Practical Applied Flashcards
1
Q
The following results are from an inexperienced 23 year old female athlete: Push-up: 4, Partial curl-up: 15, Sit and reach: 15 inches, 1.5-mile run: 13:10, Which of these should be least emphasized in her program?
A
Aerobic energy system capabilities
2
Q
When beginning a new program, which of these defines an athletes condition or level of preparedness?
A
Training status
3
Q
Which of these tests offers a measure of flexibility?
A
OH Squat
4
Q
Which resistance training protocol is being implemented when an athlete performs a push-up set and a bench press set in succession?
A
Compound set
5
Q
Which phase of facility setup should interior decor take place?
A
Preoperation
6
Q
In addition to the optimal function of active muscles, which of these are relied upon for functional movement and performance achievement?
A
The speed at which muscular forces are used
7
Q
What is the maximum number of reps recommended for an accurate calculation of the 1RM for power exercises?
A
5
8
Q
Which of these abdominal muscles is tasked with pulling the ribs towards the waist during the crunch exercise?
A
Rectus
9
Q
Which type of stretching is characterized by joint movement through a range of motion all the while gradually increasing the ROM and/or speed on reps?
A
Dynamic
10
Q
Regarding an individual’s testing results, which of these describes the comparison of those scores to a group average in terms of standard deviations?
A
Z score
11
Q
When which of these does not require consideration when assessing program needs?
A
The health status of each athlete
12
Q
Which of the following would not be a component of the feasibility study?
A
Comparing architectural bids
13
Q
Which of these is not one of an emergency team’s four primary roles?
A
Document the injury event in a formal report
14
Q
The most strenuous phase of a repetition is known as what?
A
The sticking point
15
Q
In the neurophysiological model of plyometrics, which term refers to the change in force-velocity characteristics caused by the stretch reflex?
A
Potentiation
16
Q
What is the target heart rate of a 25 year old athlete with a resting heart rate of 60 bpm at a working intensity of 60-70% utilizing the Karvonen method?
A
141-155bpm
17
Q
What does the provision of reasonable testing training and guideline protocols for test administrators improve?
A
Interrater reliability
18
Q
Which of the following is responsible for improved oxygen delivery following a warm-up?
A
Bohr Effect
19
Q
The active rest period or second transition phase should last how long?
A
3 weeks
20
Q
What is the suggested step depth, as adjusted by the user, during use of the stair stepper for aerobic training?
A
4-8”
21
Q
Which factor has the ultimate control of flexibility?
A
Central and peripheral nervous system
22
Q
In a testing battery, which of these tests must be performed last?
A
1.5mi run
23
Q
An athlete performs one set of shoulder presses followed by one set of lateral raises for several cycles. What term describes this method of training?
A
Compound sets
24
Q
A 400m swimmer is tapping into which molecule as the primary energy substrate?
A
Muscle glycogen and glucose
25
In order to increase safety, how should the weight lifting racks be secured?
Secured to the floor with bolts
26
Which of these stretches targets the prime mover of the pull-up exercise?
Pillar stretch
27
Which of the following non-temperature related effects occurs through a proper warm-up?
Post activation potentiation
28
Which PNF stretch takes advantage of autogenic and reciprocal inhibition?
Hold-relax with agonist contraction
29
Which stretching exercise targets the hamstrings?
Straddle
30
The second pull of a snatch employs explosive action of which muscles?
Ankles, knees and hips
31
Increases in tissue flexibility depend primarily on which of the following characteristics?
Plasticity
32
Assessing both the athlete's and the sport's requirements involves which of these?
Needs analysis
33
Which of these is ideal for an athlete who needs to stretch their gluteus maximus and iliopsoas muscles?
Forward lunge (fencer) and supine knee flex
34
What is the primary difference between a push press and push jerk?
Push press is caught overhead with slightly flexed elbows and pressed to the top
35
What is the minimum ideal deceleration distance past the finish line during a speed test?
20yds
36
What describes the amount of mass per exercise set?
Load
37
How many steps are needed for deceleration from full speed when performing deceleration drills?
7
38
Which method of training is most effective for increasing stride rate for optimised sprint speed?
Plyometric Training
39
During exercises involving over-the-face barbell trajectories, what is the proper hand placement for spotting after liftoff during the movement?
Supinated grip inside the athlete’s hands
40
What is the typical width of a common grip?
Approx shoulder width
41
Muscular endurance exercises ideally require how much recovery time?
Up to 30s
42
For a middle school weight room, what is the maximum number of athletes per strength and conditioning professional?
10
43
The maximum amount of reps in a partial curl-up test should be performed in how much time?
3.75m
44
With regards to criterion referenced validity, what are the three relevant types?
