip of hair is colored. Must have agouti gene. ch+ wild type agouti striped hairs

198
Q

If the cat is Ch whAt happens

A

Chinchilla tipped hair. only hair tip is coloured

199
Q

What happens if the cat is i+

A

No inhibition of yellow colour

200
Q

What happens if cat is I

A

Inhibition of color in normally yellow areas within hairs. They become silvery

201
Q

If the cat is T- what is he

A

Wild type mackerel tabby

202
Q

If a cat is tBtB what is he

A

Blotched, classic tabby

203
Q

If the car is Ta- what is he

A

Abyssinian or ticked tabby

204
Q

If a cat is L+ what is he

A

Short hair

205
Q

If a cat is l what is he?

A

Long hair

206
Q

If a cat is R what is he

A

Normal coat type

207
Q

If a cat is r what is he

A

Cornish Rex

208
Q

If a cat is re what is he

A

Devon Rex

209
Q

If a cat is Hr what is he

A

Normal coat

210
Q

If a cat is hr what is he

A

Sphinx

211
Q

If a cat is wh what is he

A

Normal coat

212
Q

If a cat is Wh what is he

A

American wirehaired

213
Q

For dogs what were the most important traits that they were selected for

A

Shape and size

214
Q

Many genes are involved in coat color and pattern in the domestic dog

A

10 genes involved

215
Q

What does more variable mean

A

Greater Phenotypic variations

216
Q

What is the eumelanin production gene controlled by

A

Controlled by Gene B. Mutant allele is b.

217
Q

What is the color dilution gene control bye

A

D+ allows expression of pigment producing genes. Affects eumelanin little effect on pheomelanin

218
Q

What color is black diluted too. What color is blue diluted too

A

Black is diluted to blue and brown is diluted to lilac or Isabella

219
Q

If you are S+ what happens

A

No white spots

220
Q

If you are sI what happens

A

Irish spotting

221
Q

If you are sp what happens

A

Piebald spotting

222
Q

If you are sw what are you

A

Extreme white piebald

223
Q

How does spots appear

A

Chest, Paw, muzzle, tail, extends

224
Q

What does the agouti gene do

A

Controls pigment distribution. The relative amount and location of dark and light pigment responsible for certain yellow to red coats also responsible for certain coat pattern such as Graywolf coats as well as bi color coats such as tan and saddle

225
Q

If you are As what are you

A

Solid color

226
Q

If you are ay what are you

A

All tan or sable

227
Q

If you are a+ what are you

A

Agouti. Wolf hair. Gray

228
Q

If you are asa what are you

A

Saddle

229
Q

If you are at what are you

A

Tan point

230
Q

What is the solid color allele do

A

Uniform color determined by other genes. Black, brown, blue, Isabella dog with no red pigmentation

231
Q

What does the time or Sable allele do

A

Pheomelanin pigment varying from yellow to red. Masks effect of being Jean to varying degrees, can still allow for some expression of B Gene. Likely affected by many modifier genes

232
Q

What is the Graywolf type agouti gene

A

Interact with Gene B. Causes agouti guard hairs

233
Q

What Does the saddle gene do

A

Creates a dorsal saddle which is black, blue, chocolate, or lilac. With red elsewhere

234
Q

What does the tan point gene do

A

Makes black, blue, chocolate, or lilac base with red on paws, muzzle and eyebrows

235
Q

What does the E gene do

A

The melanin distribution Jean. Expression of agouti a gene depends on e.g. that also controls pigment distribution and deposition on coat. E Jean has a recessive mutations that is epistatic on other distribution and colored jeans: ee genotype

236
Q

If you are EBR what are you

A

Brendel or reverse brindle

237
Q

If you are E what are you

A

Normal color

238
Q

If you are e what are you

A

Yellow. No black color possible

239
Q

What happens if Ebr is with As

A

It won’t express. Needs the presence of reds

240
Q

What are three dogs that are ee dogs

A

Golden retriever, Irish setter, yellow lab

241
Q

What does the I gene do

A

Dilutes pheomelanin. Does not affect eumelanin (blacks)

242
Q

What does the mask gene do

A

If Ma then black mask. If na then no black mask

243
Q

What does the m+ gene do

A

No dilution

244
Q

What does the M gene do

A

Merle. Heterozygous has blotches of dark color on later diluted background

245
Q

If you are MM what are you

A

Entirely or almost entirely white. Usually blue Iris, Deaf, partially or totally blind and Sterile

