Pathology Flashcards

(60 cards)

1
Q

What type of cells line the auditory meatus and external canal

A

Epidermis (squamous epithelial cells)

This contains sebaceous and ceruminous glands

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2
Q

What type of cells line the middle ear

A

Columnar lined mucosa - contains ossicles

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3
Q

What is the function of the organ of corti ?

A

It contains the hair cells that give rise to nerve signals in response to sound vibrations.

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4
Q

What essentially is Schneiderian epithelium

A

Pseudo stratified columnar epithelium with goblet cells -> respiratory epithelium

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5
Q

What type of cells are found in the throat

A

Respiratory and squamous epithelium depending on anatomical site

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6
Q

What are the cells of the vocal cord

A

Squamous epithelium. Everything below is respiratory

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7
Q

What type of gland is the salivary gland

A

Exocrine

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8
Q

What is the biggest salivary gland

A

Parotid

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9
Q

What are the components of a salivary gland

A

Acinar component and ductular component

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10
Q

What is otitis Media

A

inflammation of the middle ear

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11
Q

What usually causes otitis media

A

Viral infection - occasionally bacterial Strep Pneumoniae, h influenzae

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12
Q

Who is most likely to develop otitis media

A

Children

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13
Q

What is a cholesteatoma

A

Not a tumour and doesn’t contain cholesterol!

It is abnormally situated squamous epithelium. High cell turnover and abundant keratin production

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14
Q

Who can develop a cholesteatoma

A

Any age group

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15
Q

What is a Vestibular Schwannoma

A

Benign tumour of Schwann Cells

Associated with vestibular portion of vestibulocochlear nerve (VIII)

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16
Q

Where do vestibular Schwannomas occur

A

Within the temporal bone

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17
Q

Describe the histological appearance of a Vestibular Schwannoma

A

Pretty
Lots of spindle cells
Haphazard cells and occasionally the nuclei line up which causes a linear appearance

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18
Q

Why is there no mitosis, necrosis etc. in a vestibular schwannoma

A

It is a benign tumour

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19
Q

What should be considered if a child presents with a bilateral vestibular schwannoma

A

Neurofibromatosis type 2

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20
Q

What are some features of Neurofibromatosis type 1

A

Widespread neurofibromas - bony defects, cafe au lat spots, axillary freckling and Lisch nodules

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21
Q

Where on the body are Lisch nodules found

A

In the eye

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22
Q

What is more common, NF1 or NF2

A

NF1

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23
Q

Who is mostly likely to develop a nasal polyp

A

Adults

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24
Q

What are the aetiologies for nasal polyps

A
Allergy
infection
asthma
aspirin sensitivity 
nick exposure
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25
What should be considered if a young patient presents with nasal polyps
Cystic Fibrosis
26
What can often be seen histologically with nasal polyps
Inflammatory cells - mast and eosinophils
27
What is a good diagnosis sign of a nasal polyp
Pain free even on prodding around
28
What are some causes of rhinitis and sinusitis
Infectious | allergic - IgE mediated type 1 hypersensitivity
29
What is Wegener's granulomatosis
Autoimmune disorder of unknown aetiology characterised by a small vessel vasculitis limited to respiratory tract and kidneys
30
What sort of people are likely to get a Wegener's granulomatosis
Very rare but usually white patients >40 years old
31
How do Wegener's granulomatosis usually present
Pulmonary, renal disease or nasal symptoms of congestion, septal perforation
32
If a patient presented with a nasal polyp and renal failure, what test would need to be done?
ANCA test | positive cANCA is Wegener's
33
What are the most common malignant lesions in ENT
squamous cell carcinoma
34
Who is most likely to develop a nasopharyngeal carcinoma
Low incidence in UK but very high in the far east especially in males
35
What do nasopharyngeal carcinomas have a strong association with
Epstein Barr virus
36
What type of virus is more likely to cause carcinoma
HPV
37
What type of virus is more likely to cause lymphoma
EBV
38
What does EBV target
T cells and tells them to proliferate
39
What does LMP-1 do
encodes other proteins that activate cyclins
40
Where are laryngeal polyps found
middle 1/3 to posterior 1/3 on vocal cord.
41
What is an ulcer
A break in the endothelium below the basement membrane
42
What is a squamous papilloma often associated with
HPV exposure - types 6 and 11
43
When are the 2 peaks of incidence of squamous papillomas
44
What are paragangliomas
tumours arising in clusters of neuroendocrine cells dispersed throughout the body
45
Where is a phaeochromocytoma found
adrenal medulla of the kidney | It is chromaffin positive
46
Why might a paraganglioma occur
As part of MEN 2 (multiple endocrine neoplasia 2)
47
What are the 2 main risk factors for a squamous cell carcinoma
Smoking and alcohol
48
Describe the link between HPV and squamous cell carcinoma
HPV produces proteins E6 and E7 which disrupt p53 and RB pathways respectively, leading to cellular immortality
49
How do we stage squamous cell carcinomas
TNM staging
50
Where is the most common site for almost all salivary tumours
Parotid gland
51
True or false. | Tumours in smaller glands are more likely to be malignant
True | They also cause pain = red flag
52
What is the most common type of tumour in the salivary glands
Pleomorphic adenoma
53
Who is most likely to develop a pleomorphic adenoma
Females over 60
54
What are some of the difficulties with pleomorphic adenomas
Lots of different shapes and sizes Difficult to excise as they have a very jelly like material that can ooze out High recurrence rate
55
What is a Warthin's Tumour
Second most common benign tumour that are rare outwith the parotid gland
56
What are Warthin's tumours associated with
smoking
57
What is the most common malignant tumour in the palate worldwide
Mucoepidermoid carcinoma | In the UK it is an adenoid cystic carcinoma
58
Who is most likely to develop an adenoid cystic tumour
Usually over 40 years
59
What is the survival rate for adenoid cystic tumours
35% 5 year survival and tends to kill you slowly
60
What is one of the difficulties with an adenoid cystic tumour
Can miss the tumour growing along the nerves