Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

IDC School > UNIT 4 MED ADMIN > Flashcards

UNIT 4 MED ADMIN Flashcards

1
Q

What is the purpose of a medical treatment record?

A

A chronological record of medical treatment afforded members of the naval service

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

When is a medical record typically opened?

A

At MEPS, upon entry to regular or reserve naval service

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

When is a dental record opened?

A

At the first appointment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What form is used to request medical/dental records?

A

DD form 877

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is the name of the place you request records from?

A

National Personnel Records Center

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Is a new record created when a midshipman or enlisted member commissions?

A

No, just make necessary grade changes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What do you do and fill out when someone commissions?

A

Keep record
SF 600
NAVMED 6150/4 > Include date, place and grade appointed.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

When do you close a medical record?

A

In summary, When someone is not coming back to work.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Who is in charge of medical records?

A

The commanding officer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Who has custodial authority of medical records?

A

The SMDR/SMO

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

How many days can someone be UA before their record is sent to PSD?

A

10 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What do you do with a record upon member transferring?

A

Verify

Fill out NAVMED 6150/7 “Charge out”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the NAVMED 6150/7?

A

Pink Card

Medical record charge out

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

How long is the NAVMED 6150/7 maintained for?

A

1 year

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What do you do if a medical record is lost or missing?

A
  • Fill out a NAVPERS 1070/613 documenting the circumstances
  • Write “REPLACEMENT” on newly created record
  • SF 600 documenting the circumstances of the new record
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What do you do with the replacement record if the original is found?

A

Insert the replacement into the original

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What are the actions that should be taken if a record is destroyed?

A
  • “DUPLICATE” is written on duplicated items

- SF 600 documenting the circumstances

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

How are medical records filed?

A

Terminal digit filing system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

When is a medical record verified?

A
  • Upon check in
  • annually
  • At time of physical exam
  • When member transfers
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is written on a NAVMED 6150/7?

A

Members prefix code and SSN
Members Name
Ship/Station

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Signatures in record must be_______

A

Identifiable; not legible

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is DD form 2766 and where is it filed in the medical record?

A

Adult preventative and chronic care flow sheet

Part 1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is NAVMED 6230/4? Where is it filed?

A

Immunization Record

Part 1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is NAVMED 6000/2

A

Chronological record of HIV testing

PART 1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is DD Form 2215

A

Reference Audiogram

Part 1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is DD form 2216

A

Hearing Conservation data

Part one

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is OPNAV 5100/15?

A

Medical surveillance questionnaire

Part 1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is SF 600?

A

Chronological Record of Medical Care

Part 2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What is SF 513?

A

Consultation sheet

Part 2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is SF 509?

A

Progress notes

Part 2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What is SF 522?

A

Request for administration of anesthesia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What is DD form 2005?

A

Privacy act statement

Part 2 - preprinted

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What is NAVMED 1300/1?

A

Medical, Dental, and Educational Suitability Screening for Service and Family Members

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

what is NAVMED 1300/2?

A

Medical, Dental, and Educational Suitability Screening for Service and Family Members Checklist and Worksheet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

what is NAVPERS 1300/16?

A

Report of Suitability for Overseas Assignment Parts I, II, and III

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What is DD form 2808

A

Report of medical examination

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What is DD form 2807-1?

A

Report of medical history

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What is NAVMED 6150/4?

A

Abstract of Service and Medical History

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What is the required entries for Hypersensitivity/Allergies?

A

NAVMED 6230/4 - Immz record under remarks and recommendations

Placing “X” on front of medical record

SF 600 entry of the hypersensitivity/allergy to the drug or chemical

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What is the form dental uses for hypersensitivities/allergy?

A

EZ 603/603A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What is the purpose of a medical warning tag?

A

To recognize special health problems when:
Medical records are not available
Patient is unable to give medical history

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What is dental class 1?

A

(white)
Individuals having no pathological oral conditions and requiring no treatment

Exam and cleaning is completed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What is dental class 2?

A

(green)

Individuals with minor pathological oral conditions for which early clinical treatment is indicated

Exam done, cleaning is needed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What is dental class 3?

A

Yellow

Individuals with pathological oral conditions for which early clinical treatment is indicated

Non-deployable, dental condition that could become an emergency within the next 12 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What is dental class 4?

