PRELIM-renal function Flashcards

1
Q

how many percent of blood that is pumped by the heart are being filtered by the kidney?

A

25%

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2
Q

Plasma filtrate must pass through three glomerular filtration
barrier cellular layers: the , the ___, and the ___

A

capillary wall membrane,
basement membrane (basal lamina)
visceral epithelium of
Bowman’s capsule.

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3
Q

The endothelial cells of the capillary wall differ from those in other capillaries by containing pores and
are referred to as ___.

A

fenestrated

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4
Q

In addition to the structure of the glomerular filtration bar
rier that prohibits the filtration of large molecules, the barrier
contains a ____ positive charge even though they are small enough to pass
through the three layers of the barrier

A

shield of negativity that repels molecules with a

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5
Q

example of a component being repelled by a shield of negativity

A

albumin

albumin (the primary protein associated with
renal disease) has a positive charge and would easily pass
through the barrier

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6
Q

what are the Factors influence the actual filtration process

A
  • Cellular structure of the capillary walls and bowman’s capsule
  • Hydrostatic and oncotic pressures
  • Feedback mechanisms of the renin angiotensin-aldosterone system
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7
Q

a part of glomerulus that is

o Containing pores and are referred to as fenestrated
o Pores increase capillary permeability but do not allow the passage of large molecules and blood cells

A
  • Capillary wall membrane
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8
Q

a part of glomerulus that is

o Restriction of large molecules occurs as the filtrate passes

A
  • Basement membrane
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9
Q

a part of glomerulus that is

o Thin membranes covering the filtration slits formed by the intertwining processes of the podocytes of the inner layer of bowman’s capsules

A
  • Visceral epithelium of bowman’s capsule
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10
Q
  • Prevent a marked decrease in blood flowing through the kidney, thus preventing an increase in the blood level of toxic waste products
A

Dilation of the afferent arterioles and constriction of the efferent arterioles

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11
Q

a mechanism of the arterioles managed by the juxtaglomerular apparatus
to prevent over-filtration or damage to the glomerulus

A

constriction of the afferent arterioles and the dilation of the efferent

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12
Q

regulates the flow
of blood to and within the glomerulus. The system responds
to changes in blood pressure and plasma sodium content that
are monitored by the juxtaglomerular apparatus

A

The renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system

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13
Q

what are the function of angiotensin II

A

: causing vasodilation of the afferent arterioles and constriction of the efferent arterioles
: stimulating reabsorption of sodium and water in the proximal convoluted tubules,
: triggering the release of the
sodium-retaining hormone aldosterone by the adrenal cortex
: Release of antidiuretic hormone from hypothalamus.

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14
Q

the action of ___ is to produce a constant pressure within the
nephron

A

angiotensin II

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15
Q

only difference between the compositions of the filtrate and the plasma is the __

A

absence of plasma protein, any protein-bound substances, and cells.

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16
Q

the specific gravity of a fluid leaving the glomerulus and stating that it is really an ultrafiltrate of the plasma is __

A

specific gravity of 1.010

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17
Q

what are the two/2 cellular mechanisms involved in tubular reabsorption

A

active transport and passive transport.

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18
Q

a cellular mechanism involved in reabsorption that needs a carrier protein contained in the membrane of the renal tubular epithelial cells

A

active transport

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19
Q

active transport is responsible in reabsorption of ____ in ____

A

glucose, amino acids, and salts in the proximal convoluted tubule,

chloride in the ascending loop of Henle,

sodium in the proximal and distal convoluted tubule.

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20
Q

passive transport is responsible in reabsorption of ____ in ____

A

WATER in Proximal convoluted tubule
Descending loop of Henle
Collecting duct

urea in Proximal convoluted tubule
Ascending loop of Henle

sodium in Ascending loop of Henle

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21
Q

the movement of molecules across a
membrane as a result of differences in their concentration or
electrical potential on opposite sides of the membrane

A

passive transport

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22
Q

what is it called to a physical differences in the concentration or electric potential on opposite sides of the membrane; related to passive transport

A

gradient

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23
Q

which part of the nephron is impermeable to water?