246
Q

What does a ticking gene do

A

Creates numerous small spots of white and colored hairs on white areas of the coat. Ticking Gene can only exert its effect in the presence of the mutant S allele of white spotted coats

247
Q

If you are tt what are you

A

Not ticked by coloured hairs

248
Q

What is the F gene

A

Flecking. It’s unique to Dalmatian coats ensures sharp black spots that are all-black rather than a mix of black and white hairs. ff must be accompanied by T

249
Q

What is the G Gene

A

The graying. Gradual replacement of colored by uncolored hairs causing silvering graying appearance.

250
Q

If yu are g you are

A

No silverig with age

251
Q

If you are L+ what are you

A

Short smooth hair

252
Q

If you are l you are

A

Long hair

253
Q

If you are Wh you are

A

Wire haired

254
Q

If you are Hr you are

A

Hairless

255
Q

If you are k you are

A

Kinky

256
Q

What are three types of breeding used in domestic animals

A

Line breeding, inbreeding, outbreeding

257
Q

What is inbreeding

A

Meetings between individuals more closely related than the average relatedness between two individuals chosen at random from the population

258
Q

What does inbreeding result in

A

Inbreeding modifies genotypic frequencies more specifically it increases homozygosity. The condition in which an animal inherits two identical of alleles for a given gene

259
Q

How does inbreeding increase homozygosity

A

More of the same alleles in common and mating closely related individuals increases chance for identical alleles to be paired within their offspring

260
Q

What is the closest inbreeding in mammals

A

Full siblings with both parents in common or mating of a parent to its offspring

261
Q

When does less severe inbreeding occur

A

Trina half siblings with one parent in common or grandparents and grandchildren uncles and nieces and nephews and aunts and first cousins

262
Q

More closely related the individuals that are mated blank the more blank in blank

A

The more closely related the individuals that are mated the more rapid the increase in homozygosity.

263
Q

What is special about related individuals

A

They of one or more ancestors in common

264
Q

What is relatedness

A

Proportion of alleles identical between two individuals

265
Q

What is the coefficient of relatedness measure

A

Probability that for any given location randomly selected alleles from both individuals will be identical. In other words the percentage of identical alleles both related individuals have

266
Q

The meeting of related individuals results and what

A

Inbred offspring. The greater the degree of relatedness between the two individuals, the more inbred the offspring from such a meeting will be.

267
Q

What does the inbreeding coefficient F measure

A

Measures the probability that the offspring possesses at any given location two identical alleles originating from a given ancestor

268
Q

Inbreeding can lead to a phenomenon known as what

A

Inbreeding depression. Decrease in performance observed and animals originating from in breadlines. Inbreeding depression generally affects traits associated with natural fitness sedges reproduction viability growth rate disease resistance I can also result from an increased frequency of recessive anomalies

269
Q

In mutt animals what is special about them

A

They have something called hybrid strength

270
Q

Whats positive about inbreeding?

A

Helps perpetuate some breed-specific desired traits originating from a small group of animals. Can make a group of animals at all resemble each other from one generation to the next. Can also be used to remove harmful recessive genes and select good recessive traits within a population

271
Q

What Is line breeding

A

The form of inbreeding. Maintain strong genetic relatedness to specific ancestors of superior quality while minimizing other genetic relationships.

272
Q

What is outbreeding

A

Meeting of individuals that are less related to each other than the average relatedness between couples breeding at random within a population. While inbreeding increases homozygosity outbreeding increases heterozygosity. It increases heterozygosity because less related the individuals the greater the pop probability that the alleles received by their ancestors are different. Causes hybrid strength

273
Q

What are the three different forms of outbreeding

A

Outcrossing: between unrelated lines within a breedCrossbreeding: between different breeds Interspecies crosses: between different species

274
Q

What is outcrossing

A

Meetings between unrelated individuals or between unrelated lines within a breed. Continual inbreeding results in increased inhomogeneity no further improvement with new genes but infusion of new alleles from unrelated lines may help achieve higher performance

