Practice Exam 1 Questions Flashcards

1
Q

A team focused on winning and being better than others operates in which kind of environment?

A

Outcome oriented

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

A temp of 4/2/1 is appropriate when training in which phase of the OPT model?

A

Stabilization endurance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Which type of training is designed to enhance power and power-endurance while allowing the metabolic systems ample time to recover between each repetition?

A

Repeated sprint

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Which exercise is performed in the frontal plane?

A

Ice skaters

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is the current upper intake limit for sodium for the average person as established by the Institute of Medicine?

A

2,300 mg/day

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is considered a balance modality?

A

Sport beam

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Which of the following is 70% of an athlete’s age subtracted from in the HRmax regression formula?

A

208

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is the most common sports-related injury, and the number one injury for time lost?

A

Ankle sprains

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What principle states that when a muscle is stimulated to contract, it contracts completely?

A

All-or-none

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Which phase of the OPT model supersets a traditional strength exercise (e.g. barbell squats) with a plyometric/power exercise of similar joint mechanics (e.g. squat jumps) to enhance prime mover strength and rate of force production?

A

Power

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What type of training incorporates skills and movements that mimic what happens in competition?

A

Sport specific

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the recommended protein intake for strength and power athletes?

A

1.6-1.8 g/kg/day

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the outermost layer of connective tissue that surrounds muscle?

A

Epimysium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is the main focus of a core training program?

A

Function

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What do you risk creating if an athlete is put into a level of balance training for which they are unprepared?

A

Synergistic dominance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Which stage of cardio training should mark the gradual inclusion of repeated sprint training?

A

Stage 3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

When should light to moderate sport-specific metabolic training primarily occur?

A

In season

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is the recommended calcium intake for an amenorrheic athlete?

A

1,500 mg/day

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What exercises involve little joint motion of the balance leg to improve reflexive joint stabilization contractions and joint stability?

A

Balance stabilization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

When performing an exercise in the transverse plane, around which of the following axes does the movement occur?

A

Longitudinal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is the primary fuel for anaerobic ATP production for activities lasting 45-120 seconds?

A

45-120 seconds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Which is the most commonly injured ligament in the ankle?

A

Anterior talofibular

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What type of stretching helps improve soft tissue extensibility by taking the muscle to the point of tension and holding for 30 seconds?

A

Static

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

According to NCAA Division 1 bylaws, which ergogenic aids can be provided to athletes by a university?

A

Carbohydrate/electrolyte drinks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Training the muscle and tendon’s ability to load eccentrically and rapidly release energy concentrically is known as which of the following?

A

Stretch-shortening cycle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is a typical resting heart rate?

A

70 bpm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is a serious risk associated with blood doping?

A

Bacterial infections

28
Q

The transverse abdominis is best activated by performing which of the following exercises?

A

Prone iso-abs

29
Q

The quadratus lumborum, psoas major, external obliques, portions of the internal obliques, rectus abdominus, gluteus medius, and adductor complex are classified as which of the following?

A

Global core stabilizers

30
Q

When bracing is performed, what has been activated?

A

Global stabilization system

31
Q

Which of the following describes the motivational climate that has been proven to produce more adaptive motivational patterns, including positive attitudes and effective learning strategies?

A

Mastery-oriented

32
Q

Which programming is optimal for SAQ training in order to decrease fatigue and maximize effectiveness?

A

Completed on days in between strength training

33
Q

Which muscular system is predominantly involved in joint support and stabilization, and is not movement specific?

A

Local

34
Q

What refers to the training used to provide optimal dynamic joint support and maintain correct posture during all movements?

A

Stabilization

35
Q

If the squat jump exercise is performed with a 3-5 second hold upon landing, in which level of the OPT model does it belong?

A

Stabilization

36
Q

Which of the following techniques is critical for maintaining stability in the sacroiliac joint?

A

Drawing-in maneuver

37
Q

What is a contributor to subacromial impingement syndrome (SAIS)?

A

Bony deformity of the acromion

38
Q

What is the duration that the average athlete will spend training in Phase 2: Strength Endurance?

A

4 weeks

39
Q

What muscles are probably overactive when an athlete’s low back arches during an overhead squat assessment?

A

Hip flexor complex, erector spinae, latissimus dorsi

40
Q

What is true regarding casein?

A

80% of the proteins in milk

41
Q

If a coach removes cones from a W or box drill and replaces them with an auditory cue, which training is utilized?

A

Quickness

42
Q

Which nutrient becomes the dominant fuel source when athletes train and compete at 65% or greater of their VO2max?

A

Carbohydrates

43
Q

Which specialized strength exercise for speed improves hip flexion?

A

Resisted knee drive

44
Q

When performing an exercise in the transverse plane, which of the following motions is occuring?

A

Internal/external rotation

45
Q

Which answer is an example of how the continuum of function should be progressed?

A

Simple to complex

46
Q

Which integrated training variable utilizes tubing, cable machines, or dumbbells?

A

External resistance

47
Q

Supplementation of which nutrient has been shown to reduce the incidence of post-marathon upper respiratory infection in runners?

A

Beta-glucans

48
Q

Which grade is recommended in downhill running for assisted speed drills?

A

5-6%

49
Q

What is the principle that states that faster motor units with larger axons are recruited second when more force and power are needed?

A

Henneman’s size principle

50
Q

Which antioxidants play a role in balancing the oxidative stress produced by free radicals during exercise?

A

C, E, beta carotene, selenium

51
Q

What are plyometric-strength exercises designed to do?

A

Improve dynamic joint stabilization

52
Q

What happens to improve soft-tissue extensibility during self-myofascial release?

A

Autogenic inhibition

53
Q

Which types of training are known to improve speed, agility, and quickness by allowing greater force in less time?

A

Strength and power

54
Q

In which phase of a plyometric exercise must a muscle switch from overcoming force to producing it?

A

Amortization

55
Q

Which of the following techniques should a coach teach an athlete who struggles with physiological anxiety in pressure situations?

A

Breath control

56
Q

Which type of training overloads the stretch-shortening cycle to enhance neuromuscular efficiency, improve rate of force production, and reduce neuromuscular inhibition?

A

Plyometric

57
Q

Sports-specific, integrated, progressive, and systematic are characteristics of which type of program?

A

Functional

58
Q

Which muscle functions as a stabilizer while an athlete performs a bench press?

A

Rotator cuff

59
Q

During functional movements, which of the following is responsible for providing stabilization and eccentric control of the core?

A

Global stabilization system

60
Q

What impact will taking an antidepressant have on an athlete’s heart rate(HR)?

A

HR goes up

61
Q

What best describes an athlete training in a vertically loaded workout?

A

Performing one set for each muscle group, moving from upper to lower body, then repeating

62
Q

How likely is an athlete with a hamstring strain at risk to experience re-injury?

A

6-8 times

63
Q

The integrated performance paradigm states that in order to move with precision, forces must be loaded, stabilized, and unloaded in which order?

A

Loaded eccentrically, stabilized isometrically, unloaded concentrically

64
Q

What is a major benefit of the bent-knee achilles tendon stretch?

A

The gastrocnemius and the soleus are both stretched

65
Q
A