Q&R of all the terms Flashcards

1
Q

A Guide to the Project Management Body of Knowledge (PMBOK Guide)

A

The PMI publication that defines widely accepted project management practices. The CAPM and the PMP exam are largely based on this book.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
1
Q

Abusive manner

A

Treating others with conduct that may result in harm, fear, humiliation, manipulation, or exploitation. For example, berating a project team member because they have taken longer than expected to complete a project assignment may be considered humiliation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Acceptance

A

A risk response appropriate for both positive and negative risks, but often used for smaller risks
within a project.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Acceptance test driven development

A

A method used to communicate with business customers, developers, and testers before coding begins.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Acknowledgment

A

The receiver signals that the message has been received. An acknowledgment shows receipt of
the message, but not necessarily agreement with the message.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Active listening

A
  • The message receiver restates what has been said to understand and confirm the message fully, and it provides an opportunity for the sender to clarify the message if needed.
  • The receiver confirms that the message is being received through feedback, questions, prompts for clarity, and other signs of confirmation.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Active observation

A
  • The observer interacts with the worker to ask questions and understand each step of the work
    being completed. In some instances, the observer could serve as an assistant in doing the work.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Active problem solving

A
  • Active problem solving begins with problem definition. Problem definition is the ability to discern between the cause and effect of the problem. Root-cause analysis looks beyond the immediate symptoms to the cause of the symptoms—which then affords opportunities for solutions.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Activity list

A

The primary output of breaking down the WBS work packages.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Activity network diagram

A

These diagrams, such as the project network diagram, show the flow of the project work.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Actual Cost (AC)

A

The actual amount of monies the project has spent to date

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Adjourning

A

Once the project is done, either the team moves onto other assignments as a unit, or the project
team is disbanded, and individual team members go on to other work.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Adaptive leadership

A

A leadership style that helps teams to thrive and overcome challenges throughout a project.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Affinity diagram

A
  • This diagram breaks down ideas, solutions, causes, and project components and groups them together with other similar ideas and components.
  • When stakeholders create a large number of ideas, you can use an affinity diagram to cluster similar ideas together for further analysis.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Affinity estimation

A

A method used to quickly place user stories into a comparable-sized group.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Agile

A

To develop a goal through periodic experimentation in order to fulfill the need of a complex
decision.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Agile adaptation

A

To adapt the project plan continuously through retrospectives in order to maximize value creation during the planning process.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Agile coaching

A

To help achieve goals that is either personal or organizational.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Agile experimentation

A

To use the empirical process, observation, and spike introduction while executing a project to
influence planning.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Agile manifesto

A
  • A statement that reflects agile philosophy that includes:
  • Individuals and interactions over processes and tools
  • Working software over comprehensive documentation * Customer collaboration over contract negotiation
  • Responding to changes over following a plan
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Agile manifesto principles

A

A document that describes the twelve principles of the Agile Manifesto.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Agile manifesto: Customer satisfaction

A

To satisfy customers through early and continuous delivery of products, to test and receive feedback, to inform customers on progress, and to fulfill the customer’s value by completing priority requirements.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Agile manifesto: Welcome changes

A

To allow quick responses to changes in the external environment, and late in development to
maximize the customer’s competitive advantage.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Agile manifesto: Frequent delivery

A

To deliver software frequently to the customer, allowing for a quicker product release, faster provision of value to the customer and shorter delivery timeframe.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Agile manifesto: Collocated team

A

To have individuals work together daily on a project to implement osmotic communication, focus, and receive instant feedback to achieve a common goal.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Agile manifesto: Motivated individuals

A

To give individuals the empowerment, environment, support, and trust needed to complete a
task successfully.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Agile manifesto: Face-to-Face conversation

A

The most efficient and effective way to communicate in order to receive direct feedback and influence osmotic communication.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Agile manifesto: Working software

A

Working software enables the measurement of progress, enhance customer satisfaction, and
maintain and improve the quality of the software to help support project goals.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Agile manifesto: Constant pace

A

To help team members establish a healthy work-life balance, remain productive, and respond to changes swiftly for progress during a project.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Agile manifesto: Continuous attention

A

To enhance agility and time spent on work requirements in order to retain a well-balanced work
environment.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Agile manifesto: Simplicity

A

Allows team members to focus on what is necessary to achieve the requirements needed to create and deliver value to the project and customer.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Agile manifesto: Self-organization

A

A team that knows how to complete tasks effectively, has dedication to the project, and is expert
on the process and project.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Agile manifesto: Regular reflection

A

This allows a team to learn how to become more effective, what changes need immediate implementation, and behavior that needs adjustment.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Agile mentoring

A

To pass on and teach based on experience, knowledge, and skills to other individuals in the team
or that work for the organization.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Agile methodologies

A

A way to complete a goal effectively and efficiently. Examples of Agile Methodologies include XP, Scrum, and Lean.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Agile modeling

A

A workflow depiction of a process or system a team can review before it is turned into code.
Stakeholders should understand the model.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Agile planning

A

The most important aspect of the Agile project. Planning happens at multiple levels such as strategic, release, iteration, and daily. Planning must happen up-front and can change throughout the project.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Agile practices

A

To make use of the Agile principles through activities.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Agile projects

A

A project that occurs based on the Agile Manifesto and Agile Principles.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Agile smells

A

Symptoms or indicators of problems that affect Agile teams and projects.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Agile space

A

A space that allows team members to establish collaboration, communication, transparency, and visibility.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Agile themes

A

Themes used to help the team focus on the functions of iteration.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Agile tooling

A

To increase team morale with software or artifacts.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Alternative analysis

A

The identification of more than one solution. Consider roles, materials, tools, and approaches to
the project work.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Alternative dispute resolution

A

When there is an issue or claim that must be settled before the contract can be closed, the parties involved in the issue or claim will try to reach a settlement through mediation or arbitration.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Alternatives generation

A

A scope definition process of finding alternative solutions for the project customer while considering the customer’s satisfaction, the cost of the solution, and how the customer may use the product in operations.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Ambiguity risks

A

Risks that have an uncertain, unclear nature, such as new laws or regulations, the marketplace
conditions, and other risks that are nearly impossible to predict.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Analogous estimating

A
  • An approach that relies on historical information to predict the cost of the current project.
  • Analogous estimating is more reliable, however, than team member recollections.
  • Analogous estimating is also known as top-down estimating and is a form of expert judgment. It
    is the least reliable of all estimating approaches.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Analysis

A

To develop possible solutions by studying the problem and its underlying need and to understand the information provided.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Application areas

A

The areas of expertise, industry, or function where a project is centered. Examples of application
areas include architecture, IT, health care, and manufacturing.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Approved Iterations

A

After the deadline of iteration is reached, the team and stakeholders conduct a meeting for approval. Stakeholders approve the iteration if the backlog used supports the product increment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Artifact

A

A process or work output; e.g., documents, code

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Assumption log

A

An assumption is something that is believed to be true or false, but it has not yet been proven to be true or false. Assumptions that prove wrong can become risks for the project. All identified project assumptions are recorded in the assumption log for testing and analysis, and the outcomes are recorded.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Authority power

A

Project management team members may have authority over other project team members, may have the ability to make decisions, and perhaps even sign approvals for project work and purchases.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Autocratic

A

A decision method where only one individual makes the decision for the group.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Automated testing tools

A

These tools allow for efficient and strong testing. Examples: Peer Reviews, Periodical Code-
Reviews, Refactoring, Unit Tests, Automatic and Manual Testing.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Avoidance

A

A risk response to avoid the risk.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Avoiding power

A

The project manager refuses to act, get involved, or make decisions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Balanced matrix structure

A

An organization where organizational resources are pooled into one project team, but the
functional managers and the project managers share the project power.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Being agile

A

To work in a responsive way to deliver the products or services a customer needs and when they want the products or services.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Benchmarking

A

Comparing any two similar entities to measure their performance.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Benefit/Cost Ratio (BCR) models

A

This is an example of a benefits comparison model. It examines the benefit-to-cost ratio.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Bid

A

From seller to buyer. Price is the determining factor in the decision-making process.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Bidder conference

A

A meeting of all the project’s potential vendors to clarify the contract statement of work and the
details of the contracted work.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Bottom-up estimating

A
  • The most accurate time-and-cost estimating approach a project manager can use. This estimating approach starts at “the bottom” of the project and considers every activity, its predecessor and successor activities, and the exact amount of resources needed to complete each activity.
  • This estimating approach starts from zero, accounts for each component of the WBS, and arrives at a sum for the project. It is completed with the project team and can be one of the most time- consuming and most reliable methods to predict project costs.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Brain writing

A

A data-gathering technique that’s similar to brainstorming, but provides brainstorming meeting participants with the questions and topics for brainstorming before the stakeholder identification meeting.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Brainstorming

A
  • This approach encourages participants to generate as many ideas as possible about the project requirements. No idea is judged or dismissed during the brainstorming session.
  • The most common approach to risk identification; usually completed by a project team with subject matter experts to identify the risks within the project.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Brainstorming

A
  • An effective and efficient way of gathering ideas within a short period of time from a group.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Budget estimate

A
  • This estimate is also somewhat broad and is used early in the planning processes and also in top-down estimates. The range of variance for the estimate can be from –10 percent to +25 percent.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Burn-down chart

A
  • A chart used to display progress during and at the end of iteration. “Burning down” means the backlog will lessen throughout the iteration.
    *
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Burn rate

