Phase II Final Prep Flashcards

1
Q

how does plaque form

A

bacteria/microorganisms combine with saliva, carbs, acid, debris to form a soft sticky coating

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

how old is mature plaque

A

24-48 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

how old is new plaque

A

12-24 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

what are types of accumulations

A

acquired pellicle, material alba, food debris

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what factors contribute to plaque accumulation

A

diet rich in fermentable carbohydrates, high bacteria count in oral cavity, poor oral hygiene

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

how do we remove plaque

A

brushing, flossing, polishing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

2 ions that help with the formation of calculus

A

phosphorus, calcium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

why does calculus form

A

lack of removal of plaque, mature plaque turns into calculus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

what is cariogenic bacteria

A

bacteria producing or promoting decay

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

demineralization occurs when what dissolves

A

calcium and phosphate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

when calcium and phosphate are redeposited this is called

A

remineralization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

what is the concentration of fluoride in water

A

1ppm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

who is a good candidate for fluoride supplements

A

love in a non fluoridated region, high risk of caries, hypersensitive teeth, xerostomia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

flour of pumice is used to remove what kind of stains

A

heavy stains [most abrasive]

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

calcium carbonate is used to remove what kind of stains

A

light to medium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what is the most common type of abrasive in toothpaste and trophy paste

A

calcium carbonate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

what is the correct polishing stroke

A

short, intermittent, overlapping

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

contraindications for polishing

A

no stains present, root/cementum exposure, high risk caries, sensitive teeth, newly erupted teeth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