Concurrent, predictive, and discriminant
45
The process of explaining the risks and benefits of a program to a participant for the purposes of agreeing to begin a program is known as:
Informed consent
46
How many reps is an athlete predicted to perform at 85% 1RM load?
6
47
After 6 months of training with plyometrics, what is the ideal amount of foot contacts for this athlete?
100
48
The agonist is stretched under contraction during which stretch-shortening cycle phase?
Eccentric phase
49
For lower body 1RM testing, what is the ideal set-by-set load increment value?
10-20%
50
Which muscle is targeted by a semi-straddle stretch?
Erector spinae
51
During the transition of the log clean-and-press, where should the log be?
Above the knee resting on the thigh
52
In terms of exercise economy, compared to novices, better runners tend to have:
Shorter stride length
53
Which of the following is the biggest risk factor for ACL injury during landing?
Frontal plane knee valgus
54
Which of the following offers the most applicable combination of instability and specificity?
Ground-based free weight training
55
Which of these validities would the results of the percentile ranks of athletes' vertical jumps and 1RM back squat variations reinforce?
Discriminant validity
56
Where is the proper spotting location during the dumbbell bench press?
On the forearms close to the wrists
57
When using the shoulders-against-the-tire technique, during the initial upward movement phase of a tire flip, in what direction should the main drive occur?
Forward until the body reaches a 45-degree angle
58
At what point is exhaling recommended using a standard breathing pattern?
At the sticking point of a movement
59
Which grip is recommended for heavy weightlifting derivative movements (i.e. power clean)?
Pronated hooked grip
60
The measure of variability of a set of results about the average is defined by which of these?
Standard deviation
61
The following can be used to calculate the overall load of resistance bands or chains added to a barbell:
Calculate the average load between the top and bottom positions
62
When should high-intensity, upper body plyometric training be scheduled?
Lower body, low intensity resistance
63
When performing depth jumps, what is the maximum recommended box height for athletes over 220lb?
18”
64
At what point should the shrug occur during a power snatch?
When the lower body joints reach full extension in the second pull
65
Which of the following movements has the longest ground contact time?
Single leg direction change of 120°
66
Which of the following is a limiting factor in many nontraditional implement training?
Grip strength
67
Which of these is being implemented by a rowing athlete who performs barbell bent over rows and leg presses for enhanced performance?
SAID principle
68
Where on the torso should a waist measurement be conducted?
In line with the bellybutton
69
What is the preferred hand placement for a spotter during a flat dumbbell fly?
Adjacent to the forearms of the lifter
70
What property of the neuromuscular system allows for an increased ROM (range of motion) during a contract-relax stretch?
Autogenic inhibition
71
Regarding max velocity accelerating and sprinting, which of these two stride phases is common in both?
Support and flight
72
What is the best knee placement for a seated machine leg curl?
Aligned with the machine axis
73
How much rest is generally recommended between plyometric training sessions?
48-72
74
Which of the following volume recommendations is most suitable for intermediate athletes?
100-120
75
When performing aerobic exercise and plyometric exercise, which of the following statements is true?
Aerobic exercise should be performed after plyometric training
76
these factors combine to influence running velocity?
Stride rate and stride length
77
Undulating periodization typically involves fluctuations in load and volume throughout which training cycle?
Microcycle
78
Which of the following seasons involves the greatest intensity of training?
Preseason
79
At what approximately what maximal intensity can a well-conditioned athlete perform for several hours before experiencing fatigue?
70%
80
Selecting the proper attributes for testing based on the demands of the sport for use in developing training programs is known as which of the following?
Athletic profile development
81
Which of these aspects of the pro-agility test is the most essential when considering whether to add it to the testing battery of an athlete in their pre-season phase?
Specificity
82
The Margaria-Kalamen test measures which of the following?
Max Power
83
A hexagon agility test incorporates which movement?
Double leg hop
84
Of the following tests, which sequence would provide the most reliable results? Wingate test, 12-minute run, Vertical jump, 1 RM bench press
Vertical jump, 1 RM bench press, Wingate test, 12-minute run
85
At what point in the 505 agility test can the athlete slow down?
Upon passing the lights for the second time
86
Male decathletes have what average body fat percent?
8-10%
87
What is the minimum recommended size for a warm-up area?
49 square feet
88
The maintenance of a certification in strength and conditioning helps with what legal aspect?
Establishing a standard of care
89
What drill incorporates cognitive perceptual demands with change direction?
Y-shaped agility drills
90
What training method is least recommended for improving sprint time?
Overspeed training
91
What is the term given for the effect of training intensity or duration decreasing, or training stopped completely due to program intervals, disease or injury?