A

Red

Individuals whose classification is unknown because they have not received an oral examination by a Dental Officer within the past 12 months or for whom no dental record exists.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What chapter of MANMED do we reference for medical records?

A

16

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What is the largest article we use in MANMED chapter 16?

A

Article 23

16-23 is most useful

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

If a member is seen at the VA what are we going to do with their records?

A

A VA only gets a copy

Record is maintained at their MTF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

How do you make a correction in a medical record?

A

One line and initial

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What is NAVMED 6224?

A

TB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Key personnel responsible for administrating and supervising the execution of the privacy act

A

Navy - CNO who is also the secretary for the SECNAV

Marines- Commandant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What is HIPAA?

A

Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Who is authorized to release medical information?

A

officials having cognizance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What is the OPNAV 5211/9

A

Record of disclosure. Used in an investigation/ NCIS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Who is responsible for providing documentation (proof) to amend a record?

A

the individual

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

When amending a record what is the time line?

A

10 working days = acknowledgment

30 working days = completed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What is the maximum criminal penalty for a violation of the Privacy act?

A

Three criminal penalties are authorized against individuals for violation of the Privacy Act
All three are misdemeanors punishable by fines up to $5,000
Courts may also award civil penalties

  • no jail time
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

HIPPA violation criminal penalties

A

Wrongful disclosure of individually identifiable health information includes the following penalties:
Fine of $50,000 and up to one-year imprisonment, or both
If committed under false pretenses, a fine of not more than
$100,000 and up to five years imprisonment, or both
If the wrongful conduct involves the intent to sell, transfer, or use individually identifiable health information for commercial advantage, personal gain, or malicious harm; a fine of not more than $250,000 and up to ten years imprisonment, or both

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

If a person does not sign the privacy act statement what do you do?

A

SF 600

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

What is the purpose of the 3M program?

A

managing maintenance and maintenance support to help achieve maximum equipment operational readiness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

What are the objectives of the 3M program?

A 
standardization
efficiency
documentation
analysis 
configuration status accounting
scheduling
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

What does the 3M system NOT apply to?

A

does not apply to nuclear propulsion plants and associated test equipment, fleet ballistic missile systems, or aeronautical support equipment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Who has OVERALL responsibility of the 3M program?

A

The CO

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Who is the 3M MANAGER?

A

The XO

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Who is the 3M FUNCTIONAL MANAGER?

A

3-M System Coordinator

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Who can be a 3-M System Coordinator?

A

This is a primary duty for an officer, CPO, or senior PO1, who has been assigned a secondary NEC of 9517; 3-MC is the ship’s subject matter expert in all aspects of the 3-M system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

What is the Dept. Head responsibility in 3M?

A

Effective operation of the department

Reviews and signs cycle and quarterly cycles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

What is the responsibility of the DLCPO in 3M?

A

Shall be accountable to the department head

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

What is the division officers responsibility in 3M?

A

Responsible to the Department Head and will be qualified in the 3-M System; the Division Officer assists in managing the maintenance required for the equipment within division responsibility

Reviews and approves the weekly schedules, conducts weekly spot checks to ensure maintenance is being properly performed, ensures the departmental quarterly schedule is updated weekly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

What is the WCS responsibility in 3M?

A

The senior person will be designated as the work center supervisor and are responsible for the effective operation of the 3-M system within the work Center

This responsibility shall not be delegated to subordinate maintenance personnel

Schedules weekly work center maintenance and supervises its proper accomplishment

Maintains a detailed working knowledge of all equipment deficiencies within the work center maintains all documentation and files applicable to the 3-M system within the work center

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

What is the responsibility of the Maintenance person in 3M?

A

Responsible to the work center supervisor; perform assigned scheduled maintenance requirements as indicated by the weekly schedule and promptly notify the work center supervisor of the status of maintenance including any problems encountered in its performance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

What is the difference between preventative and corrective Maintenance?

A

Preventative: prevent or discover functional failures

Corrective: actions taken to fix equipment that have failed, or are not working to design specifications

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

What is the PMS Manual also known as?

A

43P1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

What is in a PMS Manual or 43P1?