A
  • The rate of resources consumed by the team; also cost per iteration.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Burn-up chart

A
  • A chart that displays completed functionality. Progress will trend upwards, as stories are completed. Only shows complete functions, it is not accurate at predicting or showing work-in- progress.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Business risks

A

These risks may have negative or positive outcomes. Examples include using a less experienced worker to complete a task, allowing phases or activities to overlap, or forgoing the expense of formal training for on-the-job education.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Business value

A

A quantifiable return on investment. The return can be tangible, such as equipment, money, or market share. The return can also be intangible, such as brand recognition, trademarks, and reputation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Cardinal scales

A

A ranking approach to identify the probability and impact by using a numerical value, from .01 (very low) to 1.0 (certain).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Cause-and-effect diagrams

A

Diagrams that show the relationship between variables within a process and how those relationships may contribute to inadequate quality. The diagrams can help organize both the process and team opinions, as well as generate discussion on finding a solution to ensure quality.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

CARVER

A

An acronym to measure the goals and mission of the project with each letter meaning: Criticality,
Accessibility, Return, Vulnerability, Effect, and Recognizeability.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Ceremony

A

A meeting conducted during an Agile project that consists of daily stand-up, iteration planning, iteration review, and iteration retrospective.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Certified Associate in Project Management (CAPM)

A
  • A person who has slightly less project management experience than a PMP, but who has
    qualified for and then passed the CAPM examination.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Change

A

To change requirements that increase value to the customer.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Change Control Board (CCB)

A
  • A committee that evaluates the worthiness of a proposed change and either approves or rejects the proposed change.
  • The change control system communicates the process for controlling changes to the project deliverables. This system works with the configuration management system and seeks to control and document proposals to change the project’s product.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Change Control System (CCS)

A

Documented in the scope management plan, this system defines how changes to the project
scope are managed and controlled.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

Change log

A

All changes that enter into a project are recorded in the change log. The characteristics of the change, such as the time, cost, risk, and scope details, are also recorded.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

Change management plan

A
  • This plan details the project procedures for entertaining change requests: how change requests are managed, documented, approved, or declined.
  • This subsidiary plan defines how changes will be allowed and managed within the project.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

Charismatic leadership

A
  • The leader is motivating, has high-energy, and inspires the team through strong convictions about what is possible and what the team can achieve. Positive thinking and a can-do mentality are characteristics of a charismatic leader.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

Charter

A

A document created during initiation that formally begins the project. The document includes the project’s justification, a summary level budget, major milestones, critical success factors, constraints, assumptions, and authorization to do it.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

Checklist

A

A simple approach to ensure that work is completed according to the quality policy.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

Chicken

A

An individual involved but not committed to an agile project.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

Choice of media

A

The best modality to use when communicating that is relevant to the information being
communicated.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

Claims

A

These are disagreements between the buyer and the seller, usually centering on a change, who did the change, and even whether a change has occurred. Claims are also called disputes and appeals and are monitored and controlled through the project in accordance with the contract terms.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

Closure processes

A

This final process group of the project management life cycle is responsible for closing the project phase or project. This is where project documentation is archived and project contracts are also closed.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

Coach

A

A team role that keeps the team focused on learning and the process.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

Code of accounts

A

A numbering system for each item in the WBS. The PMBOK is a good example of a code of accounts, as each chapter and its subheadings follow a logical numbering scheme. For example, PMBOK 5.3.3.2 identifies an exact paragraph in the PMBOK.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

Coercive power

A

The project manager has the authority to discipline the project team members. This is also
known as penalty power.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

Collaborate/Problem solving

A

This approach confronts the problem head-on and is the preferred method of conflict resolution. Multiple viewpoints and perspectives contribute to the solution.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

Collaboration

A

A method of cooperation among individuals to achieve a common goal.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

Collective bargaining agreement constraints

A

Contracts and agreements with unions or other employee groups may serve as constraints on
the project.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

Collective code ownership

A

The entire team together is responsible for 100% of the code.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

Collocation

A

The entire team is physically present, working in one room.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

Command & Control

A

Decisions created by higher up individuals in the organization and handed over to the team.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

Commercial database

A

A cost-estimating approach that uses a database, typically software-driven, to create the cost
estimate for a project.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

Common cause

A

An issue solved through trend analysis because the issue is systematic.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

Communication

A

To share smooth and transparent information of needs.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

Communication assumptions

A

Anything that the project management team believes to be true but hasn’t proven to be true. For example, the project management team may assume that all of the project team can be reached via cell phone, but parts of the world, as of this writing, don’t have a cell signal.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

Communication barrier

A

Anything that prohibits communication from occurring.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

Communication channels formula

A

N(N – 1)/2, where N represents the number of identified stakeholders. This formula reveals the
total number of communication channels within a project.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

Communication constraints

A

Anything that limits the project management team’s options. When it comes to communication constraints, geographical locales, incompatible communications software, and even limited communications technology can constrain the project team.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

Communications management plan

A
  • A project management subsidiary plan that defines the stakeholders who need specific information, the person who will supply the information, the schedule for the information to be supplied, and the approved modality to provide the information.
  • This plan defines who will get what information, how they will receive it, and in what modality the communication will take place.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

Competency

A
  • This attribute defines what talents, skills, and capabilities are needed to complete the project
    work.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

Compliance

A

To meet regulations, rules, and standards.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

Compromising

A

This approach requires that both parties give up something.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

Cone of silence

A

An environment for the team that is free of distractions and interruptions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

Configuration identification

A

This includes the labeling of the components, how changes are made to the product, and the
accountability of the changes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

Configuration management plan

A

This plan is an input to the control scope process. This subsidiary plan defines how changes to the features and functions of the project deliverables will be monitored and controlled within the project.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

Configuration management system

A

This system defines how stakeholders are allowed to submit change requests, the conditions for approving a change request, and how approved change requests are validated in the project scope. Configuration management also documents the characteristics and functions of the project’s products and any changes to a product’s characteristics.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

Configuration status accounting

A

The organization of the product materials, details, and prior product documentation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

Configuration verification and auditing

A

The scope verification and completeness auditing of project or phase deliverables to ensure that they are in alignment with the project plan.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

Conflict

A

Disagreements in certain areas between individuals.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

Conflict of interest

A

A situation where a project manager may have two competing duties of loyalty. For example, purchasing software from a relative may benefit the relative, but it may do harm to the performing organization.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

Conflict resolution

A

An agreement made after a conflict.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

Context diagram

A

These diagrams show the relationship between elements of an environment. For example, a context diagram would illustrate the networks, servers, workstations, and people that interact with the elements of the environment.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

Continuous improvement

A

To ensure that self-assessment and process improvement occurs frequently to improve the product.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

Continuous integration

A

To consistently examine a team member’s work. To build, and test the entire system.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

Contingency reserve

A
  • A contingency allowance to account for overruns in costs. Contingency allowances are used at the project manager’s discretion and with management’s approval to counteract cost overruns for scheduled activities and risk events.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

Contract change control system

A

This defines the procedures for how the contract may be changed. The process for changing the contract includes the forms; documented communications; tracking; conditions within the project, business, or marketplace that justify the needed change; dispute resolution procedures; and the procedures for getting the changes approved within the performing organization.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q

Contract closure

A

The formal verification of the contract completeness by the vendor and the performing organization.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
126
Q

Contract Statement of Work (SOW also CSOW)

A

This document requires that the seller fully describe the work to be completed and/or the product to be supplied. The SOW becomes part of the contract between the buyer and the seller.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
127
Q

Control account

A

A WBS entry that considers the time, cost, and scope measurements for that deliverable within the WBS. The estimated performance is compared against the actual performance to measure overall performance for the deliverables within that control account. The specifics of a control account are documented in a control account plan.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
128
Q

Control chart

A

A quality control chart that maps the performance of project work over time.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
129
Q

Control quality

A

An inspection-driven process that measures work results to confirm that the project is meeting the relevant quality standards.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
130
Q

Control threshold

A

A predetermined range of acceptable variances, such as +/–10 percent off schedule. Should the variance exceed the threshold, then project control processes and corrected actions will be enacted.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
131
Q

Coordination

A

To organize work with the goal of higher productivity and teamwork.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
132
Q

Cost aggregation

A

Costs are parallel to each WBS work package. The costs of each work package are aggregated to their corresponding control accounts. Each control account is then aggregated to the sum of the project costs.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
133
Q

Cost baseline

A

This is the aggregated costs of all of the work packages within the work breakdown structure (WBS). It is time-lapse exposure of when the project monies are to be spent in relation to cumulative values of the work completed in the project.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
134
Q

Cost budgeting

A

The cost aggregation achieved by assigning specific dollar amounts for each of the scheduled activities or, more likely, for each of the work packages in the WBS. Cost budgeting applies the cost estimates over time.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
135
Q

Cost change control system

A

A system that examines any changes associated with scope changes, the cost of materials, and the cost of any other resources, and the associated impact on the overall project cost.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
136
Q

Cost management plan

A

This plan details how the project costs will be planned for, estimated, budgeted, and then monitored and controlled.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
137
Q

Cost Performance Index (CPI)

A

To measure the cost spent on a project and its efficiency. Earned Value / Actual Cost = CPI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
138
Q

Cost of conformance

A

This is the cost associated with the monies spent to attain the expected level of quality. It is also known as the cost of quality

