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171 BPOA > PPCT > Flashcards

PPCT Flashcards

1
Q

What 2 branches are the Autonomic Nervous System (ANS) divided into?

A
  1. Parasympathetic Nervous System (PNS - normal “rest and digest” operates in QUIET, NON-STRESSFUL ENVIRONMENT)
  2. Sympathetic Nervous System (SNS - fight or flight, acts to PREPARE THE BODY TO REACT TO STRESSFUL SITUATIONS when faced with danger). Both control INVOLUNTARY ACTIONS.
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2
Q

What are the 3 Mental States in Combat?

A

Combat Anxiety, Survival Stress and Combat Stress.

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3
Q

What is Combat Anxiety?

A

The anticipation of danger (which may lead to a gradual deterioration of both mental and physical skills).

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4
Q

What is Survival Stress?

A

Deadly force threat perception that initiates the SNS discharge. (the hormonal changes can affect performance)

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5
Q

What is Combat Stress?

A

Deals with the POST EVENT mental and physiological symptoms that are a result of the SNS activation and sudden return to PNS.

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6
Q

What is TUNNEL VISION?

A

When your vision literally narrows down by as much as 70%. Problem is that your mind is processing only minimal information and you could miss vital threat cues.

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7
Q

What are the 3 Motor Skill Classifications?

A
  1. Fine Motor Skills
  2. Complex Motor Skills
  3. Gross Motor Skills
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8
Q

Describe Fine Motor Skills?

A

Skills that require HAND/EYE coordination and HAND DEXTERITY (such as writing a report, precision shooting skills or survival reloading). A heart rate of 115 BPM starts to affect Fine Motor Skills.

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9
Q

Describe Complex Motor Skills?

A

Skills that involve a series of muscle groups in a series of MOVEMENTS requiring hand/eye coordination, PRECISION, TRACKING and TIMING. Such skills include shooting stances like Weaver Stance. A heart rate of approx. 145 BPM starts to affect Complex Motor Skills.

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10
Q

Describe Gross Motor Skills?

A

Skills that involve LARGE or MAJOR MUSCLE GROUPS. Such skills involve simple actions like a Straight Punch, forward baton strike, or isosceles shooting stance. This Motor Skill actually increases as the SNS heart rate increases.

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11
Q

Describe the INVERTED U LAW?

A

As arousal increases, so will MOTOR PERFORMANCE to a point at which the arousal is too high and motor skill deteriorates.

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12
Q

What heart rate range is OPTIMAL for PERFORMANCE?

A

115 TO 145 BPM.

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13
Q

What triggers Parasympathetic Nervous System (PNS) “Backlash”?

A

Triggers occur after being in a situation that activated Sympathetic Nervous System (SNS), and includes the perception that the THREAT HAS DIMINISHED, the perception that there has been an INJURY TO A VITAL SYSTEM, or EXHAUSTION of the aerobic and anaerobic systems.

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14
Q

Describe Critical Incident Amnesia?

A

Occurs after Sympathetic Nervous System (SNS) activation and is a form of TEMPORARY amnesia subsequent to a SNS mass discharge which includes the RELEASE of the stress hormone CORTISOL.

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15
Q

Describe how incident reports should be handled? (hint: 3 reports should be described)

A
  1. The first report should be VERBAL and titled “Preliminary Report”.
  2. The second report should NOT be prepared until AFTER the FIRST sleep period.
  3. The “Final” report should NOT be prepared until AFTER the SECOND sleep period.
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16
Q

Describe the ATP/PC System?

A

FIRST PHASE: Consists of SMALL ENERGY BUNDLES that are stored in the MUSCLES. Used during HIGH ENERGY/STRENGTH activities. When engaged, the officer can perform at 100% output for 10-15 seconds. After this, expect a 45% DECREASE in maximum output within 30 seconds.

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17
Q

Describe the Lactic Acid System (LAS)?

A

SECOND PHASE: Used by the body after the ATP/PC system has been depleted as an AFTERBURNER FUEL and provides about 45 seconds of INTERMEDIATE STRENGTH and ENDURANCE.

Once engaged, officer will be reduced to 55% of maximum output at 30 seconds and 35% of output at 60 seconds.