A

lists of effective pages (LOEP’s), MIP’s and MRC’s that apply to the work center

It is designed to provide a ready reference of planned maintenance requirements for the work center supervisor, and should be retained in the work area

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

What does the LOEP provide listings of?

A

maintenance index pages

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

What does the MIP identify?

A

Identifies the system, subsystem, or component involved and gives a brief description of each maintenance requirement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

What does the MRC provide?

A

Provides detailed guidance for accomplishing each maintenance requirement

Each MRC explains how to perform the maintenance task in terms that everyone should understand and list tools and materials needed for the job

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

What color of stock paper is a classified MRC printed on?

A

Pink

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

When several identical components are covered by one MRC what is used?

A

an equipment guide list (EGL)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

What does the EGL contain?

A

The EGL contains:
Controlling MRC code
Name of the components concerned and serial number if applicable
Location of each component

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

What is a Feedback Report (FBR) used for?

A

Used by shipboard personnel to notify Fleet Technical Support Centers (FTSCLANT/FTSCPAC) or the Type Commander (TYCOM) on matters related to PMS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

What are the 3 types of feedback reports?

A

Category A, Category B and Urgent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

What are the 3 types of feedback reports?

A

Category A, Category B and Urgent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

What does a Category A feedback report mean?

A

Non-technical in nature

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

What does a Category B FBR mean?

A

Technical in nature
- submitted by the ship’s 3M coordinator for the following:
Technical discrepancies inhibiting PMS performance
Notification of shift of maintenance responsibilities
TYCOM assistance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

What does a URGENT feedback report mean?

A

Safety of personnel
Safety of ship
Potential for damage to equipment and relates to the technical requirements of PMS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

What is the Allowance parts list?

A

Identification of PMS part requirements in the Navy supply system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

What is the Current Ship’s Maintenance Project (CSMP)?

A

A detailed or summary listing of deferred maintenance information; a management tool for guiding the accomplishment of repairs in the work center

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

What is the equipment status log? (ESL)

A

Used to verify the status of all equipment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

What is the Allowance Equipment list? (AEL)

A

All equipage items and any other special tools/materials not covered under other categories will be supported through the AEL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

What is COSAL?

A

Coordinated Shipboard Allowance List (COSAL)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

What is listed in the COSAL?

A

Lists the following:

  • Equipment installed on a ship to perform its operational mission
  • Repair parts and special tools required for the overhaul and repair of equipment
  • The items and consumables necessary for the safety, care, and upkeep of the ship
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

What is the standard pms item name? (SPIN)

A

A numbering system used for tools, parts, material, and test equipment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

what is Standard PMS Materials Identification Guide (SPMIG)?

A

A reference guide which lists the SPIN and has the corresponding stock number identification (NSN)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

What does the periodicity code R mean?

A

Situational

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

How long do you maintain weekly maintenance schedules?

A

13 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

What is the purpose of the suitability screening program?

A

Determines suitability for overseas, remote or operational assignments by identifying “special needs”

Match needs to capability of local medical, dental, school and community facilities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

What is considered reasonable travel time?

A

2 hours one way by land

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

What instruction governs the suitability screening program?

A

BUMEDINST 1300.2B as of 23 JUN 06

if it has 1300 its suitability

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

What is the responsibility of the MTF in the suitability screening process

A

Provides a suitability recommendation to transferring command

Does medical/dental/educational screening

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

What responsibility does BUMED have regarding the Suitability Screening Program?”

A

Prescribe procedures for medical, dental, and educational screening
Monitor the execution of screening procedures
Determine the cause and institute corrective action for screening deficiencies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

what is the responsibilities of the SSC (suitability screening coordinator)

A

Designated by MTF commander
Coordinates suitability screening process
Performs paperwork review/preliminary screening
Refers to MTF/DTF staff for screenings
Forwards suitability inquiry to gaining MTF
Provides recommendation to transferring command
As required, coordinates to NAVPERSCOM, PSD, HRO, etc…

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

what is the purpose of the EFM program?

A

Assist SM in providing for the special needs of their EFM before, during, and after relocation required by change of duty assignments

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

What is the instruction governing the EFM program?