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
139
Q

Cost of nonconformance to quality

A

The cost associated with not satisfying quality expectations. This is also known as the cost of poor quality.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
140
Q

Cost of poor quality

A

The monies spent to recover from not adhering to the expected level of quality. Examples may include rework, defect repair, loss of life or limb because safety precautions were not taken, loss of sales, and loss of customers. This is also known as the cost of nonconformance to quality.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
141
Q

Cost of quality

A

The monies spent to attain the expected level of quality within a project. Examples include training, testing, and safety precautions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
142
Q

Cost plus award fee contract

A
  • A contract that pays the vendor all costs for the project, but also includes a buyer-determined award fee for the project work.
  • A contract that requires the buyer to pay for the cost of the goods and services procured plus a fixed fee for the contracted work. The buyer assumes the risk of a cost overrun.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
143
Q

Cost plus incentive fee

A

A contract type that requires the buyer to pay a cost for the procured work, plus an incentive fee, or a bonus, for the work if terms and conditions are met.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
144
Q

Cost plus percentage of costs

A
  • A contract that requires the buyer to pay for the costs of the goods and services procured plus a percentage of the costs. The buyer assumes all of the risks for cost overruns.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
145
Q

Cost Variance (CV)

A

The difference of the earned value amount and the cumulative actual costs of the project. The formula is CV = EV – AC.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
146
Q

Cost-benefit analysis

A

A process to study the trade-offs between costs and the benefits realized from those costs.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
147
Q

Crashing

A

A schedule compression approach that adds more resources to activities on the critical path to complete the project earlier. When crashing a project, costs are added because the associated labor and sometimes resources (such as faster equipment) cause costs to increase.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
148
Q

Critical path

A

The path in the project network diagram that cannot be delayed; otherwise, the project completion date will be late. There can be more than one critical path. Activities in the critical path have no float.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
149
Q

Cross-functional team

A

Teams that consist of members who can multi-task well and complete various functions to achieve a common goal.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
150
Q

Crystal family

A

An adaptable approach that focuses on interaction between people and processes that consists of families that vary based on team size, system criticality, and project priorities.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
151
Q

Cultural and social environment

A

Defines how a project affects people and how those people may affect the project. Cultural and social environments include the economic, educational, ethical, religious, demographic, and ethnic composition of the people affected by the project.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
152
Q

Cultural norms

A

Cultural norms describe the culture and the styles of an organization. Cultural norms, such as work ethics, hours, view of authority, and shared values, can affect how the project is managed.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
153
Q

Cumulative flow diagram

A

A chart that displays feature backlog, work-in-progress, and completed features.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
154
Q

Customer

A
  • The end-user who determines and emphasizes business values.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
155
Q

Customer-valued prioritization

A

To deliver the maximum customer value early in order to win customer loyalty and support.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
156
Q

Cycle time

A

The time needed to complete a feature (user story).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
157
Q

Daily stand up

A
  • A brief meeting where the team shares the previous day’s achievements, plans to make achievements, obstacles, and how to overcome the obstacles.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
158
Q

Data precision

A
  • The consideration of the risk ranking scores that takes into account any bias, the accuracy of the data submitted, and the reliability of the nature of the data submitted.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
159
Q

Decide as late as possible

A
  • To postpone decisions to determine possibilities and make the decision when the most amount of knowledge is available.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
160
Q

Decision tree

A
  • A method to determine which of two or more decisions is the best one. The model examines the costs and benefits of each decision’s outcome and weighs the probability of success for each of the decisions.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
161
Q

Decoder

A
  • The device that decodes a message as it is being received.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
162
Q

DEEP

A

The qualities of a product backlog which include: detailed, estimate-able, emergent, and prioritized.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
163
Q

Definitive estimate

A
  • This estimate type is one of the most accurate. It’s used late in the planning processes and is associated with bottom-up estimating. You need the WBS in order to create the definitive estimate. The range of variance for the estimate can be from –5 percent to +10 percent.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
164
Q

Deliverable

A
  • A product, service, or result created by a project. Projects can have multiple deliverables.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
165
Q

Delphi Technique

A

An anonymous method of querying experts about foreseeable risks within a project, phase, or component of a project. The results of the survey are analyzed by a third party, organized, and then circulated to the experts. There can be several rounds of anonymous discussion with the Delphi Technique, without fear of backlash or offending other participants in the process. The goal is to gain consensus on project risks within the project.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
166
Q

Design of experiments

A

An approach that relies on statistical scenarios to determine what variables within a project will result in the best outcome.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
167
Q

Direct costs

A

Costs are attributed directly to the project work and cannot be shared among projects (for example, airfare, hotels, long-distance phone charges, and so on).
* These are costs incurred by the project in order for the project to exist. Examples include the equipment needed to complete the project work, salaries of the project team, and other expenses tied directly to the project’s existence.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
168
Q

Discretionary dependencies

A

These dependencies are the preferred order of activities. Project managers should use these relationships at their discretion and should document the logic behind the decision. Discretionary dependencies allow activities to happen in a preferred order because of best practices, conditions unique to the project work, or external events. Also known as preferential or soft logic.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
169
Q

Disaggregation

A

To separate epics or large stories into smaller stories.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
170
Q

Dissatisfaction

A

The lack of satisfaction among workers such as, work conditions, salary, and management- employee relationships. Factors known as demotivators.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
171
Q

Distributive negotiation

A
  • To reach a deal through tactics so both parties receive the highest amount of value possible.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
172
Q

Done

A

When work is complete, and meets the following criteria: complies, runs without errors, and passes predefined acceptance and regression tests.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
173
Q

Dot voting

A
  • A system of voting where people receive a certain number of dots to vote on the options provided.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
174
Q

Duty of loyalty

A

A project manager’s responsibility to be loyal to another person, organization, or vendor. For example, a project manager has a duty of loyalty to promote the best interests of an employer rather than the best interests of a vendor.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
175
Q

Dynamic Systems Development Model (DSDM)

A
  • A model that provides a comprehensive foundation for planning, managing, executing, and scaling agile and iterative software development projects based on nine principles that involve business needs/value, active user involvement, empowered teams, frequent delivery, integrated testing, and stakeholder collaboration.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
176
Q

Early finish

A
  • The earliest a project activity can finish. Used in the forward pass procedure to discover the critical path and the project float.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
177
Q

Early start

A
  • The earliest a project activity can begin. Used in the forward pass procedure to discover the critical path and the project float.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
178
Q

Earned Value (EV)

A

Earned value is the physical work completed to date and the authorized budget for that work. It is the percentage of the BAC that represents the actual work completed in the project.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
179
Q

Effective listening

A

The receiver is involved in the listening experience by paying attention to visual cues from the speaker and para lingual characteristics and by asking relevant questions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
180
Q

8/80 Rule

A

A planning heuristic for creating the WBS. This rule states that the work package in a WBS must take no more than 80 hours of labor to create and no fewer than 8 hours of labor to create.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
181
Q

Emergent

A

Stories that grow and change overtime as other stories reach completion in the backlog.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
182
Q

Emotional intelligence

A

An individual’s skill to lead and relate to other team members.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
183
Q

Encoder

A

The device that encodes the message being sent.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
184
Q

Enhancing

A

A risk response that attempts to enhance the conditions to ensure that a positive risk event will likely happen.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
185
Q

Enterprise environmental factors

A

Conditions that affect how the project manager may manage the project. Enterprise environmental factors come from within the project, such as policy, or they are external to the organization, such as law or regulation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
186
Q

Epic story

A

A large story that spans iterations, then disaggregated into smaller stories.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
187
Q

Escalating

A

A risk response that is appropriate for both positive and negative risk events that may outside of the project manager’s authority to act upon.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
188
Q

Escaped defects

A

Defects reported after the delivery by the customer.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
189
Q

Estimate To Complete (ETC)

A

An earned value management formula that predicts how much funding the project will require to be completed. Three variations of this formula are based on conditions the project may be experiencing.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
190
Q

Expectancy theory

A

An individual chooses to behave in a particular way over other behaviors because of the expected results of the chosen behavior.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
191
Q

Exploratory testing

A

To inquire how software works with the use of test subjects using the software and asking questions about the software.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
192
Q

Expected Monetary Value (EMV)

A

The monetary value of a risk exposure is based on the risk’s probability and impact in the risk matrix. This approach is typically used in quantitative risk analysis because it quantifies the risk exposure.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
193
Q

Expert power

A
  • The project manager has deep skills and experience in a discipline (for example, years of working in IT helps an IT project manager better manage IT projects)
  • The project manager’s authority comes both from experience with the technology the project focuses on and from expertise in managing projects.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
194
Q

Explicit knowledge

A
  • Knowledge that can be quickly and easily expressed through conversations, documentation, figures, or numbers is easily communicated.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
195
Q

Exploit

A
  • A risk response that takes advantage of the positive risks within a project.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
196
Q

External dependencies

A
  • As the name implies, these are dependencies outside of the project’s control. Examples include the delivery of equipment from a vendor, the deliverable of another project, or the decision of a committee, lawsuit, or expected new law.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
197
Q

External QA

A

Assurance provided to the external customers of the project.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
198
Q

External risks

A
  • These risks are outside of the project, but directly affect it—for example, legal issues, labor issues, a shift in project priorities, or weather. “Force majeure” risks call for disaster recovery rather than project management. These are risks caused by earthquakes, tornadoes, floods, civil unrest, and other disasters
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
199
Q

