PREVMED 1 Flashcards
(224 cards)
1
Q
. Who establishes a Person in Charge (PIC) or is the PIC?
A
Food Service Establishment Manager
2
Q
What will the PIC demonstrate to the regulatory authority knowledge of?
A
- Foodborne disease prevention, application of Hazard Analysis Critical Control Point (HACCP) principles, and requirements of the Tri-service Food Code manual.
3
Q
What are the reportable symptoms
A
Vomiting
- Diarrhea
- Jaundice
- Sore throat WITH A FEVER
- A lesion containing pus such as a boil or an infected wound that is open or draining
4
Q
If someone has a reportable lesion, what are some interventions they can take that allows them to remain working
A
Impermeable cover such as a finger cot or stall protects the lesion and a single use glove is worn OVER the impermeable cover
4
Q
If someone has a reportable lesion, what are some interventions they can take that allows them to remain working
A
Impermeable cover such as a finger cot or stall protects the lesion and a single use glove is worn OVER the impermeable cover
5
Q
For someone who was diagnosed with Salmonella Typhi and working with a Highly Susceptible population (HSP) will you exclude or restrict them?
A
exclude
6
Q
. For someone diagnosed with an exposure to a Food Borne Illness and working with a non-hsp will they be excluded or restricted?
A
- *REMEMBER: Restricted means they can work in the galley still but not around food and Exclude is nowhere near the facility.**
- Restricted (For both HSP and non-HSP)
7
Q
If diagnosed with Shigella spp. and the person is asymptomatic and working in a HSP exclude or restrict?
A
Exclude (Restrict if non-hsp)
8
Q
If diagnosed with a sore throat and has a fever and working in a non-hsp?
A
Restrict (Exclude if HSP)
9
Q
. If someone has been diagnosed with HEP A and is attempting to remove exclusions, what must be provided?
A
PIC obtains approval from the REGULATORY AUTHORITY and one of the conditions has been met.
10
Q
For removing Salmonella (S. Typhi) exclusions how many stool samples must be provided?
A
3 negative stool samples
11
Q
For removing exclusions from a person diagnosed with Shigella spp. how many stool samples must be provided
A
2 Negative stool samples
12
Q
How long are you required to wash your hands?
A
At least 20 seconds in a designated hand washing sink
13
Q
After washing your hands, what are approved methods of drying?
A
Disposable paper towels OR heated hand dryers
14
Q
Alcohol based hand sanitizers shall contain a minimum of what percent of ethyl alcohol content?
A
60% and be used in accordance with label instructions
15
Q
What is the authorized finger nail length for food service workers?
A
1/4 inch
16
Q
What type of jewelry is authorized?
A
- Plain ring wedding band. May not wear jewelry on their arms and hands.
17
Q
Is recipe tasting authorized?
A
Yes, but the employee shall use a clean sanitized utensil and use only ONCE, Taste the food away from the food being cooked to avoid contamination
18
Q
What are the 5 CDC foodborne illness risk factors?
A
a. food from unsafe sources
b. inadequate cooking
c. improper holding/temp time
d. contaminated equipment/ cross contamination
e. poor personal hygiene.
19
Q
Refresher training for food employees must be conducted within 12 months of reporting but no earlier than how many days?
A
30 days
20
Q
How many hours of food sanitation refresher training is required?
A
4 hours
21
Q
Supervisor training is valid for what time period?
A
5 years max
22
Q
New food service employees shall receive a min. of 4 hours of initial food training within how many days of hire?
A
30 days
23
Q
Who maintains an original or a copy of a food employee certification document?
A
Maintained at the Food establishment where the employee works
24
What are the requirements for food presentation
Must be unadulterated and honestly presented
25
Who approves game animal ante-mortum and post-mortum?
Army Vet techs
26
How is package food labeled?
As specified in law
27
What is the temperature for receiving Refrigerated/temperature control foods?
41 degrees F (5C) or below
28
Raw eggs can be received at what temperature?
45 degrees F
29
TCS food that is cooked shall be received at what temperature?
135 degrees F
30
In regards to shellstock, on the harvesters tag or label what is the most important information that must be present?
- Harvesters ID #
| - Date of Harvesting
31
. How long is the harvesters tag or label kept on file?
90 days
32
What is the requirements for juice?
- Be obtained from a processor with a HACCP system
| - Must be obtained pasteurized
33
Who can approve bare hand contact with ready to eat foods?
- Regulatory Authority
| - Employees will minimize bare hand and arm contact with food that is not ready-to-eat
34
When disinfecting Fresh Fruit and Vegetables what are the solution requirements?