A

EFM is a mandatory program governed by the OPNAVINST 1754.2C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

What is the enrollment criteria for EFMP?

A

Family member with long term or chronic medical, psychological, or educational needs
Enrolled in DEERS
Resides with sponsor
Exception: Geo-Bachelor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

what is category I of EFMP?

A

Monitoring Purposes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

what is category II of EFMP?

A

Pinpoint overseas assignment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

what is category III of EFMP?

A

No overseas assignment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

What is category IV?

A

Assignments near major medical facilities INCONUS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

what is category V?

A

Homestead

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

What is category VI?

A

Temporary Category

112
Q

Who are EFMP recommendations forwarded to?

A

Recommendations are forwarded to Chief, Navy Personnel Command (CNPC) for final disposition

113
Q

What are some misconceptions of EFMP?

A

Choice assignments will be denied
No overseas assignment
No sea duty assignment
Member is restricted to Norfolk, VA and San Diego, CA

114
Q

How often does a file have to be updated to EFM?

A

Update file every 3 years, 12 months prior to receiving orders, or as family needs change.

115
Q

What does S mean in a scheduling report?

A

Semiannually

116
Q

What are some reasons for disenrollment of EFMP?

A
  • sufficiently recovered from impairment
  • Divorced or legally separated
  • EFM dies
  • EFM no longer resides in home, or is no longer DEERS eligible
117
Q

What is the commanding officers responsibility in regards to pregnant service women, professionally?

A

a) Must ensure that the pregnant servicewoman retains a high degree of commitment to fulfill professional responsibilities.
(b) Ensure no preferential treatment shall be given because of
pregnancy status.
(c) Not harassed

118
Q

When does a pregnant SM need to be off ship?

A

20 weeks

119
Q

Whats some restrictions of a pregnant SM 28 weeks and beyond?

A

Allowed to rest 20 minutes every four hours

Limited to 40-hour workweek (over 7 days, not 5) including
watch standing. A pregnant Service member may request a
waiver through their CO and OB provider if the desire to waive
this time restriction.

120
Q

when can a pregnant SM no longer fly?

A

28 weeks

121
Q

How long is con-leave after delivery?

A

Post-delivery convalescent leave of 12 weeks will normally be
granted by the servicewoman’s Commanding Officer

122
Q

What are the 3 disposition of remains programs?

A

current
graves registration
concurrent

123
Q

How soon after death does PNOK need to be notified?

A

within 24 hours

124
Q

What is the decedent affairs instruction?

A

BUMEDINST 5360.1 series

125
Q

Who is the official responsible for the administration of decedent affairs program?

A

Commander, Naval Military Personnel Command

126
Q

who is the officials responsible for directing the disposition of unidentified remains

A

Commander, Naval Medical Command (MEDCOM-332) directs disposition of unidentified remain

127
Q

How should remains be properly refrigerated?

A

Remains should be refrigerated above the freezing point at 36-40 degrees Fahrenheit (2.2-4.4 degrees Celsius) for short periods of time pending arrival in port or the arrival of an embalmer

128
Q

What are the casket requirements for a burial at sea?

A 
metal
A minimum of 20 holes, 2 inches diameter is placed in the casket to permit rapid entry of seawater.
a) 8 in base
b) 4 in each half of the lid
c) 2 in each end
129
Q

When casket and remains weigh less than _____ you should use weights

A

300 pounds

130
Q

How many nylon bands are placed on the lid of the casket?

A

5

2 on each half of the lid
1 length wise

131
Q

What is DD form 2992?

A 
Medical Recommendation for Flying or Special
Operations Duty (Aeromedical)
132
Q

what is the purpose of the DD form 2992?

A

notify the commanding officer or officer in
charge and other designated individuals that the named aircrew member is no longer
medically recommended for flying duties

133
Q

What are some reasons for a grounding notice?

A

a) Personnel admitted to the sick list
(b) Those who are hospitalized
(c) Personnel determined to have a medical problem that could impair performance of duties involving flight
d)Administration of routine immunizations, which require temporary grounding, does not require issuance of an Aeromedical Grounding
Notice

134
Q

who receives copies of “down chits”?