Extreme persona

A
  • A team-manufactured persona that exaggerates to induce requirements a standard persona may miss.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
200
Q

eXtreme Programming (XP)

A
  • A methodology in Agile with one-week iterations and paired development.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
201
Q

Fast tracking

A
  • A schedule compression method that changes the relationship of activities. With fast tracking, activities that would normally be done in sequence are allowed to be done in parallel or with some overlap. Fast tracking can be accomplished by changing the relation of activities from FS to SS or even FF or by adding lead time to downstream activities. However, fast tracking does add risk to the project.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
202
Q

Feedback

A
  • The sender confirms that the receiver understands the message by directly asking for a response, questions for clarification, or other confirmation.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
203
Q

Feature-Driven Development (FDD)

A
  • A comprehensive model and list of features included in the system before the design work begins.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
204
Q

Feature

A
  • A group of stories that deliver value to the customers.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
205
Q

Feedback

A

Information or responses towards a product or project used to make improvements.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
206
Q

Fibonacci Sequence

A

A sequence of numbers used in Agile estimating, 0, 1, 2, 3, 5, 8, 13, 21

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
207
Q

Finish tasks one by one

A

Tasks must be finished in all iterations to meet the “Definition of Done” requirements as a way to track progress and allow frequent delivery.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
208
Q

Finish-to-finish

A

An activity relationship type that requires the current activity to be finished before its successor can finish.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
209
Q

Finish-to-start

A

An activity relationship type that requires the current activity to be finished before its successor can start.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
210
Q

Fishbone diagram

A

A root cause diagram.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
211
Q

Five whys

A

The root causes analysis technique that asks WHY five times. The problem is looked into deeper each time WHY is asked. Toyota developed this technique.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
212
Q

Fixed costs

A

Costs that remain constant throughout the life of the project (the cost of a piece of rented equipment for the project, the cost of a consultant brought on to the project, and so on).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
213
Q

Fixed-price contracts

A

Also known as firm-fixed-price and lump-sum contracts, these are agreements that define a total price for the product the seller is to provide.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
214
Q

Fixed-price incentive fee

A

A fixed-price contract with opportunities for bonuses for meeting goals on costs, schedule, and other objectives. These contracts usually have a price ceiling for costs and associated bonuses.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
215
Q

Fixed-price with economic price adjustments

A

A fixed-price contract with a special allowance for price increases based on economic reasons such as inflation or the cost of raw materials.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
216
Q

Fixed time box

A

Assigned tasks prioritized for completion based on an estimated number of days. Top priorities are usually completed first.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
217
Q

Flowchart

A
  • A diagram illustrating how components within a system are related. Flowcharts show the relation between components, as well as help the project team determine where quality issues may be present and, once done, plan accordingly.
  • System or process flowcharts show the relationship between components and how the overall process works. These are useful for identifying risks between system components.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
218
Q

Focus

A
  • To stay on task, and is facilitated by the scrum master or coach.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
219
Q

Focus groups

A
  • A moderator-led requirements collection method to elicit requirements from stakeholders.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
220
Q

Force field analysis

A
  • To analyze forces that encourages or resists change.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
221
Q

Force majeure

A
  • An “act of God” that may have a negative impact on the project. Examples include fire, hurricanes, tornadoes, and earthquakes.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
222
Q

Forcing power

A
  • The person with the power makes the decision.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
223
Q

Formal power

A
  • The project manager has been assigned the role of project manager by senior management and is in charge of the project.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
224
Q

Forming

A
  • The project team meets and learns about their roles and responsibilities on the project. Little interaction among the project team happens in this stage as the team is learning about the project and project manager.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
225
Q

Fragnet

A

A representation of a project network diagram that is often used for outsourced portions of a project, repetitive work within a project, or a subproject. Also called a subnet.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
226
Q

Free float

A

This is the total time a single activity can be delayed without affecting the early start of its immediately following successor activities.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
227
Q

Functionality

A

An action the customer must see and experience from a system, which will add value to the customer.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
228
Q

Functional analysis

A
  • This is the study of the functions within a system, project, or, what is more likely in the project scope statement, the product the project will be creating. Functional analysis studies the goals of the product, how the product will be used, and the expectations the customer has of the product once it leaves the project and moves into operations. Functional analysis may also consider the cost of the product in operations, which is known as life-cycle costing.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
229
Q

Functional structure

A

An organization that is divided into functions and each employee has one clear functional manager. Each department acts independently of the other departments. A project manager in this structure has little to no power and may be called a project coordinator.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
230
Q

Funding limit

A

Most projects have a determined budget in relation to the project scope. There may be a qualifier on this budget, such as plus or minus 10 percent based on the type of cost estimate created.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
231
Q

Funding limit reconciliation

A

An organization’s approach to managing cash flow against the project deliverables is based on a schedule, milestone accomplishment, or data constraints.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
232
Q

Future value

A
  • A benefit comparison model to determine a future value of money. The formula to calculate future value is FV = PV(1 + I)n, where PV is present value, I is the given interest rate, and n is the number of periods.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
233
Q

General management skills

A
  • These include the application of accounting, procurement, sales and marketing, contracting, manufacturing, logistics, strategic planning, human resource management, standards and regulations, and information technology.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
234
Q

Governance framework

A
  • Governance framework describes the rules, policies, and procedures that people within an organization abide by. Governance framework addresses the organization, but also addresses portfolios, programs, and projects. Regarding portfolios, programs, and projects, the governance framework addresses alignment with organizational vision, risk management, performance factors, and communication.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
235
Q

Grooming

A
  • To clean up the product backlog by removal of items, disaggregation of items, or estimation of items.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
236
Q

Ground Rules

A
  • Unwritten rules decided and followed by team members.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
237
Q

Guilt-based power

A
  • The project manager can make the team and stakeholders feel guilty to gain compliance in the project.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
238
Q

Hard logic

A
  • Logic that describes activities that must happen in a particular order. For example, the dirt must be excavated before the foundation can be built. The foundation must be in place before the framing can begin. Also known as a mandatory dependency.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
239
Q

Herzberg’s Hygiene Theory

A
  • A theory that states factors in the workplace create satisfaction and dissatisfaction in relation to the job.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
240
Q

Herzberg’s Theory of Motivation

A
  • Frederick Herzberg’s theory of the motivating agents and hygiene agents that affect a person’s willingness to excel in his career.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
241
Q

Hierarchical organizational chart

A
  • A chart showing the relationship between superior and subordinate employees, groups, disciplines, and even departments.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
242
Q

High-bandwidth Communication

A
  • Face-to-face communication that also includes non-verbal communication.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
243
Q

High performing team

A
  • This team reaches maximum performance by creation of clear, detailed goals, open communication, accountability, empowerment, use of the participatory decision model, and the team consists of twelve dedicated members or less.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
244
Q

Hybrid structure

A
  • An organization that creates a blend of the functional, matrix, and project-oriented structures.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
245
Q

Ideal time

A
  • The amount of time needed to complete an assignment without distractions or interruptions.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
246
Q

Incremental delivery

A
  • Functionality conveyed in small phases.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
247
Q

Incremental project releases

A
  • To build upon the prior release of a goal, outcome, or product, not all requirements are met, but after all releases, the requirements will be met.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
248
Q

Independent estimates

A
  • These estimates are often referred to as “should cost” estimates. They are created by the performing organization or outside experts to predict what the cost of the procured product should be.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
249
Q

Indirect costs

A
  • These are costs attributed to the cost of doing business. Examples include utilities, office space, and other overhead costs.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
250
Q

Information radiator

A
  • Artifacts used to help maintain transparency of a project status to team members and stakeholders.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
251
Q

Information refrigerator

A

Information that is not transparent or useful to the team and stakeholders.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
252
Q

Influence diagrams

A
  • An influence diagram charts out a decision problem. It identifies all of the elements, variables, decisions, and objectives and also how each factor may influence another.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
253
Q

Influence/impact grid

A
  • Stakeholders are mapped on a grid based on their influence over the project in relation to their influence over the project execution.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
254
Q

Information presentation tools

A
  • A software package that allows the project management team to present the project’s health through graphics, spreadsheets, and text. (Think of Microsoft Project.)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
255
Q

Information retrieval system

A
  • A system to quickly and effectively store, archive, and access project information.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
256
Q

Informational power

A
  • The individual has power and control of the data gathering and distribution of information.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
257
Q

Ingratiating power

A
  • The project manager aims to gain favor with the project team and stakeholders through flattery.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
258
Q

Innovation games

A
  • Practice used to induce requirements from product owners, users, and stakeholders.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
259
Q

Integrated change control

A
  • A process to consider and control the impact of a proposed change on the project’s knowledge areas.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
260
Q

Integrative negotiation

A
  • To reach an agreement collaboratively that creates more value for both parties by a win-win solution.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
261
Q

Interaction

A
  • Face-to-Face communication
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
262
Q

Interactional leadership

A
  • The leader is a hybrid of transactional, transformational, and charismatic leaders. The interactional leader wants the team to act, is excited and inspired about the project work, yet still holds the team accountable for their results.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
263
Q

Interactive communication

A
  • This is the most common and most effective approach to communication. It’s where two or more people exchange information. Consider status meetings, ad-hoc meetings, phone calls, and videoconferences.
  • This type of communication means that information is happening among stakeholders, like in a forum. Examples of interactive communications are meetings, videoconferences, phone calls, and ad-hoc conversations. Interactive communications means that the participants are actively communicating with one another.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
264
Q

Internal dependencies

A
  • Internal relationships to the project or the organization. For example, the project team must create the software as part of the project’s deliverable before the software can be tested for quality control.
265
Q

Internal QA

A
  • Assurance provided to management and the project team.
266
Q

International and political environment

A
  • The consideration of the local and international laws, languages, communication challenges, time zone differences, and other non-collocated issues that affect a project’s ability to progress.
267
Q

Interpersonal skills

A
  • The ability to interact, lead, motivate, and manage people.
268
Q

Interviews

A
  • A requirements collection method used to elicit requirements from stakeholders in a one-on-one conversation.
269
Q

Intraspectives

A
  • To inspect within, during a meeting with the Agile team to review practices, usually when a problem or issue occurs.
270
Q

Intrinsic Schedule Flaw

A

Poor estimation that occurs at the beginning of an iteration.