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18
Q

Describe the Aerobic System (AS)?

A

FINAL PHASE: After 90 seconds, LAS is depleted and AS becomes the FINAL and DOMINANT fuel system. It is fueled by combination of OXYGEN, CARBS, and FREE FATTY ACIDS. When AS is activated, officer’s MAXIMUM OUTPUT will be reduced to approximately 31%.

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19
Q

Define Homeostasis?

A

BALANCE

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20
Q

What happens VISUALLY during SNS Activation?

A 
Tunnel Vision
Loss of NEAR VISION
Loss of ABILITY TO FOCUS
Loss of MONOCULAR VISION
Loss of DEPTH PERCEPTION
Loss of NIGHT VISION
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21
Q

What are common ACTIONS or REACTIONS to Hyper-vigilance?

A

Fight or Flight
Fixation or Freezing
Submissive Behavior
Feedback Loop (repetition of actions including clearly ineffective or inappropriate actions)

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22
Q

Describe the Catastrophe Theory?

A

Catastrophic Failure can be expected when high COGNITIVE ANXIETY is combined with high levels of PHYSIOLOGICAL AROUSAL. Similar to the Inverted U Law except the BOTTOM FALLS OUT.

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23
Q

Describe PNS “Backlash” Symptoms?

A

Dizziness from sudden drop in blood pressure and heart rate
Excessive Bleeding
Sock, Paleness, Nausea, Excessive Sweating, Clammy Skin
Overwhelming sense of Exhaustion
Excessive Muscle Tremors

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24
Q

Describe PROTEINS?

A

Groups of AMINO ACIDS that maintain and build muscle and are used as an ENERGY SOURCE during times of stress and to increase MENTAL PERFORMANCE. (Lean meats, chicken, fish and tuna)

25
Q

What are the 3 PPCT Components of Acceptability?

A
  1. Tactical Acceptability
  2. Legal Acceptability
  3. Medical Acceptability
26
Q

What is Hick’s Law?

A

A motor learning and time principle, Hick’s Law states that REACTION TIME increases by 150 milliseconds when technique increases from 1 to 2. A system consisting of a SMALL NUMBER of techniques increases an officer’s chance of survival.

27
Q

What 2 Theories of Control for Force Continuum are used?

A
  1. Total Control Theory

2. One-Plus-One Theory

28
Q

What is the TOTAL CONTROL THEORY?

A

More Liberal, centered upon the use of an intermediate weapon (ASP, OC spray, or Taser). Allows for type of tool to be used to control ALL LEVELS of resistance.

29
Q

What is the One-Plus-One Theory?

A

More Conservative, based on concept of responding to resistance with PROPORTIONAL use of force (ONE LEVEL HIGHER than the level of resistance used by the subject). More emphasis on empty-hand techniques and pressure points. Much easier to DEFEND in TODAY’S COURTS.

30
Q

What is Psychological Intimidation?

A

Non-Verbal cues indicating subject’s attitude, appearance and physical readiness.

31
Q

What is Verbal Noncompliance?

A

Any verbal response indicating subject unwillingness to obey commands.

32
Q

What is Passive Resistance?

A

Any type of resistance where subject does NOT attempt to defeat the officer’s attempt to touch/control him, but will NOT VOLUNTARILY COMPLY with VERBAL and PHYSICAL ATTEMPTS OF CONTROL. (Sit-In Protests, etc.)

33
Q

What is Defensive Resistance?

A

Any action by a subject that attempts to prevent an officer from gaining control of the subject (pushing/pulling away, etc.) This can be VERY DANGEROUS to the officer and often leads to Active Aggression!

34
Q

What is Active Aggression?

A

Physical actions AGAINST the officer or another person with LESS than deadly force (advancing, punching, kicking, etc.)

35
Q

What is Deadly Force Assault?

A

Any force used against an officer that may result in great bodily harm or loss of life. This includes such force as martial arts techniques that could cause the officer to become unconscious or serious injury, in which case deadly force is authorized.

36
Q

What is Officer Presence?

A

Identification of a police officer’s AUTHORITY. Assumption is that the public must obey a lawful order.

37
Q

What are Verbal Directions?