A

a) The original goes to the Commanding Officer or Officer in Charge
(b) First copy goes to the Operations Officer
(c) Second copy is for the Training Officer
(d) Additional copies should be made for the Service Member

135
Q

who may issue Aeromedical Clearance Notices?

A

is the responsibility of the aviation trained medical officers (Flight Surgeons or Aviation Medical Examiners).

136
Q

The following publication and directives cover units and locations
without aviation trained medical officers

A

NAVMED P-117, Manual of the Medical Department (MANMED) Chapter
15, Physical Examinations and Standards for Enlistment, Commission, and
Special Duty
2) BUMEDINST 6410.9 - Medical Monitoring Flight Personnel in Locations
where Flight Surgeons are not Available
3) OPNAVINST 3710.7T - NATOPS General Flight and Operating Instructions,
Chapter 8, Aeromedical and Survival
4) These directives specify that the authority to issue an Aeromedical Clearance
Notice may be given to an IDC, physician assistant, or non-aviation trained
medical officer under specific guidelines

137
Q

When aircrew personnel are unable to meet required physical standards for periods exceeding ______ days, an aviation physical examination shall be completed. A typed DD 2808 with appropriate consultations and flight surgeon recommendations shall be forwarded to NAVOPMEDINST DET
NAVAEROMEDINST (Code 342) for review and recommendation to BUPERS or CMC as appropriate.

A

60 days

138
Q

what has to be approved by congress in regards to decedent affairs

A

return of remains

139
Q

what program designates a CACO?

A

casualty assistance call program

140
Q

What geographical area designates a CACO?

A

PNOK area

141
Q

What is the rank of a CACO?

A

Officer or experienced senior enlisted

142
Q

What is the purpose of the decedent affairs program?

A

high standards and uniformity

143
Q

who is the causality assistance call program ran through

A

chief of naval personnel

144
Q

What is the major difference between primary and secondary expenses

A

Primary- for the deceased

Secondary- for the family

145
Q

what uniform is the service member buried in and who provides those uniform items?

A

dress blues

navy will cover cost of blues, shoes, cover, and ribbons (whole thing)

146
Q

What is DD form 2064?

A

Certificate of Death (overseas)

147
Q

What form is used when grounding aviation personnel?

A

DD form 2992 (Aeromedical)

148
Q

Who may issue a grounding notice

A

Any medical personnel.

HM
Nurses
IDC
etc

149
Q

Where is a grounding notice noted at in the medical record?

A

Special duty medical abstract

NAVMED 6150/2

150
Q

Why would a grounding notice be issued?

A

person admitted to sick list
person who is hospitalized
person determined to have a medical problem that could impair duties
Admin of routine vaccines does not require a grounding notice but the member is temporarily grounded.

151
Q

When issuing a down chit where do the copies go?

A

CO or OIC gets original
Ops
Training officer

additional copies are given to the patient and other personnel as needed

152
Q

How long is a down chit issued for?

A

until member has been examined by a flight surgeon and issued an Up chit

153
Q

Who can issue an up chit

A

Flight surgeon

IDC, non-qualified MO if no flight surgeon is available but communication must be established with a flight surgeon before issuing the member an up chit.

154
Q

if the BAS or Sick bay is detached from the squadron and a down chit has been issued, what would you do?

A

Give the CO, XO, & OPS a courtesy call

155
Q

How often does aviation personnel need to be evaluated?

A

Annually and must be physically qualified and aeronautically adapted for continued aviation duties

156
Q

When must air crew personnel be evaluated by a flight surgeon?

A

following any period of medical grounding

157
Q

What is an exception to air crew personnel not needing to see a flight surgeon following a medical grounding?

A

The self limited grounding notice issued by a dental officer

158
Q

What instructions can you find information for aviation physical standards?

A

NAVMED P-117

MANMED CH. 15

159
Q

What publications and directives cover units and locations without trained medical officers?

A
  • NAVMED P-117
  • BUMEDINST 6410.9
  • OPNAVINST 3710.7V
160
Q

If an aircrew member is taking medication, can they be issued an up-chit?

A

Not without concurrence from the flight surgeon

161
Q

How long is a copy of physical exams kept on file for?

A

3 years by the facility

162
Q

When does the periodic exam expire for aviation personnel?