271
Q

Invitation For Bid (IFB)

A
  • From buyer to seller. Requests the seller to provide a price for the procured product or service
272
Q

INVEST

A
  • The benefits of good user stories, which include: Independent, Negotiable, Valuable, Estimate- able, Small, and Testable.
273
Q

Iron triangle of project management

A
  • A triangle with the characteristics of time, cost, and scope. Time, cost, and scope each constitute one side of the triangle; if any side of the Iron Triangle is not in balance with the other sides, the project will suffer. The Iron Triangle of Project Management is also known as the Triple Constraints of Project Management, as all projects are constrained by time, cost, and scope.
274
Q

IRR

A
  • Internal Rate of Return- a discount rate that makes the net present value of all cash flows from a project equal to zero. Used to determine potential profitability of project or investment.
275
Q

Ishikawa Diagrams

A
  • These cause-and-effect diagrams are also called fishbone diagrams and are used to find the root cause of factors that are causing risks within the project.
276
Q

Issue log

A
  • Issues are points of contention where some question of the project’s direction needs to be resolved. All identified issues are documented in the issue log, along with an issue owner and a deadline to resolve the issue. The outcome of the issue is also recorded.
277
Q

ISO

A

The abbreviation for the International Organization for Standardization. ISO is Greek for “equal,” while “International Organization for Standardization” in a different language would be abbreviated differently. The organization elected to use “ISO” for all languages.

278
Q

Iteration

A

Work cycle, Scrum uses 2-4 weeks, XP uses 1 week.

279
Q

Iteration backlog

A

Work to complete in a particular iteration.

280
Q

Iteration H

A

Iteration used to prepare the launch of software, and to test software.

281
Q

Iteration 0

A

Iteration to complete tasks before the development work occurs, for technical and architectural spikes and to gather requirements into the backlog.

282
Q

Iteration retrospective

A
  • A meeting used in Scrum, the team discusses ways to improve after work is completed.
283
Q

Just-In-Time

A
  • Used to minimize inventory cost by materials delivered before they are required.
284
Q

Kaizen

A
  • Based on Japanese management philosophy, to continue improvement through small releases.
285
Q

Kanban

A
  • A signal used to advance transparency of work-in-progress, a new task can begin once a previous one is complete.
286
Q

Kanban board

A
  • A chart that shows workflow stages to locate work-in-progress.
287
Q

Kano analysis

A
  • An analysis of product development and customer satisfaction based on needs fulfilled/not fulfilled vs. satisfaction/dissatisfaction.
288
Q

Key stakeholder

A
  • Stakeholders—such as management, the project manager, program manager, or customers—that
    have the authority to make decisions in the project.
289
Q

Known unknown

A
  • An event that will likely happen within the project, but when it will happen and to what degree is unknown. These events, such as delays, are usually risk-related.
290
Q

Lag time

A
  • Positive time that moves two or more activities farther apart.
291
Q

Laissez-faire leadership

A
  • The leader takes a “hands-off” approach to the project. This means the project team makes decisions, takes initiative in the actions, and creates goals. While this approach can provide autonomy, it can make the leader appear absent when it comes to project decisions.
292
Q

Last responsible moment

A
  • To make decisions as late as possible in order to preserve all possible options.
293
Q

Late finish

A
  • The latest a project activity can finish. Used in the backward pass procedure to discover the
    critical path and the project float.
294
Q

Late start

A
  • The latest a project activity can begin. Used in the backward pass procedure to discover the critical path and the project float.
295
Q

Lead time

A

Negative time that allows two or more activities to overlap where ordinarily these activities
would be sequential.

296
Q

Leadership

A

Leadership is about aligning, motivating, and inspiring the project team members to do the right thing, build trust, think creatively, and to challenge the status quo.

297
Q

Leading stakeholder status

A
  • Part of stakeholder analysis classification. A leading stakeholder is aware of your project, they want your project to be successful, and the stakeholder is working to make certain the project is a success.
298
Q

Lean methodology

A
  • To eliminate waste, an Agile method derived from manufacturing.
299
Q

Learning curve

A
  • An approach that assumes the cost per unit decreases the more units workers complete, because
    workers learn as they complete the required work.
300
Q

Lessons learned

A
  • This is documentation of what did and did not work in the project implementation. Lessons learned documentation is created throughout the project by the entire project team. When lessons learned sessions are completed, they’re available to be used and applied by the entire organization. They are now part of the organizational process assets.
301
Q

Letter contract

A
  • A letter contract allows the vendor to begin working on the project immediately. It is often used as a stopgap solution.
302
Q

Letter of intent

A
  • A letter of intent is not a contract, but a letter stating that the buyer is intending to create a contractual relationship with the seller.
303
Q

Little’s Law

A
  • The law that limits work-in-progress efficiently with development of an appropriate cycle time.
304
Q

Low performing team

A
  • This team has a lack of trust, no accountability, fear of conflict, less commitment, and less attention to details and results.
305
Q

Lean Software Development (LSD)

A
  • This methodology focuses on the “Value Stream” to deliver value to customers. The goal is to eliminate waste by focusing on valuable features of a system and to deliver the value in small batches. Principles of Lean include: elimination of waste, amplify learning, to decide late as possible, deliver as fast as possible, empowerment of the team, to build in integrity, and to see the whole.
306
Q

Low-priority risk watch list

A
  • Low-priority risks are identified and assigned to a watch list for periodic monitoring.
307
Q

Majority

A
  • A group decision method where more than 50 percent of the group must be in agreement.
308
Q

Make-or-buy decision

A
  • A process in which the project management team determines the cost-effectiveness, benefits, and feasibility of making a product or buying it from a vendor.
309
Q

Management

A
  • Management utilizes positional power to maintain, administrate, control, and focus on getting things done without challenging the status quo of the project and organization.
310
Q

Management reserve

A
  • A percentage of the project duration to combat Parkinson’s Law. When project activities become late, their lateness is subtracted from the management reserve.
311
Q

Mandatory dependencies

A

These dependencies are the natural order of activities. For example, you can’t begin building your house until your foundation is in place. These relationships are called hard logic.

312
Q

Maslow’s Hierarchy of Needs

A
  • Abraham Maslow’s theory of the five needs all humans have and work toward.
    *This theory suggests the interdependent needs (motivators) of people based on five levels in this order: Physiological, Safety & Security, Social, Esteem, and Self-Actualization.
313
Q

Mathematical model

A

A project selection method to determine the likelihood of success. These models include linear programming, nonlinear programming, dynamic programming, integer programming, and multiobjective programming.

314
Q

Matrix diagram

A

A data analysis table that shows the strength between variables and relationships in the matrix.

315
Q

McClelland’s Theory of Needs

A

David McClelland developed this theory, which states our needs are acquired and developed by our experiences over time. All people are, according to this theory, driven by one of three needs: achievement, affiliation, or power.

316
Q

McGregor’s Theory of X and Y

A

Douglas McGregor’s theory that states management views workers in the Y category as competent and self-led and workers in the X category as incompetent and needing to be micromanaged.

317
Q

Media selection

A

Based on the audience and the message being sent, the media should be in alignment with the message.

318
Q

Medium

A

he device or technology that transports a message.

319
Q

Meeting management

A

Meetings are forms of communication. How the meeting is led, managed, and controlled all influence the message being delivered. Agendas, minutes, and order are mandatory for effective communications within a meeting.

320
Q

Metaphor

A

To explain how a project will be completed successfully to stakeholders by use of real-world examples of systems and components.

321
Q

Milestone

A

Milestones are significant points or events in the project’s progress that represent accomplishment in the project. Projects usually create milestones as the result of completing phases within the project.

322
Q

Milestone list

A

This list details the project milestones and their attributes. It is used for several areas of project planning, but also helps determine how quickly the project may be achieving its objectives.

323
Q

Mind mapping

A

This approach maps ideas to show the relationship among requirements and the differences between requirements. The map can be reviewed to identify new solutions or to rank the identified requirements.

324
Q

Mitigation

A

A risk response effort to reduce the probability and/or impact of an identified risk in the project.

325
Q

Minimal Viable Product (MVP)

A

A product with only the essential features delivered to early adopters to receive feedback.

326
Q

Minimal Marketing Feature (MMF)

A

The smallest feature of a product that provides value to the end-user.

327
Q

Monopoly money

A

To give fake money to business features in order to compare the relative priority of those features.