50 to 200 ppm Free available Chlorine (Sodium Hypochlorite) with a pH of 6.0-7.5
- Completely immerse for 1 minute
35
Cloths in use for wiping food spills from tableware and carry out containers that occur as food is being served in shall be?
Maintained dry and used for no other purpose
36
How often are dry cloths laundered?
Between uses and free from food debris and when visibly soiled
37
Cloths in use for wiping counters and other equipment surfaces shall be?
Held between uses in a chemical sanitizer solution
| - Laundered Daily
38
In regards to food storage how far off the ground is it required to be?
At least 6 inches
39
Define food borne illness
Illness carried or transmitted to people by food
40
Define Foodborne illness outbreak
An incident where two or more people experience the same illness after eating the same food
41
What is a foodborne infection
An illness caused by consuming food that contains living disease-causing organism
42
What is foodborne intoxication?
An illness caused by consuming foods containing a hazardous chemical or toxin
43
What bacteria cannot be destroyed
Spore forming bacteria
44
What bacteria is easily destroyed with cooking?
Non spore forming bacteria
45
What are some spore forming bacteria?
Clostridium perfringes
- Bacillus cereus
- Clostridium botulinum
46
What are the symptoms of clostridium botulinum and what foods is it commonly found in?
Dizziness, SOB, headache, double vision
| - Found in Canned foods
47
. What are some non-spore forming bacteria?
Campylobacter jujuni - commonly found in raw poultry/ raw milk
48
What is a toxin?
Naturally occurring biological toxins that are not caused by the presence of microorganisms
49
What is ciguatoxin caused by and what are the symptoms?
Fish toxin from toxic algae
| - Symptoms: Nausea, diarrhea, dizziness and SOB
50
What is the symptoms of scombroid?
Dizziness, rash, hives, SOB, peppery taste, itching, teary eyes
- Toxin originating from histamine released by fish
51
What are the top two risk factors of contracting a foodborne illness?
Improper holding temps
| - Poor personal hygiene
52
What are the three food safety hazards?
Biological, chemical and physical
53
What food safety hazard is most likely to cause a FBI?
Biological
54
What does FATTOM stand for
- Food, acidity, temperature, time, oxygen and moisture
| - These are the elements that disease causing bacteria need to multiply
55
What is the temperature danger zone?
- 41 degrees F to 135 degrees F
56
If TCS remain in the temperature zone for how many hours or longer, will microorganisms grow?
4 hours or longer
57
What are the four phases of bacterial growth?
Lag phase, log phase, stationary phase, and decline phase
58
What happens in the lag, log, stationary and decline phase?
Lag: bacteria exhibit little or no growth
- Log: Bacteria doubles
- Stationary: Number of new bacteria being produced equals the number of organisms that are dying off.
- Decline phase: Bacteria dies off quickly
59
What are the signs that frozen TCS foods have been thawed or frozen?
Ice crystals
- Wet packaging
- Product is discolored
60
How long can leftovers be retained and can they be frozen?
Up to 72 hours if chilled
| - Freezing is prohibiting
61
. What percentage of lead solder is authorized for contact with food?
less than 0.2 percent
62
Is the use of copper authorized with food contact?
Use in limitation
63
What is approved as food contact surfaces?
Stainless steel
64
Where will temperature measuring devices be placed?
Warmest part of a mechanically refrigerated unit
| - Coolest part of a hot food storage unit
65
When manually warewashing how many compartments shall be provided?
3 compartments
- Wash, rinse, sanitize
- 110F, 120F and 171F
66
Is the use of a two compartment sink authorized?
- If PIC has it approved by a regulatory authority
67
Any time a chemical sanitizer is used, what must be provided?
Testing kit that accurately measures the concentration in mg/L or ppm of sanitizing solutions and a temperature measuring device
68
For counter top or table mounted equipment what is the clearance?
at least 4 inches between the floor and equipment
69
Floor mounted equipment shall be how far from the deck?
6 inches above the floor and equipment
70
If foodservice equipment or utensils do not meet NSF international standards but are approved as specified, is serviceable and does not present a hazard. Who can approve the use?
Regulatory authority
71
. If iodine is used in warewashing equipment what temp. Should it be?
68 degrees
72
. How often are ice machines cleaned and sanitized?
at least every 30 days
73
How often is ice machine water and air filters replaced?
At least once every 6 months and documented in a log
74
How long can tongs remain on the serving line?
8 hours for consumer self service utensils
75
How often should ice tea dispensers be cleaned?
at least every 24 hours
76
After being cleaned, equipment food-contact surfaces and utensils shall be sanitized in what?