A

ascending loop of henle

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24
Q

if the concentration of the substances needed to be reabsorved reached the ___ the substances will appear on the urin

A

maximal reabsorptive capacity

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25
The plasma concentration at which active transport stops is termed the ___.
renal threshold
26
renal threshold for glucose
160-180 mg/dl
27
Glucose appearing in the urine of a person with a normal blood glucose level is the result of tubular damage and not diabetes mellitus. true or false
true
28
A non fasting patient with high glucose intake would not have a normal blood glucose. true or false
true
29
Renal concentration begins in the ___, where the filtrate is exposed to the high osmotic gradient of the renal medulla
descending and ascending loops of Henle
30
Water is removed by osmosis in the descending loop of Henle, and sodium and chloride are reabsorbed in the ascending loop. Excessive reab sorption of water as the filtrate passes through the highly con centrated medulla is prevented by the water-impermeable walls of the ascending loop. This selective reabsorption process is called the ___ and serves to maintain the osmotic gradient of the medulla
countercurrent mechanism
31
The final concentration of the filtrate through the reabsorption of water begins in the ___ and -__
late distal convoluted tubule and continues in the collecting duct
32
in collecting duct, A high level of ADH will what the permeability and what will happen to the urine concentration
A high level of ADH increases permeability, resulting in increased reabsorption of water, and a low-volume concentrated urine
33
what is the actual final determinant of urine volume and concentration?
chemical balance in the body
34
2 purpose of tubular secretion
eliminating waste products not filtered by the glomerulus regulating the acid–base balance in the body through the secretion of hydrogen ions.
35
The major site for removal of these nonfiltered substances/ or for the secretion is the ___
proximal convoluted tubule
36
ammonia is produced from the breakdown of the __
amino acid glutamine.
37
explain how bicarbonate ions are kept in the plasma and prevented from getting secreted by the hydrogen ions
the secretion of hydrogen ions (H+) by the renal tubular cells into the filtrate prevents the filtered bicarbonate from being excreted in the urine and causes the return of a bicarbonate ion to the plasma.
38
where does the hydrogen ions are secreted?
in the proximal convoluted tubule
39
aside from the distal convoluted tubule, which part of the nephron is able to secret ammonium ion as well?
collecting duct
40
A disruption in these secretory functions can result in ___, the inability to produce an acid urine.
metabolic acidosis or renal tubular acidosis
41
The standard tests used to measure the filtering capacity of the glomeruli are termed ___
clearance tests
42
In clearance test, A test that requires an infused substance is termed an ___ and is seldom the method of choice if a suitable test substance is already present in the body (____).
exogenous procedure; endogenous procedure
43
* Standard method for Glomerular Filtration Rate
Urea Clearance test
44
The earliest glomerular filtration tests measured urea because of its presence in all urine specimens and the existence of routinely used methods of chemical analysis.
urea clearance test
45
urea clearance test has how many percent of urea as its indication?
40%
46
was the original refer ence method for clearance tests,
inulin clearance test
47
a polymer of fructose, is an extremely stable sub stance that is not reabsorbed or secreted by the tubules. It is not a normal body constituent, however, and must be infused by IV at a constant rate throughout the testing period.
inulin cleareance test
48
2 types of infusion for inulin clearance test
priming dose and continuous infusion
49
give the concentration of each type of infusion for inulin clearance test
o Priming Dose: 25 mL of 10% Inulin Solution o Continuous Infusion: 500 mL of 1.5% Inulin Solution
50
reference values for inulin clearance test
 127 mL/min → Male  118 mL/min → Female
51
is a waste product of muscle metabolism that is pro duced enzymatically by creatine phosphokinase from creatine,
creatinine
52
Because creatinine is normally found at a relatively constant level in the blood,, it provides the laboratory with an endogenous procedure for evaluating glomerular function.
creatinine clearance test
53
Some creatinine is secreted by the tubules, and secretion increases as blood levels ___. increase or decrease
increase / rise
54
true or false . Bacteria will break down urinary creatinine if specimens are kept at room temperature for extended periods
true
55
Medications, including gentamicin, cephalosporins, and cimetidine (Tagamet), inhibit tubular secretion of creati nine, thus causing falsely low serum levels. true or false
true
56
Measurement of creatinine clearance is not a reliable indicator in patients suffering from MUSCLE-WASTING DISEASES or persons involved in heavy exercise or athletes SUPPLEMENTING with creatine. true or false
true
57