A

The last day of the members birth month

163
Q

What time period does the aviation mishap statement have to cover?

A

last 72 hours

164
Q

What lab specimens have to be obtained? (What color tube and how many?)

A

2 grey tubes
2 purple tubes
3 red tubes
urine sample containing at least 75 ml

165
Q

When obtaining labs following an aviation mishap, what should you NOT do?

A

use an alcohol swab

166
Q

Can an aircrew member take over the counter medications and still remain in a flight status?

A

No

167
Q

if an aircrew member is taking an approved antibiotic when can they be considered for an “up-chit”?

A

Prior to course completion if symptoms have resolved.

168
Q

What directives are used in medical supply?

A

COMNAVSURFORINST 6000.1

NAVSUP P-485

169
Q

Upon assuming duty, in regards to supply, the SMDR will at minimum do what tasks?

A
  • Ensure all durable med equip. required by AMAL are onboard
  • Current inventory actively reflects
  • ensure ongoing actions effecting status of medical
170
Q

What is the responsibility center?

A

a command designated to receive and administer an operating budget.

171
Q

What is a cost center?

A

a SUBDIVISION of responsibility center for which identifies cost is desirable to control

172
Q

What is an operating budget?

A

Annual budget and financial authority of an activity or command containing the financial resources to perform its mission

173
Q

What is an operating target? (OPTARS)

A

annual funds issued by TYCOM to lower command in order to perform their assigned tasks and function

174
Q

What are the 3 types of normally issued funds?

A

C - consumables
E - equipment
R - Repair parts

175
Q

What fund code is N?

A

Pacific fleet

176
Q

What fund code is S?

A

Atlantic fleet

177
Q

What fund code is associated with medical supplies?

A

7

ex: N7 or S7

178
Q

What is an obligation?

A

when an order is placed or a contract is awarded

179
Q

What is an expenditure?

A

the final charge against available transactions

180
Q

What is procurement?

A

any means of acquiring materials

181
Q

what does the SMDR develop a financial plan based on?

A

Experience
projected requirements
shelf life
ships schedule

182
Q

What is special mission usage requirements?

A

items may be authorized to meet known &/or anticipated required incident to a specific voyage or deployment.

The requirements may be determined by the force medical officer or by ships medical officer

183
Q

If requirements are not mission specific an allowance change should be submitted to who?

A

Naval medical logistic command via force/fleet medical officer

184
Q

Medical OPTAR funds for a DDG may be used for purchases under _____?

A

$1500

185
Q

What is the OPTAR funds allowance for LHA/LHD?

A

$5000

186
Q

What is the OPTAR funds allowance for a LSD/LPD

A

$2500

187
Q

What is a DD form 200

A

Financial liability investigation or loss of property

188
Q

Who is the appointing and the approving official when a survey is being conducted?

A

The CO

189
Q

Who can serve as a surveying officer?

A

Commissioned Officer
Warrant Officer
Enlisted E-7 or above
Civilian GS-09 or above

190
Q

What is a DD form 1149?

A

Requisition and invoice/shipping document

191
Q

What is a NAVSUP 1250-1?

A

Single line item consumption

Used primarily for procuring materials or services
also used for reporting consumption

192
Q

What is DD form 1348?

A

Issue Release Receipt document

193
Q

What is the correlation between DD form 1348 and a NAVSUP 1250-1/DD form 1149?

A

Transfer between bulk stock and working stock.

No money involved with a 1348

194
Q

What is the Defense Health Agency(DHA)?

A

a field activity of the undersecretary of defense for personnel and readiness

195
Q

When was DHA established?

A

October 1, 2013

  • Previously known as TRICARE management activity
196
Q

Who does Military Medical Support Office (MMSO) serve?

A

AD service members enrolled in tricare prime remote
non-enrolled ADSM not managed by a MTF
Reserve component SM in remote area with service approved line of duty (LOD) injury, illness, or diseas.

197
Q

What are the eligibility requirements for DHA?

A

Active duty/ retired member
Spouses
Children (up to age 21) (up to age 23 if in school)

198
Q

If a service member is divorced but served up to 20 years active duty while married to their spouse can the spouse still receive benefits?

A

Yes, if unremarried

199
Q

If a service member dies who can receive benefits?