275
Q

What is crossbreeding

A

Meetings between individuals of different breeds. Example cockapoo

276
Q

It is interspecies breeding

A

Meetings between different species

277
Q

What is the advantage of outbreeding

A

All in brooding tends to decrease overall fitness outbreeding tends to increase overall fitness. Causes hybrid strength. Overall fitness of offspring of team through outcrossing or crossbreeding superior to fitness of the parents. Increased fitness expressed as improved fertility weight gain resistance to disease and stress

278
Q

What are the most three lethal types of cancer

A

Long, stomach, liver

279
Q

What are some causes of cancer

A

Carcinogens, and infections, radiation, we can immune system, hormones

280
Q

What are some inherited forms of cancer

A

Colon, Breast or ovarian, kidney

281
Q

What are the two ways that balance on normal cell growth can be disrupted

A

By uncontrolled cell growth or loss of the cells ability to undergo apoptosis. (Cell death)

282
Q

What are some characteristics of cancer cells

A

There genetically unstable due to loss of DNA repair mechanisms. Defied excessively. Live indefinitely. Lose the normal attachment other cells so that become metastatic which enables them to travel by the blood or lived to invade distant sites. They also secrete signals for angiogenesis which is growth the blood vessels into Tumors

283
Q

What are some characteristics of benign tumors

A

Are slow-growing, usually surrounded by capsule. Do not invade nearby tissues but can damage organs by compressing them. Begnin tumors generally do not spread by invasion or metastasis

284
Q

What are some characteristics of malignant tumors

A

Cells divide rapidly therefore tumors grow rapidly. Cells mutate faster. No clear boundaries set legs out in surrounding tissue. Do not perform normal function of tissue. Malignant tumors are capable of spreading by invasion and meta-Stasis

285
Q

What is metastasis

A

Cells in a primary tumor develop the ability to scape and travel in the blood. Tumor secretes enzymes to break down extracellular matrix and gain access to blood vessels and blood they can escape attacked by me and cells by touching to platelets

286
Q

What is angiogenesis

A

New blood vessel growth from existing blood vessels. Stimulated by proteins

287
Q

Where the two genes responsible for tumorigenic cell growth

A

Proto-oncogenes and tumor suppressor genes

288
Q

What can happen to proto-oncogenes

A

Become mutated or activated oncogenes that cause malignant transformation

289
Q

What can happen to tumor suppressor genes

A

The loss or mutation of the tumor suppressor genes which can cause malignant transformation

290
Q

What are proto-oncogenes and give two examples of them

A

A proto-oncogene is a normal gene that become an oncogene producing uncle proteins due to mutations or increased expression. Proto-oncogenes code for cellular proteins which regulate normal cell growth and differentiation. Examples other RAS and MYC genes

291
Q

What is the RAS gene

A

Present in human and animal cells. Codes for RAS protein signal cells at appropriate times to divide and grow

292
Q

What is the MYC gene

A

Plays a role in cell cycle progression. Apoptosis and cellular transformation

293
Q

How are oncogenes acquired

A

Virus or mutation in proto-oncogenes

294
Q

What are tumors suppressing genes

A

Tumor suppressor protein stop division of mutated cells until mistakes in DNA are repaired by NZ. Tumor suppressor proteins keep most mutations from being passed on to daughter cells and developing into cancer. If the jeans for tumor suppressing protein mutate the break on cell division is removed and cancers may results

295
Q

What are two important tumor suppressing proteins

A

P 53 protein and the RB protein

296
Q

What is the P 53 tumor suppressing gene

A

Rdean the genome. Prevent so entering SP’s repairs DNA and causes apoptosis. Mutations in the P 53 gene I found in more than 50% of cancers. The normal P 53 protein can be inactivated. HPV produces binding protein

297
Q

What is the RB gene

A

If both alleles are mutated early in life it can cause retinoblastoma. The most common malignant tumor of the eye in children

298
Q

What are the DNA repair genes

A

Genes that ensure each strand of genetic information as accurately copied during cell division of the cell cycle. Mutations in DNA repair jeans lead to an increase in the frequency of mutations and other games such as proto-oncogenes and tumor suppressing genes

299
Q

This chemotherapy used for

A

It targets rapidly dividing cells. Used to kill residual cells from primary tumor and for metastasis

300
Q

What is immunotherapy used for

A

Uses the body’s own immune system to fight cancer. Using antibodies cancer vaccines or nonspecific immunotherapy

Vet Nursing (27 decks)

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