Pharmacology Flashcards
(103 cards)
1
Q
management of paracetamol overdose
A
n-acetylcysteine
activated charcoal if presented within 1 hour
2
Q
pH needed for a liver transplant in paracetamol overdose
A
less than 7.3 after 24 hours
3
Q
management of salicylate poisoning
A
IV bicarbonate and haemodialysis
4
Q
ABG and ECG in salicylate poisoning
A
mixed respiratory and metabolic acidosis
prolonged QRS
5
Q
management of opioid overdose
A
naloxone
6
Q
opioid detoxification in the community
A
buprenorphone / methodone
7
Q
management of benzodiazepine overdose
A
flumazenil if severe or iatrogenic as risk of seizure
otherwise supportive
8
Q
management of tricyclic antidepressant overdose
A
IV bicarbonate and dialysis
9
Q
presentation of tricyclic overdose
A
anticholinergic side effects (arrhythmia, seizure, coma)
10
Q
ABG and ECG in tricyclic overdose
A
ABG: metabolic acidosis
ECG: sinus tachycardia and prolonged QRS
11
Q
management of lithium overdose
A
IV saline and haemodialysis
12
Q
coarse tremor, increased reflexes, confusion, polyuria, seizure and coma are found in an overdose of what?
A
lithium
13
Q
what can precipitate a lithium overdose
A
dehydration / renal faiure / NSAIDs / thiazides / ACEI/ARB / metronidazole
14
Q
management of warfarin overdose
A
vitamin K and prothrombin complex
15
Q
management of heparin overdose
A
protamine sulphate
16
Q
management of BB overdose
A
atropine if low heart rate
17
Q
management of ethylene glycol and methanol overdose
A
fomepizole and haemodialysis
ethanol for methanol
18
Q
ABG in ethylene glycol poisoning
A
metabolic acidosis with a high anion gap
19
Q
moa of fomepizole
A
inhibits alcohol dehydrogenase
20
Q
management of organophosphate poisoning
A
atropine
21
Q
reduced heart rate, miosis, salivation, lacrimation, urination, diarrhoea, reduced bp and fasciculations in an overdose of what
A
organophosphates (insesticides)
22
Q
which overdose is desferrioxamine used for
A
iron
23
Q
management of theophylline overdose
A
haemodialysis
24
Q
confusion, pink mucosa and low grade fever
A
carbon monoxide poisoning
25
management of carbon monoxide poisoning
100% oxygen
26
which drug causes colourful visual hallucinations, psychosis, paranoia, depersonalisation
management
LSD
Lorazepam
27
which drug causes agitation, anxiety, confusion, ataxia, tachycardia, HTN, hyponatremia, pyrexia and rhabdomyolysis
management
ecstasy
supportive
28
which drug causes htn, prolonged QT, seizures, reduced tone, increased reflexes, agitation, psychosis, hallucinations, ischaemic colitis, pyrexia, rhabdomyolysis and metabolic acidosis
management
cocaine
benzodiazepines
29
MOA of benzodiazepines
blocks dopamine, noradrenaline and serotonin
30
which medication causes nausea, vomiting, anorexia, confusion, YELLOW GREEN VISION, AV block, bradycardia, acidosis and electrolyte disturbances when overdosed
digoxin
31
MOA of digoxin
positive inotrope which inhibits the Na/K ATPase pump for rate control of the heart
32
which medication can precipitate digoxin toxicity
thiazides
33
how do you manage digoxin toxicity
monitor K and correct arrhythmias
digoxin specific antibody (digiband)
34
how many hours post dose do you check digoxin levels
6-12 hours
35
how many hours post dose do you check lithium levels
12 hours
36
when do you check ciclosporin and phenytoin levels
immediately before the dose
37
which drug would you monitor LFT at baseline, 3m and 12m
statins
38
which drug would you monitor U+E at baseline, when the dose changes and annually
ACEi
39
which drug would you monitor baseline TFT, U+E, LFT, CXR and 6 monthly TFT and LFT
Amiodarone
40
which drug would you monitor FBC, LFT, U+E at baseline then weekly until stable then every 3m
methotrexate
41
which drug would you monitor TFT, U+E baseline then every 6m
drug levels weekly until stable then every 3m
lithium
42
which drug would you monitor LFT and FBC baseline then LFT during the first 6m
sodium valproate
43
which drug would you monitor LFT baseline and regularly
glitazones
44
which diabetic drug caused GI disturbance, lactic acidosis (stop in MI) and nephrotoxicity (stop if eGFR under 30)
metformin
45
which diabetic drug causes hypoglycaemia, weight gain, increased appetite, SIADH and cholestatic liver disease
sulphonylureas
46
which diabetic drug causes increased weight, fluid retention, liver dysfunction and fractures
glitazones
47
which diabetic drug causes pancreatitis
gliptins
48
which TB medication inhibits RNA polymerase and can cause hepatitis, flu like symptoms and orange bodily fluids
RIFAMPICIN
49
which TB medication inhibits myoclonic acid and causes peripheral neuropathy, hepatitis and agranulocytosis
ISONIAZID
50
how do you treat isoniazid induced peripheral neuropathy
pyridoxine
51
which TB medication inhibits enzymes and causes, optic neuritis and renal impairment
ETHAMBUTOL (check visual acuity before starting)
52
which receptor do decongestants such as phenylephrine and oxymetazoline work on