A

un-remarried spouses

Children (under 21) (under 23 if in school)

200
Q

What is DD form 2642

A

Tricare DOD/ Champus medical claim, Patients request for medical payment

201
Q

What documents will need to accompany the DD form 2642?

A

Original and two copies of claim form
itemized bills
across the front of the bill should be a statement signed by patient that care was received and satisfactory

202
Q

If a change to an AMAL is needed who would you route that request to?

A

Naval Medical Logistics Command

—>TYCOM —> Naval Medical logistics Command

203
Q

If you need money for a single line item supply request over $1500, who would that request go to?

A

TYCOM

204
Q

What is computed by TYCOM prior to a deployment that is NOT part of the core AMAL?

A

Immunizing agents

205
Q

What can medical OPTAR funds NOT be used for?

A
  • Medical equipment over $1500 (ship dependent)
  • weight control aids or provisions for special diets
  • open purchase medications for dependent use
  • hearing conservation materials (ear pro)
  • pest, rodent, insect supplies
  • non medical/dental material
206
Q

Who can NOT serve as a survey officer?

A

1) Person on whose records the material being surveyed is carried
2) person charged with custody of material being surveyed

207
Q

What are some reasons a survey may be conducted?

A

(1) Sensitive items regardless of dollar value.
(2) Narcotics.
(3) Classified items regardless of dollar value.
(4) Arms, ammunition, and explosives, regardless of dollar value.
(5) Pilferable items that is easily convertible to personal use when the single dollar value of
a line item is $800 or more.
(6) Any discrepancy or repetitive loss when there is an indication or suspension of fraud,
theft, or negligence.

208
Q

Who determines if a survey should be initiated?

A

The Division Officer or Department Head

209
Q

who can approve an open purchase?

A

C.O.

210
Q

Why was the NAVSUP 1250-1 created?

A

(1) To improve inventory control procedures

2) To report consumption under the maintenance data system (MDS

211
Q

How is a cycle schedule divided? (3M)

A

3 month quarters

212
Q

What are medical records used for?

A
  • plan patient care
  • furnish evidence
  • document communication between providers
  • provide data for continuing education
  • justify third party costs
  • serve as a vehicle of communication
213
Q

What types of forms are found in part 4 of the medical record?

A

Ancillary forms

214
Q

What is the field activity for personnel and readiness?

A

DHA

215
Q

What is the first priority in an aviation mishap?

A

Patient care

216
Q

What does Chapter 15 of MANMED cover?

A

physical standards

217
Q

Who grants waivers to an aviator?

A

Commandant

Chief of naval personnel

218
Q

If you need further guidance on an aviator’s medication who would you contact?

A

NAMI

219
Q

Which program in decedent affairs is used when in search and recovery?

A

Graves registration program

220
Q

What is DD Form 2642?

A
  • Request for payment
221
Q

What is another preprinted form in the medical record ASIDE FROM the privacy act statement?

A

OPNAVINST 5211/9 record of disclosure)

911- police usually need the release

222
Q

Who is the judication authority for payment overseas?

A

Wisconsin Physician Services

223
Q

Who has judication authority for payment CONUS?

A

Managed medical support center

224
Q

What is the purpose of the suitability screening program?

A

Decrease early returns
Quality of life
Command meets the needs of the SM and FM

225
Q

How many regions of Tricare are there and what are they?

A

3

East, West, Overseas

226
Q

Who does the original DD form 2992 form go to?

A

C.O.

227
Q

Where do the copies of the dd form 2992 go to?

A

OPS

Training officer

228
Q

Who designates the CACO?

A

Casualty assistance call program coordinator

229
Q

What is the purpose of the decedent affairs program?

A

Uniformity
High standards
Things happen quickly

230
Q

When downing an aviator where is it documented?

A

6150/2
DD form 2992
SF 600

231
Q

What are some side effects of a nasal decongestant?

A

Insomnia, tachycardia, diplopia

232
Q

What are some side effects of petroleum jelly?

A

Mask discomfort

Crusting

233
Q

Who is responsible for EFM enrollment at the command?

A

CO

also provides EFM POC
Annual training on EFMP
CCC

234
Q

How often does a 28 week pregnant service member have to rest?