gingivitis is induced by

A

plaque

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

is gingivitis reversible

A

yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

gingivitis presents itself as

A

inflammation of the gums; no bone or tissue loss

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

a patient with periodontitis will present

A

tissue loss/destruction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

when should you floss

A

before brushing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

what does dentrifice remove

A

removes biofilm, stain, and other soft deposits

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
what are the components of dentrifice [7]
detergent, abrasive, binder, humectant, preservative, flavouring, and water
26
how far should the operators face be away from the patients
12-14 inches
27
the operators zone of a right handed dentist would be
7-12 oclock
28
what are the steps in the learning ladder [5]
unawareness, awareness, self interest, involvement, habit
29
ethics pertains to what
what you should do
30
ethics is characterized by
nonmalificence, confidentiality, justice, veracity, autonomy and beneficence
31
respondent superior is
legal doctrine which holds employer liable for acts of employees
32
malpractice is considered to be
professional negligence
33
what kind of wax adds depth or length to impression trays
utility wax
34
when taking an impression what temp of water is ideal and what temp of water slows setting time of impression
ideal water temp is room temp [21 C] ; cold water slows setting time
35
when selecting a tray for impressions what is important to consider
comfy for pt should extend slightly beyond facial surfaces of teeth extends 2-3mm beyond 3rd molar catches retromolar/tuberosity allows 2-3mm of material btwn tray and incised/occlusal edges of teeth
36
a matrix system is used to
create a temporary inter proximal wall for placement of restorative material
37
how should you contour a matrix band and when should you do it
contour using a burnisher, once band is placed you should burnish it against inner surfaces
38
what are the indications for sealants
``` deep pits + fissures newly erupted teeth adjacent tooth has restorations no proximal decay susceptible to caries (preventative measure) ```
39
oral irrigation (waterpik) is beneficial to patients who
have gingivitis, implants, orthodontist appliances or diabetes, poor dexterity
40
absorbable sutures include
catgut, vicryl, monocryl
41
non absorbable sutures include
nylon, polyester fiber, silk
42
when should sutures be removed
5-7 days after placement
43
how should you remove sutures
knotted end is pulled TOWARD incision line
44
contraindications of a dental dam
secondary herpes, claustrophobia, asthma, cracks/blisters on vermillion border
45
what nerve is the primary source of innervation in the oral cavity
trigeminal nerve
46
the nasopalatine nerve passes through what
incisive foramen
47
vitamin A deficiency is characterized by
night blindness, dry scaly skin
48
vitamin d deficiency is characterized by
by rickets in children, calcium loss from bone in adults
49
vitamin c deficiency is characterized by
swollen bleeding gums, slow wound healing
50
vitamin k deficiency is characterized by
bleeding disorders
51
where would you store waste amalgam
hazardous waste
52
contraindications for topical anesthetic
redness, edema, sloughing of tissue, inflammation, allergy
53
what is the average pulse of an adult
60-100 bpm
54
average respiration rate for adults
10-20 breaths per minute
55
average blood pressure of adult
120/80
56
what is a copayment
clients assume some responsibility of coverage [ex. 80% coverage, 20% responsibility]
57
at what age does the first permanent maxillary molar erupt
6-7 years
58
what are the first teeth to typically erupt in primary dentition
mandibular centrals
59
what are the three salivary glands
parotid, sublingual, submandibular
60
what salivary gland is associated with the Wharton's duct
submandibular
61
the salivary gland associated with the stensons duct
parotid
62
what salivary gland supplies the most saliva to the oral cavity
submandibular
63
contraindications of nitrous oxide
respiratory infection, pregnant, multiple sclerosis, psychiatric pt, alcoholic, frequent narcotics user
64
overbite is characterized by what type of overlap
vertical
65
overjet is the excessive protrusion of the max incisors and is characterized by what type of overlap
horizontal
66
a fibroblast is
pulp forming
67
an ameloblast is
enamel forming
68
odontoblasts form
dentin
69
silence is golden refers to
res gestae
70
who is the father of modern dentistry
pierre fauchard
71
T/F | an act of omission is defined as failure to perform an act that a reasonable professional would
true
72
4 organizational levels of human body in order
cells, tissues, organs, body systems
73
which brachial arch forms the bones muscles and nerves of the face
first brachial arch
74
histodifferentiation occurs during which growth period
bell stage
75
growth period also known as proliferation
cap stage
76
the portion of the tooth that is visible in the mouth is known as the
clinical crown
77
the periodontal consist of
cementum, alveolar bone, periodontal ligaments
78
oblique fibres resist forces placed on
the long axis of the tooth
79
bones of the cranium
fontal, occipital, parietal, temporal, sphenoid, ethmoid
80
tmj is made up of the following 3 parts
glenoid fossa, articular eminence, condyloid process
81
caries affecting the proximal surfaces of anterior teeth without affecting incised edge
class 3
82
what type of latex allergy is a serious medical emergency
type 1
83
apathos ulcers commonly known as
canker sores
84
are most patients with hairy leukoplakia HIV positive
yes
85
what colour is sub gingival calculus
dark green or black
86
what hepatitis is an infectious form of hepatitis
hep c
87
a critical instrument touches
bone or penetrates soft tissues
88
increasing kvp increases
density
89
purpose of coupling agents in composite material
strengthens resistance. by chemically bonding filler to resin matrix
90
what resrtoatve material releases fluoride after placement
glass ionomer
91
function of a dental liner
protects plural tissue from irritation
92
where is liner placed
deepest portion of prep
93
what materials is a varnish contraindicated under
composite resins and glass ionomer
94
where is a base applied in the prep
entire plural floor [1-2mm thickness]
95
Zoe is most often used in procedures when what may be a concern
postoperative sensitivity
96
is an impression a negative or positive reproduction
negative
97
main components of alginate are
``` potassium alginate calcium sulfate trisodium phosphate diatomaceous earth zinc oxide potassium titanium fluoride ```
98
what impression material will a dentist apply first to a prepped tooth- heavy or light bodied
light body
99
which brachial arch forms the bones, muscles, nerves of the face and lower lip
first brachial arch [mandibular arch]
100
3 growth periods in tooth formation are
bud, cap, bell
101
what is the most abundant mineral component of enamel
hydroxyapatite [calcium]
102
class 2 occlusion is also known as ____ and is characterized by
distoclusion; mesiobuccal cusp of max 1st molar occludes medial to mesiobuccal groove of band 1st molar. protrusion of upper lip
103
class 3 occlusion is also known as __ and is characterized by
mesioclusion; mandible protruded
104
class 2 div 1 the central anteriors are
flared outward