Hot water manual operations: 3rd sink, at least 30 seconds
| Mechanical wash: cycle through and achieve utensil surface temp of 160 degrees F
77
How often are wet-wiping cloths laundered?
Daily
Dry cloth- as needed to prevent contamination of food
78
What is the proper way to dry utensils?
Shall be air dried or used after adequate draining
79
Who ensures that the facility is testing the drinking water?
Medical authority or designated authority
80
Who is responsible for ensuring chlorine residual of bulk supplied potable water is tested and how often is bulk water tested?
Food service managers
| tested daily
81
What is the desired temperature range of a hand washing sink?
100F to 120F
82
What sign or poster shall be provided at all handwashing sinks used by food employees?
Hand washing sign
83
10 Foot candles are used in what spaces?
dry food storage areas
| walk-in fridge
84
20 foot candles are used in what areas?
handwashing
warewashing
toilet rooms
utensil storage
85
50 foot candles are used in what locations?
Where workers are working with knives, slicers, grinders, or saws
Where safety is a factor
86
What fire extinguisher is used to fight grease, gas, and solvents?
Red square B
87
How should wet mops be stored to dry?
Angled head down
88
What is the most common type of cockroach and how are they identified?
German
Strong oily odor
droppings appear like pepper
89
What fly is most likely to spread disease?
House fly
Proven carrier of E. Coli, Salmonella, shigella
90
What are the common problem moth and beetles
Saw tooth grain beetle
Rice weevil
Indian meal moth
91
Food service employees in a afloat, tactical, or deployed situation are considered to be non-HSP or HSP?
HSP
92
who develops the medical screening policy
senior surgeon (command surgeon)
93
What distance should a food service facility be away from latrines, water storage, and disposal areas?
300 feet or 100 yards
94
What distance from sleeping areas and bodies of water is a food service facility?
90 feet or 30 yards
95
Where is camo paint not authorized?
Preparing food
washing or sanitizing food equipment
performing kitchen patrol duties
96
Define what color additive is
dye, pigment, or other substance by a process of synthesis or similar artifice or extracted or isolated or other wise derrived from a vegetable, animal, mineral, or other source.
97
What is a cross connection?
physical link through which contaminates from non-potable sources can enter through a potable water supply
98
What is dd form 2972
food facility risk assessment survey
99
what is dd form 2973
food operation inspection report
100
what is dd form 2974
tactical kitchen inspection report
101
what is dd form 2971?
conditional employee or food employee reporting agreement
102
What are the 5 types of inspection
```
pre-operational
routine inspection
follow-up inspection
compliant inspection
walkthrough inspection
```
103
what are the inspection ratings?
Fully compliant
Substantially compliant: no IHH and two or less critical COS and five or less non critical
Partially: No IHH, 3+ Critical COS, 6+ non critical
Non-Compliant: IHH present; any critical not COS
104
What do capitalized words mean?
Alert the reader to the fact that there is a specific meaning to those words
105
What does italicized words mean?
Provisions are not requirements
106
How is critical identified?
with an asterisk *
107
how is non-critical identified?
Bold Superscripted N
108
What does Shall mean
Act is imperative
109
What does may not mean
Absolute prohibition
110
what does may mean
permissive and act is allowed
111
what does should mean
Action is recommended
112
What is a vector
any arthropod or rodent capable of transmitting disease to individuals
113
what is a host?
individual potentially susceptible to illnes
114
what is a reservoir
acts as an INTERMEDIATE HOST
115
What is a pesticide?
any substance or mixture of substances that kill pests
116
What are the functions of a Navy entomologist
onsite consultation
technical assistance
recommendation
117
What is DOD Directive 4150.07
Dept. of Defense Pest management program
118
What instruction provides Navy and USMC policies and procedures for implementing pest management programs
OPNAVINST 6250.4C
119
What is the shipboard pest control MANUAL?
NAVMED P-5052-26
120
Who is responsible for standardizing pesticide and equipment recommended by BUMED for use aboard ship
NAVSEASYSCOM
121
Who is responsible for monitoring and evaluating shipboard pest management programs
BUMED
121
Who is responsible for monitoring and evaluating shipboard pest management programs
BUMED
122
Who is responsible for procuring approved pest control supplies and equipment
SMDR
123
What are the three DOD pesticide standards?
Restricted (Trained)
Non-restricted (No training)
Nonstandard pesticides
124
Insecticides can be divided into what categories
adulticide
larvicide
ovicide (egg)
125
The pesticide Organophosphate consist of what two common types
malathion
| dursban
126
What types of synthetics are common?