A

every 4 hours for 20 minutes

235
Q

How long is a work week for a SM at 28 weeks

A

40 hour work week with watch standing

236
Q

When should a shore command request a PRD extension for a pregnant service member?

A

12 months prior to PRD

237
Q

When should an operational command request for a transfer of a pregnant SM?

A

immediately

No longer allowed on ship at 20 weeks

238
Q

Who surveys for potential reproductive hazards in a work place?

A

Naval Environmental health center

239
Q

What is MILPERSMAN 1770.10

A

Personnel casualty reporting requirements

240
Q

If a patient is being medevac what happens to the medical record?

A

Goes with the patient

241
Q

Who is responsible for creating a new record?

A

Cognizant custodian

242
Q

What will you do with damaged forms within a medical record?

A

Microfiche

or place in envelope

243
Q

if an aviator is taking Motrin what should you do?

A

Ground them, unless medication is cleared by flight surgeon

244
Q

Who forwards a EFM package?

A

MTF coordinator

245
Q

Who does the MTF coordinator for the EFMP also work alongside with?

A

the suitability screening coordinator

246
Q

Who does the suitability recommendation come from?

A

Transferring MTF

247
Q

Who owns the suitability screening program?

A

The commanding officer of transferring command

248
Q

What are the requirements for a breast feeding room?

A

Private, clean, running water

249
Q

If a service member goes to boot camp (training) and is pregnant she will be discharged without benefits but how long after post partum could she re-enlist?

A

4 months postpartum

250
Q

How long after delivery can a SM take a PRT?

A

6 months

251
Q

What does TYCOM stand for?

A

Type commander

252
Q

Who is the medical TYCOM?

A

Force/Fleet Surgeon

253
Q

What does OPTAR stand for and who issues the annual funds?

A

Operational Target

TYCOM issues the funds

254
Q

Define purchase

A

Procurement from a commercial source

255
Q

Who determines the special mission usage?

A

Force medical officer

256
Q

What type of ship carry refugee materials?

A

LHD
Repair Ships
Subtenders

257
Q

Where can you find information on the NAVSUP 1250-1

A

NAVSUP 485

258
Q

What form do you use at SERVMART/MEDMART?

A

NAVSUP 1250-1

259
Q

What documents the results of a survey conducted? (Supply)

A

DD Form 200

260
Q

When would you use a DD Form 1149

A

items excluded from MILSTRIP (open purchase)

261
Q

What is DD Form 1348?

A

Issue release and receipt document

262
Q

How many different part forms are within a DD form 1348?

A

The form is available as two-part, four-part, or six-part carbon interleaved forms for manual
use or as a single-card form for mechanized use

263
Q

What is the DD form 1348 mainly used for?

A

is used to requisition material from naval supply activities

264
Q

What instruction governs the 3M program?

A

NAVSEAINST 4790.8

265
Q

define efficiency

A

Affective use of available manpower and resources

266
Q

What list has all equipment items and any other special tools?

A

AEL

267
Q

define standardization

A

Achieve uniform maintenance standards and criteria

268
Q

define scheduling

A

Standardize method of planning, managing, executing and tracking
maintenance requirements

269
Q

A numbering system used for tools, parts, material, and test equipment

A

SPIN (standard PMS item names)

270
Q

A reference guide which lists the SPIN and has the corresponding stock number identification (NSN).

A

Standard PMS Materials Identification Guide (SPMIG)

271
Q

What periodicity code is used when in the shipyard/overhaul?

A

LU

Lay up

272
Q

What periodicity code is used for out of shipyard/overhaul?

A

SU

Start up

273
Q

Planning and scheduling of maintenance requirements are accomplished on the cycle, quarterly, and weekly schedules. Define what a cycle, quarter and week consist of

A

Cycle - Yearly
Quarterly - 3 month quarters
Weekly - 13 weeks in a quarter

274
Q

When is an annual budget due?

A

October 1st

275
Q

Where can you find individual responsibilities in survey procedures?

A

NAVSUP 485

276
Q

Who is responsible for formulation and promulgation of policies in the decedent affairs program?

A

Commander, naval medical command

Commandant of the marine corps

IDC School (13 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions