Post Op Managment Flashcards

1
Q

What 3 things do we look at in a post fracture repair radiological assessment?

A
  • Alignment >50% ESF
  • Assess for any rotation that has occurred as implants tightened
  • Implant positioning avoiding joints, fracture site and on occasions growth plates (unless you have lag screwed it)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is the allignment in “open but do not touch” fractures?

A

At least 50% overlap
in both planes. Doesn’t have to be perfectly aligned.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Do you deserve cereal in melted chocolate?

A

Yes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is the allignment in ‘ORIF’ (open reduction, internal fixation)?

A

Must be near 100%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What can be seen in relation to the fracture on a radiograph of a fracture repair with an external fixator?

A

the fracture lines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What are the 3 major causes of inappropriate fixation?

A
  • Implants too small or too large
  • Fail to address forces applied
  • Too rigid, especially external fixator
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is the consensus about using casts in veterinary?

A
  • Many complications, e.g. pressure sores and loss of digits
  • Avoid this method of immobilization
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Where are pressure sores most common with robert Jones dressings?

A
  • Accessory carpal bone
  • Calcaneus
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Post fracture repair what rrestrictions should we give tto dogs in general?

A

Garden on lead for 3 weeks and then to lead for another 8 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

How long should we restrict cats

A

8 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

When are antibiotics recommended on fracture discharge?

A

60-90mins + surgery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What instructions do we give to owners for dressing management?

A
  • Keep dry. Heavy duty polythene protected with sock only when outside
  • Check toes and top of dressing twice daily
  • Any smell to bring to surgery
  • If off colour, bring to surgery
  • If veterinary surgeon in any doubt remove dressing or cast
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What fixation failure do we have with pins?

A

Fracture rotates or collapses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What fixation failure do we have with cerclage wires?

A

Loosen and fail to maintain reduction of fragments resulting in instability

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What fixation failure do we have with a plate?

A
  • Loss of trans cortex with cyclical loading results in plate breaking
  • If too strong, stress protection of the bone
  • Stress riser – rigid piece of bone next to area of bone not plated and can break
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What fixation failure do we have with an ESF?

A
  • Pin tract infection common
  • Fracture through pin tract
  • If too strong get delayed healing of fracture
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is a common IM pin failure in a cat femur?

A

Damages sciatic nerve especially in the cat

•an affected animal will show a great degree of pain – you have to do something straight away otherwise you get neuropathy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What failure is common if there is a retrograde placement of an IM Pin?

A

Can enter a joint

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What happens if there is eccentric loading of bones during weight bearing + muscle contraction?

A

Bending

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What happens if there is a defect in compression surface +/- weak implants with the plates and screws?

A

Angulation of bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

When are plates weak against bending?

A

If cyclically loaded

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What are the threee options for a buttress fixation?

A
  • Very strong broad DCP plate
  • Bridging plate – strong central section without screw holes
  • Combination fixation; pin-plate
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What are problems with placing an external skeletal fixator?

A
  • Failing to place pins within safe corridors
  • Pin tract sepsis and premature pin loosening
  • Iatrogenic bone fracture (pins > 25-30% of bone diameter, or close to fracture lines)
  • Placing clamps / bars too close to skin = pressure necrosis
  • Using too weak / strong a frame
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

How do we know this is loosening?

A

Start to see radiolucency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Where is fractur disease more common?
The young animal
26
Name 3 possible fracture diseases (5)
* Joint stiffness * Osteoporosis * Stress protection * Infection * Quadriceps contracture
27
What is seen in distal femoral fracture? (3)
Muscle atrophy Joint stiffness Muscle contracture (quadriceps tie-down)= stifle hyperextension
28
What might be the only treatment for quadriceps contracture?
Amputation
29
Other than amputation what might treat quadriceps contracture?
* Avoid external coaption * Rigid internal fixation * Encourage early use of the limb – appropriate use of analgesia * Early physio- and hydrotherapy
30
What is involved with acute osteomyelitis?
Soft tissue and associated periosteum
31
How can you treat osteomyelitiis?
Antibiotics
32
What is chronic osteomyelitis?
Primarily bone infection and established around implants
33
What radiographic changes are seen with fracture disease? (5)
* Proliferative changes to the periosteum * Sclerotic margin to infected area * Bone lysis, particularly around implants * Development of involucrum and sequestrum * Soft tissue swelling
34
What can be seen here?
35
What is Involucrum?
Pus filled in bone
36
How can we treat fracture disease?
* Remove necrotic bone and sequestrum (a dead fragment of bone) * Appropriate antibiotics – swab taken at surgery not from any discharging sinus * Stabilise the fracture – it will heal in the presence of infection if no movement * When fracture healed remove implants
37
When will fractures heal in the prescence of infection?
If rigid stability is ensured
38
When we have secondary bone healing with instability?
If mild
39
What happens if forces at the fracture site exceed the tolerance of granulation tissue?
This will result in tearing of the blood vessels that are bridging the fracture site, preventing the sequential deposition of cartilage and eventually bone = delayed or non-union.
40
What is the blood supply to the inner 2/3 of cortex in a normal bone?
Endosteal origin
41
What is the blood supply to the outer 1/3 of cortex in a normal bone?
Periosteal
42
What happens to the blood supply with a fracture?
Normal blood supply is disrupted and initial vascular supply required for fracture healing comes from the surrounding soft tissues, such as muscles – extraosseus blood supply.
43
How can we manage a delayed healing fracture?
* Patience * Stage down fixator to encourage bone loading * Physiotherapy to encourage weight bearing
44
What is atrophic non-unions and what may it require?
Non-viable – may require amputation
45
What is hypertropic non-unions? How can we treat?
Viable Treat - Debride fracture ends and open medullary cavity - Compress fracture - Apply cancellous bone graft or equivalent
46
Where is the most common sites for non-unions? (2)
Radius and femur
47
What age and weight is non-unions most common?
* 2-7 years old * Weighing between 7-14 kg
48
When is the best oppurtunity to heal a fracture?
The first attempt
49
What is the main complication of a fracture?
Instability
50
What is mal-union?
Fracture does not heal in the correct allignment
51
When is mal-union bad?
When there is rotation
52
When is mal-union fine?
A cranialcaudal bend
53
When is a mal-union maybe ok but depends on severiy?
If it heals in a medial-lateral plane
54
When is fracture scoring done and what is it?
Done before fracture repair A means by which the fracture is given a score to determine the likelihood of uneventful healing
55
What does a high fracture score mean in general?
Guarded prognosis
56
What factors are considered for fracture scoring?
Patient factors - Weight of animal: heavier have a higher score - Age: younger animals lower score - Boisterousness and ability to manage cage rest - Concurrent illnesses Fracture - Type of fracture: does it allow compression plating or require external fixator, etc. If you can get a plate on it – lower the score. EF – higher score. Open – higher (contamination and infection affects healing) - Open or closed? - Associated soft tissue injuries - Single or one of several – multiple limbs – higher score Owner factors - Will they comply with post-op instructions? - Finances – if they have no money don’t start Surgeon - Are they able to manage this fracture? Is the correct equipment available?
57
What can we do for a fracture in an aggressive animal?
Use plates - don't need to see the animal again
58
What age is this animal?
Young
59
Discuss
Air gun + debris comminuted fracture
60
What is the cause of this fracture?
Pathology