Pyrethroids
| d-Phenothrin
127
What is FIFRA
Federal insecticide, fungicide and rodenticide act of 1972
128
What warning statement has an antidote statement on it and is highly toxic?
Danger
129
All pesticides must bear the words _____
Keep out of reach of children
130
When using respirators, when will you change the canister
8 hours of use or when pesticide can be smelled
4 hours during heavy spraying
131
What type of goggles will be worn when working with pesticides
unvented or indirectly vented goggles
or
face shield
132
What kind of boots will be worn
rubber
133
What bait station pesticides are authorized for use
Combat quick kill
| avert bait station
134
What aerosol pesticides are authorized
```
Permethrin
Perma-dust
D-Phenothirn
PT 565 Plus XO
PT 22
PT Crack and crevice
CB Air devil
CB D-force
```
135
What pesticides are growth regulators
Gentrol Point source
136
organophosphates causes IRREVERSIBLE cholinesterase inhibition, what are the signs and symptoms
Mild: headache, dizziness, weakness, anxiety, miosis (pupil constriction) nausea and visual impairment
Moderate: Nausea, salivation lacrimation, abdominal cramps, slow pulse, resp. compromise, and muscle tremors
Severe: Pinpoint non reactive pupils, pulmonary edema, muscle spasms, LOSS OF Sphincter CONTROL , coma and eventual death
137
Carbamate poisonings are reversible but what are some signs and symptoms
pupil constriction, salivation, profuse sweating, lassitude, muscle incoordination
138
What is 2 PAM contraindicated with?
Carbamate poisoning
139
What are the minimum requirements for a spill kit
```
absorbent material
shovel
leak-proof barrel
detergent and water or chlorine bleach
Appropriate PPE
```
140
In the event of a pesticide spill what is the number one priority
Confine the pesticide
141
Shipboard pest control is documented in TWO places, in SAMS and a separate pest control log. What is in the pest control log?
```
Material inventory
Pierside/onboard inspection
Ship sanitation control exemption certificate/ Ship sanitation control cert (SSCEC/SSCC)
Courtesy tech assist visits
Pesticide use
```
142
What form will you send monthly to NECE via email?
e-DD1532-1
143
What is Pediculus Humanus Humanus?
Body louse
nit attach to clothing and undergarments
144
What is pediculus humanus capitis
Head louse
145
what is pthirus pubis and where is it found
Crab louse
Found in hairs of pubis, anal region and eyebrows
146
What is the treatment for lice
elimite
| Family members treated simultaneously
147
What temp will you wash clothing infected with lice at?
37.8C or 100F or higher as it greatly reduces eggs from hatching
148
How can you identify an American Cockroach?
yellow posterior border stripe
149
What is the control method for cockroaches
Sanitation
150
How often will you survey food service areas for cockroach
every two weeks by using sticky traps
151
After a space has been treated with a pesticide, how long will you wait until you wipe surfaces areas
24 hours
152
What pest has a greyish band across the upper 1/3 of their reddish brown wings and is known for moth larvae spinning silk webbing
indian meal moth
153
What are flour beetles also known as
Tribolium
154
What beetle is medically important due to their outside hairs causing intestinal trauma, eye irritation, dermatitis and allergic reaction
Dermestid (Khapra)
155
What beetle can live for several years without food?
Dermestid (Khapra)
156
What is the most commonly found stored products pest aboard ship
saw tooth grain beetle
157
What is the most destructive pest
rice weevil
158
What are some food items with high insect infestation potential
Grain type food items
Dry mix
Flour
dry foods
159
how often are routine inspections conducted by medical
monthly
160
____ weeks at ____ degrees F is required to kill all stages of insects
2 weeks at 0F
161
Which fly vomits on food and laps it up?
house fly
162
What is the most widely distributed insect of importance to mankind?
house fly
163
How long does the pupa stage of the house fly last?
usually 4-5 days
164
What are the identifiable characteristics of blow fly?
Identifiable by their large metallic shining blue or green abdomens
165
Which fly do only females have piercing mouth parts for sucking blood
sand fly
166
Which fly folds their wings in a scissor-like fashion?
TSE TSE
167
Fly in which both genders are bloodsuckers
TSE TSE
168
Which fly causes Onochocerciasis (river blindness)?
BLACK FLY
169
Which fly causes anthrax and tularemia?
HORSE OR DEER FLY
170
Which fly has a short flight range?
SAND FLY
171
Which mosquito has Lyre-shaped silver-white lines on the thorax
Aedes Aegypti
172
Which mosquito lays eggs singly on the side of containers at or above the waterline?