328
Q

Monte Carlo analysis

A

A project simulation approach named after the world-famous gambling district in Monaco. This predicts how scenarios may work out, given any number of variables. The process does not actually churn out a specific answer, but a range of possible answers. When Monte Carlo analysis is applied to a schedule, it can examine, for example, the optimistic completion date, the pessimistic completion date, and the most likely completion date for each activity in the project and then predict a mean for the project schedule.

329
Q

Monte Carlo technique

A
  • A simulation technique that got its name from the casinos of Monte Carlo, Monaco. The simulation is completed using a computer software program that can simulate a project, using values for all possible variables, to predict the most likely model.
330
Q

MoSCoW Analysis

A

An analysis used to help stakeholders understand the importance of each requirement delivered. MoSCoW is the acronym for Must have, Should have, Could have, and Would like to have.

331
Q

Multicriteria decision analysis

A

A method to rate potential project team members based on criteria such as education, experience, skills, knowledge, and more.

332
Q

Multidivisional structure

A

Describe organizations that have duplication of efforts within the organization, but not within each department or division of the organization. Project manager has little authority in this structure and the functional manager controls the project budget.

333
Q

Murder boards

A

These are committees that ask every conceivable negative question about the proposed project. Their goals are to expose the project’s strengths and weaknesses, and to kill the project if it’s deemed unworthy for the organization to commit to. Also known as project steering committees or project selection committees.

334
Q

Negative stakeholder

A

A stakeholder who does not want the project to exist and is opposed to the project.

335
Q

Negotiation

A

To reach an agreement between two or more parties to resolve a conflict.

336
Q

Negotiable

A

Anything opened to discussion.

337
Q

Net present value

A
  • Evaluates the monies returned on a project for each period the project lasts.
338
Q

Neutral stakeholder

A
  • A stakeholder who has neither a positive nor negative attitude about the project’s existence.
339
Q

Neutral stakeholder status

A

Part of stakeholder analysis classification. A neutral stakeholder is aware of your project and is not concerned if the project succeeds or fails.

340
Q

Noise

A

Anything that interferes with or disrupts a message.

341
Q

Nominal group technique

A

As with brainstorming, participants are encouraged to generate as many ideas as possible, but the suggested ideas are ranked by a voting process.

342
Q

Nonverbal

A

Facial expressions, hand gestures, and body language are nonverbal cues that contribute to a message. Approximately 55 percent of communication is nonverbal.

343
Q

Norming

A

Project team members go about getting the project work, begin to rely on one another, and generally complete their project assignments.

344
Q

NPV

A

Net Present Value- A value that compares the amount invested today to the present value of future cash receipts from the investment.

345
Q

Oligopoly

A

A market condition where the market is so tight that the actions of one vendor affect the actions of all the others.

346
Q

100-Point Method

A
  • A method that allows customers to score (total 100 points) different features of a product.
347
Q

Opportunity cost

A
  • The total cost of the opportunity that is refused to realize an opposing opportunity.
348
Q

Ordinal scales

A

A ranking approach that identifies and ranks the risks from very high to very unlikely or to some other value.

349
Q

Organic or simple

A

Describes a loosely organized business or organization. There likely are not big formal departments and people work alongside one another regardless of roles and titles. The project manager likely has little control over the project resources and may not be called a project manager.

350
Q

Organization chart

A

Traditional chart that depicts how the organization is broken down by department and disciplines. This chart is sometimes called the organizational breakdown structure (OBS) and is arranged by departments, units, or teams.

351
Q

Organizational knowledge repositories

A

Organizational knowledge repositories are the databases, files, and historical information that you can use to help better plan and manage your projects. This is an organizational process asset that is created internally to your organization through the ongoing work of operations and other projects.

352
Q

Organizational process assets

A

Organizational process assets include organizational processes, policies, procedures, and items from a corporate knowledge base. Organizational process assets are grouped into two categories to consider: processes, policies and procedures, and organizational knowledge bases.

353
Q

Organizational risks

A

The performing organization can contribute to the project’s risks through unreasonable cost, time, and scope expectations; poor project prioritization; inadequate funding or the disruption of funding; and competition with other projects for internal resources.

354
Q

Organizational system

A

A system can create things by working with multiple components that the individual components could not create if they worked alone. The structure of the organization and the governance framework creates constraints that affect how the project manager makes decisions within the project. The organizational system directly affects how the project manager utilizes their power, influence, leadership, and even political capital, to get things done in the environment.

355
Q

Osmotic communication

A

To communicate by sharing an environment.

356
Q

Ouchi’s Theory Z

A

William Ouchi’s theory is based on the participative management style of the Japanese. This theory states that workers are motivated by a sense of commitment, opportunity, and advancement.

357
Q

Pair programming

A

When developers work together in XP Practice

358
Q

Paralingual

A

The pitch, tone, and inflections in the sender’s voice affecting the message being sent.

359
Q

Parametric estimate

A

A quantitatively based duration estimate that uses mathematical formulas to predict how long an activity will take based on the quantities of work to be completed.

360
Q

Parametric estimating

A

An approach using a parametric model to extrapolate what costs will be needed for a project (for example, cost per hour and cost per unit). It can include variables and points based on conditions.

361
Q

Pareto diagram

A
  • A histogram that illustrates and ranks categories of failure within a project.
362
Q

Pareto Principle

A
  • Known as the 80/20 rule. For Agile projects, it means that 80% of all development should be spent on the top 20% of the features the customers need.
363
Q

Parking lot

A

A storage place for ideas that distract from the main goal during a meeting.

364
Q

Parkinson’s Law

A
  • A theory that states: “Work expands so as to fill the time available for its completion.” It is considered with time estimating, because bloated or padded activity estimates will fill the amount of time allotted to the activity.
365
Q

Participatory decision models

A

To have stakeholder’s involvement in decision making with techniques such as a simple vote.

366
Q

Passive observation

A

The observer records information about the work being completed without interrupting the process; sometimes called the invisible observer.

367
Q

Payback period

A

An estimate to predict how long it will take a project to pay back an organization for the project’s investment of capital.

368
Q

Performance report

A

A report that depicts how well a project is performing. Often, the performance report is based on earned value management and may include cost or schedule variance reports.

369
Q

Performing

A

If a project team can reach the performing stage of team development, they trust one another, work well together, and issues and problems get resolved quickly and effectively.

370
Q

Persona

A

A depiction of the customer of system with applicable details about usage.

371
Q

Personal or charismatic power

A

The project manager has a warm personality that others like.

372
Q

Personnel loss

A

When an employer faces the loss of a human resource through death, injury, or disability of an employee.

373
Q

PESTLE

A

A prompt list used for risk identification. PESTLE examines risks in the Political, Economic, Social, Technological, Legal, and Environmental domains.

374
Q

Physical environment

A

The physical structure and surroundings that affect a project’s work.

375
Q

Pig

A
  • A committed individual impacted by the outcome.
376
Q

Plan-Do-Check-Act

A
  • Work cycle in smaller, quick iterations than traditional.
377
Q

Planning game

A
  • To prioritize work and estimate effort required by creation of a release plan in XP.
378
Q

Planning poker

A
  • A tool used to estimate team effort on user stories.
379
Q

Planned Value (PV)

A
  • Planned value is the work scheduled and the budget authorized to accomplish that work. It is the
    percentage of the BAC that reflects where the project should be at this point in time.
380
Q

Planning package

A
  • A WBS entry located below a control account and above the work packages. A planning package signifies that there is more planning that needs to be completed for this specific deliverable.
381
Q

Plurality

A
  • A group-decision method where the largest part of the group makes the decision when it’s less
    than 50 percent of the total. (Consider three or four factions within the stakeholders.)
381
Q

PMI Talent Triangle

A
  • Defines three areas of PDUs for PMI certified professionals to maintain their certification. The PMI Talent Triangle includes technical project management, leadership, and strategic and business management.
382
Q

Political interfaces

A
  • The hidden goals, personal agendas, and alliances among the project team members and the
    stakeholders.
383
Q

Positional power

A
  • The project manager’s power is because of the position she has as the project manager. This is also known as formal, authoritative, and legitimate power.
384
Q

Positive stakeholder

A
  • A stakeholder who sees the benefits of the project and is in favor of the change the project is to
    bring about.
385
Q

Positive value

A
  • To maximize value through incremental work in order to gain competitive advantage.
386
Q

Practitioner

A
  • A person who is serving in the capacity of a project manager or contributing to the management of a project, portfolio of projects, or program. For example, a program manager is considered to be a project practitioner under this definition.
387
Q

Precedence diagramming method

A
  • A network diagram that shows activities in nodes and the relationship between each activity.
    Predecessors come before the current activity, and successors come after the current activity.
388
Q

Pre-Mortem

A
  • Team members asked to define reasons of a project’s failure and to identify causes of failure missed in previous analyses.
389
Q

Present value

A
  • A way to calculate the time value of money.
  • A benefit comparison model to determine the present value of a future amount of money. The
    formula to calculate present value is PV = FV ÷ (1 + I)n, where FV is future value, I is the given interest rate, and n is the number of periods.
390
Q

Presentation

A

In formal presentations, the presenter’s oral and body language, visual aids, and handouts all influence the message being delivered.

391
Q

Pressure-based power

A

The project manager can restrict choices to get the project team to perform and do the project work.

392
Q

Privity

A
  • The contractual relationship between the buyer and the seller is often considered confidential and secret
393
Q

Probability and impact matrix

A
  • A matrix that ranks the probability of a risk event occurring and its impact on the project if the event does happen; used in qualitative and quantitative risk analyses.
394
Q

Process groups

A
  • A collection of related processes in project management. There are five process groups and 49 project management processes. The five process groups are Initiating, Planning, Executing, Monitoring and Controlling, and Closing.
395
Q

Process tailoring

A
  • To perfect agile processes for a particular project and environment.
396
Q

Procurement management plan

A
  • The procurement management plan controls how the project will acquire goods and services.
  • A project management subsidiary plan that documents the decisions made in the procurement
    planning processes.
397
Q

Procurement planning

A
  • A process to identify which parts of the project warrant procurement from a vendor by the buyer.
398
Q

Productivity

A
  • The effectiveness of production, usually measured with output per unit of input.
399
Q

Productivity variation

A
  • The difference between the planned and actual performance.
400
Q

Product acceptance criteria

A
  • This project scope statement component works with the project requirements, but focuses specifically on the product and what the conditions and processes are for formal acceptance of the product.
401
Q

Product backlog

A

The known features for a project.

402
Q

Product breakdown

A

A scope definition technique that breaks down a product into a hierarchical structure, much like a WBS breaks down a project scope.

403
Q

Product road map

A

An artifact that displays planned project functionality.

404
Q

Product scope

A

Defines the product or service that will come about as a result of completing the project. It defines the features and functions that characterize the product.

405
Q

Product scope description

A

This is a narrative description of what the project is creating as a deliverable for the project customer.

406
Q

Product vision

A
  • A document that describes what the product is, who will use the product, why the product will be used, and how the product supports the strategy of a company.
407
Q

Product vision statement

A
  • A statement that defines the purpose and value of the product.
408
Q

Professional Development Units (PDUs)

A

PDUs are earned after the PMP to maintain the PMP certification. PMPs are required to earn 60 PDUs per three-year certification cycle. Of the 60 PDUs, a minimum of 35 hours must come from educational opportunities.

409
Q

Profile analysis meeting

A

This is an analysis meeting to examine and document the roles in the project. The role’s interests, concerns, influence, project knowledge, and attitude are documented.

410
Q

Program

A

A collection of related projects working in unison toward a common deliverable.

411
Q

Programmer

A

The role of a team member that writes the code, a role used in XP.

412
Q

Progressive elaboration

A

The process of gathering project details. This process uses deductive reasoning, logic, and a series of information-gathering techniques to identify details about a project, product, or solution.

413
Q

Project

A

A temporary endeavor to create a unique product, service, or result. The end result of a project is also called a deliverable.

414
Q

Project assumptions

A

A project assumption is a factor in the planning process that is held to be true but not proven to be true.

415
Q

Project benefits management plan

A

A document created and maintained by the project sponsor and the project manager. The project benefits management plan defines what benefits the project will create, when the benefits will be realized, and how the benefits will be measured.

416
Q

Project boundaries

A

A project boundary clearly states what is included with the project and what’s excluded from the project. This helps to eliminate assumptions between the project management team and the project customer.

417
Q

Project business case

A

Created and maintained by the project sponsor and shows the financial validity of why a project is chartered and launched within the organization. Typically, the project business case is created before the launch of the project and may be used as a go/no-go decision point.

418
Q

Project calendars

A

Calendars that identify when the project work will occur.

419
Q

Project charter

A

This document authorizes the project. It defines the initial requirements of the project stakeholders. The project charter is endorsed by an entity outside of the project boundaries.

420
Q

Project constraints

A

A constraint is anything that limits the project manager’s options. Consider a predetermined budget, deadline, resources, or materials the project manager must use within the project—these are all examples of project constraints.

421
Q

Project environment

A

The location and culture of the environment where the project work will reside. The project environment includes the social, economic, and environmental variables the project must work with or around.

422
Q

Project float

A

This is the total time the project can be delayed without passing the customer-expected completion date.

423
Q

Project life cycle

A

The phases that make up the project. Project life cycles are unique to the type of work being performed and are not universal to all projects.

424
Q

Project Management Office (PMO)

A
  • A business unit that centralizes the operations and procedures of all projects within the organization. The PMO can be supportive, controlling, or directive.
  • A central office that oversees all projects within an organization or within a functional department. A PMO supports the project manager through software, training, templates, policies, communication, dispute resolution, and other services.
425
Q

Project management plan

A
  • The documented approach of how a project will be planned, executed, monitored and controlled, and then closed. This document is a collection of subsidiary management plans and related documents.
426
Q

Project management risks

A
  • These risks deal with faults in the management of the project: the unsuccessful allocation of time, resources, and scheduling; unacceptable work results; and poor project management.
427
Q

Project manager

A

The role of leading the project team and managing the project resources to effectively achieve the objectives of the project.

428
Q

Project network diagram

A

A diagram that visualizes the flow of the project activities and their relationships to other project activities.

429
Q

Project objectives

A

These are the measurable goals that determine a project’s acceptability to the project customer and the overall success of the project. Objectives often include the cost, schedule, technical requirements, and quality demands.

430
Q

Project portfolio management

A

The management and selection of projects that support an organization’s vision and mission. It is the balance of project priority, risk, reward, and return on investment. This is a senior management process.

431
Q

Project presentations

A

Presentations are useful in providing information to customers, management, the project team, and other stakeholders.

432
Q

Project records

A

All the business of the project communications is also part of the organizational process assets. This includes e-mails, memos, letters, and faxes.

433
Q

Project reports

A

Reports are formal communications on project activities, their status, and conditions.

434
Q

Project requirements

A

These are the demands set by the customer, regulations, or the performing organization that must exist for the project deliverables to be acceptable. Requirements are often prioritized in a number of ways, from “must have” to “should have” to “would like to have.”

435
Q

Project scope

A

This defines all of the work, and only the required work, to complete the project objectives.

436
Q

Project scope management plan

A
  • Defines how the project scope will be planned, managed, and controlled.
  • This project management subsidiary plan controls how the scope will be defined, how the
    project scope statement will be created, how the WBS will be created, how scope validation will proceed, and how the project scope will be controlled throughout the project.
437
Q

Project variance

A
  • The final variance, which is discovered only at the project’s completion. The formula is VAR = BAC – AC.
438
Q

Project-oriented structure

A
  • An organization that assigns a project team to one project for the duration of the project life cycle. The project manager has high-to-almost-complete project power.
439
Q

Proposal

A
  • A document the seller provides to the buyer. The proposal includes more than just a fee for the proposed work. It also includes information on the vendor’s skills, the vendor’s reputation, and ideas on how the vendor can complete the contracted work for the buyer.
440
Q

Prototyping

A
  • A model used to perfect requirements.
441
Q

Pull communication

A
  • This approach pulls the information from a central repository, like a database of information. Pull communications are good for large groups of stakeholders who want to access project information at their discretion. Consider a project web site where stakeholders can periodically drop by for a quick update on the project status.
  • This type of communication pulls information from a central repository. Pull communications allow stakeholders to retrieve information from a central source as needed.
442
Q

Punitive or coercive power

A

The project manager can punish the project team.

443
Q

Purchase Order (PO)

A

A purchase order is a form of unilateral contract that the buyer provides to the vendor showing that the purchase has been approved by the buyer’s organization.

444
Q

Pure risks

A
  • These risks have only a negative outcome. Examples include loss of life or limb, fire, theft, natural disasters, and the like.
445
Q

Push communication

A
  • This approach pushes the information from the sender to the receiver without any real acknowledgment that the information was really received or understood. Consider letters, faxes, voicemail messages, e-mails, and other communications modalities that the sender packages and sends to receivers through some intermediary network.
  • This type of communication happens when the sender pushes the same message to multiple people. Good examples of push communications are broadcast text messages, faxes, press releases, and group e-mails.
446
Q

Qualitative

A

Descriptive data used for analysis.

447
Q

Quality

A
  • The specifications and requirements of product or service measured against the standard product or service in the industry.
448
Q

Quality

A

According to ASQ, the degree to which a set of inherent characteristics fulfills requirements.

449
Q

Qualitative risk analysis

A

This approach “qualifies” the risks that have been identified in the project. Specifically, qualitative risk analysis examines and prioritizes risks based on their probability of occurring and their impact on the project should they occur.

450
Q

Quality assurance

A
  • A management process that defines the quality system or quality policy that a project must adhere to. QA aims to plan quality into the project rather than to inspect quality into a deliverable.
451
Q

Quality baseline

A

Documents the quality objectives for the project, including the metrics for stakeholder acceptance of the project deliverable.

452
Q

Quality management plan

A
  • This plan defines what quality means for the project, how the project will achieve quality, and how the project will map to organizational procedures pertaining to quality.
  • This plan defines how the project team will implement and fulfill the quality policy of the performing organization.
453
Q

Quality metrics

A

The operational definitions that specify the measurements within a project and the expected targets for quality and performance.

454
Q

Quality planning

A

The process of first determining which quality standards are relevant to your project and then finding out the best methods of adhering to those quality standards.

455
Q

Quantitative risk analysis

A
  • This approach attempts to numerically assess the probability and impact of the identified risks. It also creates an overall risk score for the project. This method is more in-depth than qualitative risk analysis and relies on several different tools to accomplish its goal.
456
Q

Quotation

A

From seller to buyer. Price is the determining factor in the decision-making process.