for creatine clearance test, Accurate results depend on the accurate completeness of __
a 24-hour collection.
58
GFR is reported in what units?
milliliters per minute (ml/mn)
59
whatis the most frequently used formula for ESTIMATED GLOMERULAR FILTRATION RATE or eGFR
Modification of Diet in Renal Disease (MDRD) study
60
significance of creatinine clearance test or cct
o Determines the functional Capacity of Nephrons o Determines the extent of nephron damage in known cases of renal disease o Monitor the effectiveness of treatment o Determine the feasibility of administering medications
61
reference values for creatinine clearance test
 107-139 mL/min → Male  87-107 mL/min → Female * Normal reference of plasma creatinine is 0.5-1.5 mg/dL
62
Measurement of serum ___ has been shown to provide a good procedure for screening and monitoring GFR
cystatin C
63
is a small protein (molecular weight 13,359) produced at a constant rate by all nucleated cells.
cystatin C
64
An advantage of cystatin C is that it is independent of muscle mass. true or false
true
65
Recent studies also have shown that measuring both serum or plasma ____ and __-- can provide even more accurate information on a patient’s GFR.6
cystatin C and creatinine
66
do we need fasting for the cystatin?
nope
67
diseases we can identfy elevated cystatin C?
Acute & Chronic Renal Failure, Diabetic Nephropathy
68
* Indirect estimate of GFR
cystatin C
69
* Dissociates from human leukocyte antigens at constant rate and is rapidly removed from plasma by glomerular filtration
beta 2 microglobulin
70
* A rise has been to be more sensitive indicator of decrease in GFR than creatinine clearance
beta microgolobulin
71
* Not reliable in patient who have history of immunologic disorder or malignancy
beta 2 microglobulin
72
a methos for beta - 2 microglobulin
enzyme immunoassay
73
It would monitor the high risk for renal disease such as patients with uncontrolled hypertension, patients who are diabetic; the most common complication of DM is Kidney Failure
estimated glomerular filtration rate or the eGFR
74
the ___ is often the first function affected in renal disease.
loss of tubular reabsorption capability
75
Tests to determine the ability of the tubules to reabsorb the essential salts and water that have been nonselectively filtered by the glomerulus are called ___
concentration tests
76
the ultrafiltrate that enters the tubules has a specific gravity of 1.010; therefore, after reabsorption one would expect the final urine product to be more CONCENTRATED true or false
true
77
___ measures only the number of particles in a solution,
osmolality
78
specific gravity is influenced by the number and ___ of the particles.
density (molecular weight)
79
___ is performed for a more accurate evaluation of renal concentrating ability
osmolality
80
stage 1 of GFR rate
kidney damage with normal or elevated GFR > or -- to 90
81
stage 2 of GFR rate
kidney damage with mild decrease of GFR 60-89
82
stage 3 of GFR
moderate decrease of GFR 30-59
83
stage 4 of GFR rate
severe decrease of GFR 15-29
84
stage 5 of decrease GFR
kidney failure lower than 15 <15 or dialysis
85
2 test we can conduct for the specific gravty
fishberg test and mosenthal test
86
a test in SG in which the patients are deprived of fluids for 24 hours prior to measuring SG
fishberg test
87
a test for SG in which it Compares volume and specific gravity of urine of day and night urine samples
mosenthal test
88
o Renal concentration is concerned with small particles, primarily ___
sodium and chloride molecules
89
* Large molecular-weight molecules such as __- and _-_ do not contribute to the evaluation of renal concentration
glucose and urea
90
Principle: Measurement of Dew point
VAPOR PRESSURE OSMOMETERS
91
* Temperature at which water vapor condenses to a liquid * Standard reference: NaCl
VAPOR PRESSURE OSMOMETERS
92
Temperature at which water and ice are in equilibrium and is related to solute concentration Standard Reference: NaCl
FREEZING POINT OSMOMETERS
93
_____ are used primarily to analyze serum and sweat microsamples for disorders NOT RELATED to renal function, such as cystic fibro sis. They are used primarily in the chemistry department.
Vapor pressure osmometers
94
disease we can use vapor pressure osmometer
cystic fibrosis
95
total renal blood flow through the nephron must be measured by a substance that is ___ rather than filtered through the glomerulus
secreted
96
The test most commonly associated with tubular secretion and renal blood flow is the ____
p-aminohippuric acid (PAH) test.
97
To measure the exact amount of blood flowing through the kidney, it is necessary to use a substance that is completely removed from the blood (plasma) each time it comes in contact with functional renal tissue
PAH Test
98
if the PAH wasn't able to be in ocntact with the fnctional renal tissue, it will be secreted in the ___
proximal convoluted tube
99
The inability to produce an acid urine in the presence of metabolic acidosis is called _____
renal tubular acidosis.
100
__are the measurements can be used to determine the defective function of tubular secretion primarily the proximal or distal convoluted tube
Urine pH, titratable acidity, and urinary ammonia
101