Aedes Aegypti
173
13. Which mosquito transfers malaria
Anopheles
174
14. Which mosquito transfers Yellow Fever
Aedes Aegypti
175
Which mosquito lays eggs in rafts of 100 or more
Culex
176
Which mosquito lays eggs singly on the water surface and supported by lateral floats?
ANOPHELES
177
House Fly Disease transmissions
many disease organisms or cause myiasis
178
blow fly disease transmission
Larvae (surgical maggots) may cause myiasis
179
sand fly disease transmission
i. Bacterial (Bartonella)
ii. Viral (Sand Fly or pappataci fever)
iii. Protozoal (leishmaniasis)
180
TSE TSE fly disease transmission
i. Capable of transmitting Trypanosomiasis
181
Horse fly or deer fly disease transmission
i. Bacterial (Anthrax or Tularemia
ii. Protozoan (Trypanosomiasis)
iii. Helminthic (Loa Loa) infections. Loiasis or African Eye Worm
182
Aedes Aegypti disease transmission
i. Dengue Fever
ii. Yellow Fever
iii. Tularemia
iv. Filarial Nematodes
183
what mosquito causes malaria
Anopheles
184
what mosquito causes Encephalomyelitis
culex
185
Fleas are what type of parasite?
Ectoparasites
186
What flea is the exception, burrowing into the skin of its host, particularly between the toes, under toe nails, and tender part of feet?
Chigoe Flea
187
Oriental rat fleas is chief vector of what disease
a. Bubonic plague
| b. Flea borne typhus
188
If building is infested how high do you spray
2 feet
189
To prevent entry into structures how high do you spray
2-3 feet
190
Which tick has a Scutum
hard ticks
191
Which tick does NOT have Scutum
soft ticks
192
what diseases are caused by hard ticks
a. Lyme Disease
b. Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever (Tick Typhus)
c. Tick-Borne Rickettsioses of Eastern Hemisphere
193
Which tick causes a bacterial infection that causes a reoccurring fever
soft tick
194
What is the best control method for ticks
clear vegetation from infested areas
195
Scabies is also known as
itch mite
causes intense itching and occasionally erythema
196
mite larva has how many legs
6 legs
197
nymph and adult stage mites have how many legs
8 legs
198
What is the treatment of mites parasitic on man
elimite
| heat sterilization of clothing and bedding
199
where does the itch mite burrow
Burrows in horny layer of the dermis
200
Bedbugs are what type of feeders
nocturnal
201
What can bedbugs affect?
Annoying and can seriously affect morale
202
Where do bedbugs hide
in seams of mattresses
203
Where will I apply my pesticides
a. Sides and seams of the mattresses.
b. Racks.
c. Corners of bunks.
d. Empty lockers.
204
What is the most common type of rat
Rattus Norvegicus
Norway rat
205
Which rat has a shorter tail than the head and body combined
Rattus Norvegicus
206
What is the Rattus Norvegicus preferred food?
garbage, meat, fish, veggies, fruit, and ceral
207
What rat is frequently found on ships
Rattus Rattus
Roof Rat
208
What is the preferred food of the rattus rattus?
seeds, cereals, veggies, fruits, grass, leather goods and even weaker members of its own kind
209
What is the smallest of domestic rodents
House mouse
210
What is the largest rodent
norway rat
211
What is the home range of the house mouse
10- 30 feet
212
For all rodents what are some approved and not authorized control methods
Approved: traps
Not authorized: Rodenticides
213
What is the minimum diameter of rat guards
36 INCHES
214
How far away from the pier and how far away from vessel will the rat guard be placed
6 feet from pier
2 feet from ship
215
The rat guard cone should face which direction
point of cone, faces the ship
216
BUMEDINST 6210.4
SHIP SANITATION CERTIFICATE PROGRAM REQUIREMENTS
217
All current Ship sanitation control exemption/ ship sanitation control certificate is required for?
Environmental Health surveys (EHS)
Medical readiness evaluation (MRE)
Entering foreign ports
218
How long is the ship sanitation control exemption/ ship sanitation control certificate valid for>
6 months may be extended once for one month BY THE ORGINAL ISSUER
219
What personnel are authorized to issue SSCE/SSCC
Prevmed- Tech
WITH NMCPHC prior approval the following may be authorized as an inspector
220
What is NAVMED 6210/1
US Ship sanitation control exemption/ Ship sanitation control certificate
221
What is NAVMED 6210/3
Declaration of Health Certificate
222
Who maintains SSCE/SSCC
Medical Department