alpha 1 agonist
53
which receptor does topical brimonidine for glaucoma work on
alpha 2 agonist
54
which receptor does tamsulosin for BPH and doxasoin for HTN work on
alpha antagonist
55
SE of alpha antagonists
drowsy, dry cough, SOB, postural hypotension
56
which receptor do inotropes such as doxybutamine work on
beta 1 agonist
57
which receptor do selective and non-selective beta blockers such as atenolol and bisoprolol work on
beta 1 antagonist
58
which receptor do bronchodilators such as salbutamol work on
beta 2 agonist
59
which receptor do non selective beta blockers such as propanolol and labetalol work on
beta 2 antagonist
60
which receptor do Parkinson's medications such as ropinirole work on
dopamine agonist
61
which receptor do antipsychotics such as haloperidol and antiemetics such as metoclopramide and domperidone work on
dopamine antagonist
62
which receptor do benzodiazepines and baclofen work on
GABA agonist
63
which receptor does flumenezil work on
GABA antagonist
64
which receptor do antihistamines such as loratadine work on
histamine 1 antagonist
65
which receptor do antacids such as ranitidine work on
histamine 2 antagonist
66
which receptor do glaucoma medications such as pilocarpine work on
muscarinic agonist
67
which receptor does atropine, ipratropium and oxybutynin work on
muscarinic antagonist
68
which receptor do depolarising muscle relaxants such as suxamethonium and vareniciline for smoking cessation work on
nicotinic agonist
69
which receptor do non depolarising muscle relaxants such as atracurium work on
nicotinic antaognist
70
which receptor does syntocinon for labour induction work on
oxytocin agonist
71
which receptor do triptans for migraine work on
serotonin agonist
72
which receptor do anti emetics such as ondansetron work on
serotonin antagonist
73
name three medications used for motion sickness
hyoscine - cyclizine - promethazine
74
why is cyclizine used in caution in heart failure
reduces the cardiac output
75
fast onset symptoms of increased reflexes, clonus, dilated pupils, confusion, rigidity, tachycardia, hypertension, pyrexia and sweating
serotonin syndrome
76
slow onset symptoms of reduced reflexes, lead pipe rigidity, normal pupils, rigidity, tachycardia, hypertension, pyrexia and sweating
neuroleptic malignant syndrome
77
difference in the cause of serotonin syndrome and neuroleptic malignant syndrome
serotonin: SSRI, MAOi, ecstasy
neuroleptic: antipsychotics
78
management of serotonin syndrome and neuroleptic malignant syndrome
IV fluids and benzodiazepines
chlorpromazine in resistant serotonin
dantrolene in resistant neuroleptic
79
SE of the following medications: tricyclic antidepressants, NSAID, opioids, disopyramide, anticholinergics (antipsychotics and antihistamines)
urinary retention
80
dosages of adrenaline in anaphylaxis and arrest
1:1000 IM 0.5mg-0.5ml in anaphylaxis
1:10000 IV 1mg-10ml or 1:1000 1ml in arrest
81
MOA of aspirin
non reversible COX 1 and 2 inhibitor
82
aspirin before a tooth extraction
take as normal
83
which medication can cause urticaria
aspirin
84
% of carboxyhaemoglibin in smokers
10%
85
side effects of CCB
ankle swelling, headache, flushing
nifedipine: peripheral vasodilation and reflex tachycardia
86
diclofenac in CVD
contraindicated
87
flecainide in AF
check for structural heart disease
88
2 causes of reduced Mg and presentation
PPI and chronic alcoholism
similar presentation to Ca deficiency
89
amiodarone and thyroid disease
causes thyroid dysfunction but can be continued when you add levothyroxine
90
which medication causes corneal opacitis, pulmonary fibrosis and optic neuritis
amiodrone
91
immunosuppressant used post transplant and for RA, UC, psoriasis and pure red cell aplasia which causes nephrotoxicity, hepatotoxicity, impaired glucose tolerance, fluid retention, hair and gum growth
ciclosporin
92
which medication reduces seizure threshold and is contraindicated in G6PD deficiency
ciprofloxacin
93
what is the safest opioid in renal failure
oxycodone
94
MOA of spironolactone and amiloride
potassium sparing diuretics
95
2 antibiotics to monitor in renal failure
vancomycin
gentamycin
96
why does alcohol cause you to go to the toilet
ethanol inhibits vasopressin (ADH) secretion
97
how long do you continue HRT for in premature menopause
until the age of 50
98
MOA, monitoring and SE of unfractionated heparin
activates antithrombin III
monitor with APTT
can cause drug induced thrombocytopenia
99
which medication causes impotence, reduced libido, gynaecomastia, ejaculation disorders and reduced PSA
5 alpha reductase inhibitor (finasteride)
100
which medication caused headaches, blue discolouration, nasal congestion, flushing, priapism and GI disturbance
phosphodiesterase V inhibitor (sildenafil)
101
what is finasteride used to treat
BPH
102
name the drugs which induce the CYP450 enzyme system
-
103
name the drugs which inhibit the CYP450 enzyme system
-