Detraining
92
Which of these muscles is strengthen through a seated barbell shoulder press?
Medial and anterior deltoid
93
Elite sprinters display which of the following compared to non-elite sprinters?
A greater force production during the first half of ground contact
94
Which of the following involves gradual decrease in daily training volume of the weeks leading to the competition?
Linear taper
95
An interset rest period of 90 seconds is most appropriate for which of the following training goes?
Hypertrophy
96
What is the first consideration when designing a training program?
Analysis of sport specific needs
97
Which of these positive adaptations can result from high volume, medium intensity resistance training?
Increased muscle mass
98
For female athletes, which of these requires additional consideration when designing a training program as opposed to men?
Prevention of ACL injury
99
Which of these describes the possible range of movement around a joint and the relevant skeletal muscle during a passive movement?
Static flexibility
100
What do you call the active stretch with Palms and feet are placed flat on the floor as the weight of shifted backwards?
Inchworm
101
The dip occurs at what phase of the push jerk?
Preparation phase
102
a common disadvantage squatting with a single spotter?
Inability to correctly bear load in the case of failure by the lifter
103
Which of these to squeeze the contrast between the power snatch and power clean when listed from the ground
Catch position and width of grip
104
What is the minimum suggested number of fans to ventilate a 4800 square-foot Strength And Conditioning facility?
8
105
In a spotter friendly facility how much room should there be between weight racks to allow for spotters?
3-4 feet
106
What type of injuries are stress fractures and tendinitis?
Microtrauma
107
Which phase of agility development should focus on lateral deceleration capacity?
Block 2
108
Which of these can be recommended for an in-season high school endurance runner's core exercise program?
Chest presses and lunges
109
Which of the following should be used during sports with a long competitive season?
Maintenance programs
110
What is the ideal 1RM % for maximal power improvements in single-effort events on exercises such as the power clean and power snatch?
80-90%
111
What do you call a sudden overloading event that causes tissue damage?
Macro trauma
112
A workout including 2 sets of 10 reps of Romanian deadlift at 60% 5RM should occur during which training phase?
Hypertrophy phase 1
113
Increased metabolism after eating is known as:
Thermic effect of nutritional intake
114
Which steps does the athlete step on during the Margaria-Kalamen test?
3rd, 6th, 9th
115
What is the distance between cone C and cone D in the T-test?
10yds
116
What is the complete distance covered by the athlete during the execution of a T-test?
40yds
117
For double leg box-jump, what is the optimal landing position?
A half squat
118
What is the suggested plyo-box surface area for landing during plyometric training?
18" x 24"
119
Which of the following stretching types is most likely to activate the stretch reflex?
Ballistic stretching
120
What is the suggested height limit for safe execution of depth jumps?
42”
121
Which grip forms should be used by the lifter and spotter during the downward phase of a barbell tricep lift?
Lifter: pronated grip; Spotter: supinated grip
122
With the initial pull of the power snatch, which of these is true?
Maintenance of torso angle as bar passes from the shins to the knees
123
What is the ideal hand position at the top of a squat jump?
Behind the head
124
Hold-relax PNF stretching includes which of the following?
Passive pre-stretch
II. Concentric antagonist activation
IV. Passive 30-second final stretch
125
During a half speed deceleration drill, what is the recommended amount of steps an athlete should employ for a complete stop?
3
126
If a strong athlete incorporates only unilateral training into his or her program, what might the strength and conditioning professional expect to happen?
A bilateral facilitation will occur.
127
Which of the following is a rationale for using variable-resistance training methods?
to accommodate the changing mechanical advantages associated with constant-loaded exercises
128
Which of the following should be assessed before beginning a lower body plyometric training program?
I. balance
II. strength
III. training history
129
In upright sprinting, an athlete’s stride length is largely dependent on _______________.
the amount of vertical force produced during the stance phase
130
Drills or tests that require the athlete to move rapidly in response to a stimulus such as a whistle, arrow, or opponent are best for measuring which of the following?
agility
131
Selecttheaspectoftrainingthatrequiresadditionalemphasiswhentheaimistoimprovechange-of-direction ability.
Eccentric strength
132
Which of the following adaptations occur as an outcome of an aerobic endurance training program?
increased oxygen delivery to working tissues
higher rate of aerobic energy production
greater utilization of fat as a fuel source
133
Which of the following is the method most commonly used to assign and regulate exercise intensity?
Heart rate
134
During which of the following periods are sport-specific activities performed in the greatest volume?
Competition
135
An operational plan should be created in which of the following phases?
Predesign
136
What is the recommended coach-to-participant ratio during peak weight room usage time in a collegiate setting?
1:20