A

Commands of direction or arrest.

38
Q

Define Soft Empty Hand Control?

A

Designed to control PASSIVE or DEFENSIVE RESISTANCE and include strength techniques, joint locks, pressure points and the Knee Strike/Distraction Technique to the subject’s thigh. Little to no potential for injury.

39
Q

Define Hard Empty Hand Control?

A

Designed to control ACTIVE AGGRESSION or DEFENSIVE RESISTANCE and include Defensive Counterstrikes and the Shoulder Pin Restraint, Front Thrust Kick to lower shin, Knee Strike and Angle Kick (mid-thigh), and Brachial Stuns (side of neck).

40
Q

What is an Intermediate Weapon?

A

Use of any weapon NOT part of the human body to control resistance (OC Spray, Taser, ASP, flashlight, etc.) Justified when use of deadly force is NOT justified and intended to TEMPORARILY DISABLE a suspect.

41
Q

What part of the body should you never strike with an intermediate weapon?

A

Head, neck, clavicle (unless deadly force is justified) and provide first aid as soon as possible.

42
Q

What parts of the body SHOULD you target with an intermediate weapon?

A
  1. Motor Points

2. Joints and bony areas

43
Q

What is DEADLY FORCE?

A

Any force used by an officer that may (LIKELY TO, not just mere possibility) result in great bodily harm or death.

44
Q

When may you use deadly force?

A
  1. Defense of an officer or another to prevent imminent danger of death or serious bodily harm
  2. Apprehending a fleening FELON where officer has probable cause to believe the suspect has…
    a) threatened an officer
    b) committed a crime involving the infliction or threatened infliction of serious bodily harm
    c) the use of force is necessary to prevent the suspect’s escape.
45
Q

May an officer use a technique or weapon not specifically taught in the Police Academy?

A

Yes, if certain, immediate and drastic measures are called for to protect human life.

46
Q

What are the FIVE CONTROL PRINCIPALS?

A
  1. Pain Compliance
  2. Stunning Techniques
  3. Distraction Techniques
  4. Balance Displacement
  5. Motor Dysfunction
47
Q

Define Pain Compliance?

A

The use of stimulus pain to control resistive behavior

48
Q

Define Stunning Techniques?

A

The stimulation of overwhelming sensory input that is SUDDEN, INTENSE and UNEXPECTED. The most PROMINENT strikes are the Brachial Stun, the Super-scapular Stun, and either an Angle Kick or Knee Strike to the Thigh.

49
Q

Define Distraction Techniques?

A

The use of control techniques that WEAKEN MOTOR ACTION BY CHANGING THE THOUGHT PROCESS. Most common technique is the Knee Strike to the subject’s Thigh.

50
Q

Define Balance Displacement?

A

The use of control techniques that displace balance through the principles of leverage. Knee Strike is the PRIMARY DISTRACTION TECHNIQUE and will result in subject standing on one leg, allowing for a BALANCE DISPLACEMENT.

51
Q

Define Motor Dysfunction?

A

TRUMPS ALL A control striking technique that overstimulates motor nerves, resulting in temporary muscle impairment. (ie: a severe charley horse that lasts from 30 seconds to several minutes)

52
Q

Define the Reactionary Gap?

A

Minimum Safe Zone that an officer should maintain when dealing with others. Minimum safe distance should be at least SIX FEET.

53
Q

What are the TWO Tactical Reactionary Options?

A
  1. Penetrate the Reactionary Gap in order to use close-range techniques
  2. Disengage and employ techniques designed to be used on the EDGE of the Reactionary Gap.
54
Q

Define Relative Position Level I Interview Position?

A

Front Left or Right of the Subject. Field Interview Stance should be conducted from this position.

55
Q

Define Level II 1/2 Escort Position?

A

Rear Left or Right of the Subject and used to control subject’s arms. Temporary until getting to a location to place handcuffs.

56
Q

Define Level III Position?

A

Directly Behind the Subject

57
Q

Define Inside Position?

A

Directly in FRONT of the Subject. AVOID this position whenever possible!

58
Q

Define Level II Position?

A

To the immediate Left or Right of the subject.

171 BPOA (20 decks)

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