457
Q

RACI chart

A
  • A RACI chart is a matrix chart that only uses the activities of responsible, accountable, consult, and inform.
458
Q

RAG rating

A
  • An ordinal scale that uses red, amber, and green (RAG) to capture the probability, impact, and risk score.
459
Q

Receiver

A

The person who receives the message.

460
Q

Refactoring

A

To adjust working code to improve functionality and conservation.

461
Q

Referent power

A
  • The project team personally knows the project manager. Referent can also mean that the project manager refers to the person who assigned him the position.
  • The project manager is respected or admired because of the team’s past experiences with theproject manager. This is about the project manager’s credibility in the organization.
462
Q

Refinement

A
  • An update to the work breakdown structure.
463
Q

Regression analysis

A
  • This is a statistical approach to predicting what future values may be, based on historical values. Regression analysis creates quantitative predictions based on variables within one value to predict variables in another. This form of estimating relies solely on pure statistical math to reveal relationships between variables and to predict future values.
  • A mathematical model to examine the relationship among project variables, like cost, time, labor, and other project metrics.
464
Q

Relative prioritization

A
  • A list of all user stories and features ordered by highest priority to the lowest priority.
465
Q

Relative sizing

A

To estimate the size of a story in comparison with another story.

466
Q

Release

A
  • Iteration outcomes delivered to customers (end-users).
467
Q

Release plan

A
  • A document that describes the timeline of a product release.
468
Q

Reporting system

A

A reporting system is a software program to store and analyze project data for reporting. A common reporting system will take project data, allow the project manager to pass the data through earned value management, for example, and then create forecasting reports about the project costs and schedule.

469
Q

Request for Proposal (RFP)

A
  • From buyer to seller. Requests the seller to provide a proposal to complete the procured work or to provide the procured product.
470
Q

Request for Quote (RFQ)

A
  • From buyer to seller. Requests the seller to provide a price for the procured product or service.
471
Q

Requirements at a high level

A

Requirements are in the form of user stories, and collected at a high level to estimate a budget.

472
Q

Requirements documentation

A

This documentation of what the stakeholders expected in the project defines all of the requirements that must be present for the work to be accepted by the stakeholders.

473
Q

Requirements management plan

A
  • This subsidiary plan defines how changes to the project requirements will be permitted, how requirements will be tracked, and how changes to the requirements will be approved.
474
Q

Requirements prioritization model

A

A model to rate each feature with the calculation of weighted formula defined by the team.

475
Q

Requirements review

A

To review the requirements so they fulfill the needs and priorities of stakeholders.

476
Q

Requirements Traceability Matrix (RTM)

A

This is a table that maps the requirements throughout the project all the way to their completion.

477
Q

Reserve analysis

A
  • Cost reserves are for unknown unknowns within a project. The management reserve is not part of the project cost baseline, but is included as part of the project budget.
478
Q

Residual risks

A
  • Risks that are expected to remain after a risk response.
479
Q

Resistant stakeholder status

A
  • Part of stakeholder analysis classification. A resistant stakeholder is aware of your project, but
    they do not support the changes your project will create.
480
Q

Resource Breakdown Structure (RBS)

A
  • This hierarchical chart can decompose the project by the type of resources used throughout it.
  • This is a hierarchical breakdown of the project resources by category and resource type. For
    example, you could have a category of equipment, a category of human resources, and a category of materials. Within each category, you could identify the types of equipment your project will use, the types of human resources, and the types of materials.
481
Q

Resource calendars

A

Calendars that identify when project resources are available for the project work.

482
Q

Resource management plan

A

This plan defines staff acquisition, the timetable for staff acquisition, the staff release plan, training needs for the project team, any organizational compliance issues, rewards and recognitions, and safety concerns for the project team doing the project work.

483
Q

Resource-leveling heuristic

A

A method to flatten the schedule when resources are overallocated. Resource leveling can be applied using different methods to accomplish different goals. One of the most common methods is to ensure that workers are not overextended on activities.

484
Q

Responsibility

A

A responsibility is the work that a role performs.

485
Q

Responsibility Assignment Matrix (RAM)

A

A RAM chart shows the correlation between project team members and the work they’ve been
assigned to complete.

486
Q

Reward

A

The project manager has the authority to reward the project team.

487
Q

Risk

A

A project risk is an uncertain event or condition that can have a positive or negative impact on the project.

488
Q

Risk-adjusted backlog

A

A product backlog adjusted to help balance the risk and value factors of product.

489
Q

Risk-based spike

A

This spike helps the team remove major risks, and if the spike fails every approach possible, the project is defined as “fast failure”.

490
Q

Risk burn down

A

A chart that displays risk and success with feature vs. time.

491
Q

Risk identification

A

The systematic process of combing through the project, the project plan, the work breakdown structure, and all supporting documentation to identify as many risks that may affect the project as possible.

492
Q

Risk impact

A

To analyze the consequences of the risk if they occur based on their probability.

493
Q

Risk management plan

A

A project management subsidiary plan that defines how risks will be identified, analyzed, responded to, and monitored within the project. The plan also defines the iterative risk management process that the project is expected to adhere to.

494
Q

Risk owners

A

The individuals or entities that are responsible for monitoring and responding to an identified risk within the project.

495
Q

Risk probability

A

The likelihood that the risk will occur.

496
Q

Risk register

A
  • The risk register is a project plan component that contains all of the information related to the risk management activities. It’s updated as risk management activities are conducted to reflect the status, progress, and nature of the project risks.
  • The risk register is a centralized database consisting of the outcome of all the other risk management processes, such as the outcome of risk identification, qualitative analysis, and quantitative analysis.
497
Q

Risk report

A

The risk report explains the overall project risks and provides summaries about the individual project risks.

498
Q

Risk response audit

A

An audit to test the validity of the established risk responses.

499
Q

Risk response plan

A

This subsidiary plan defines the risk responses that are to be used in the project for both positive and negative risks.

500
Q

Risk responsibilities

A

The level of ownership an individual or entity has over a project risk.

501
Q

Risk severity

A

How much the risk’s consequences will influence the success or failure of a project. Risk Probability (%) x Risk Impact ($) = Risk Severity

502
Q

Risk score

A

The calculated score based on each risk’s probability and impact. The approach can be used in both qualitative and quantitative risk analysis.

503
Q

Risk-related contractual agreements

A

When the project management team decides to use transference to respond to a risk, a risk- related contractual agreement is created between the buyer and the seller.

504
Q

ROI

A

Return on Investment- The return an organization makes on an investment expressed by a percentage.

505
Q

Role

A

This denotes what a person is specifically responsible for in a project. Roles are usually tied to job titles, such as network engineer, mechanical engineer, and electrician.

506
Q

Rolling wave planning

A

The imminent work is planned in detail, while the work in the future is planned at a high level. This is a form of progressive elaboration.

507
Q

Root cause analysis

A
  • To investigate beyond the symptoms of the problem and to understand the root cause of the problem.
508
Q

Root cause diagram

A
  • A diagram that correlates different factors and the symptom.
509
Q

Root cause identification

A

Root cause identification aims to find out why a risk event may be occurring, the causal factors for the risk events, and then, eventually, how the events can be mitigated or eliminated.

510
Q

Rough order of magnitude

A

This rough estimate is used during the initiating processes and in top-down estimates. The range of variance for the estimate can be from –25 percent to +75 percent.

511
Q

Rule of seven

A

A component of a control chart that illustrates the results of seven measurements on one side of the mean, which is considered “out of control” in the project.

512
Q

Run chart

A

A quality control tool that shows the results of inspection in the order in which they’ve occurred. The goal of a run chart is first to demonstrate the results of a process over time and then to use trend analysis to predict when certain trends may reemerge.

513
Q

Satisfaction

A

The feeling of workers when their needs are fulfilled. Known as motivators.

514
Q

Scatter diagram

A
  • A quality control tool that tracks the relationship between two variables over time. The two variables are considered related the closer they track against a diagonal line.
515
Q

Schedule baseline

A
  • This is the planned start and finish of the project. The comparison of what was planned and what was experienced is the schedule variance.
516
Q

Schedule management plan

A
  • Defines how the project schedule will be created and managed.
  • A subsidiary plan in the project management plan. It defines how the project schedule will be
    created, estimated, controlled, and managed.
517
Q

Schedule milestones

A
  • The project customer may have specific dates when phases of the project should be completed. These milestones are often treated as project constraints.
518
Q

Schedule Performance Index (SPI)

A
  • Measures the project based on its schedule performance. The formula is SPI = EV/PV.
519
Q

Schedule Variance (SV)

A
  • The difference between the earned value and the planned value. * The formula is SV = EV – PV.
520
Q

Scope baseline

A
  • The scope baseline is a combination of three project documents: the project scope statement, the work breakdown structure, and the WBS dictionary. The creation of the project deliverable will be measured against the scope baseline to show any variances from what was expected and what the project team has created.
521
Q

Scope creep

A
  • The uncontrolled changes or growth in a project’s scope which goes beyond the initial agreement.
  • Undocumented, unapproved changes to the project scope.
522
Q

Scope validation

A
  • The formal inspection of the project deliverables, which leads to project acceptance.
523
Q

Scoring models

A
  • These models use a common set of values for all of the projects up for selection. For example, values can be profitability, complexity, customer demand, and so on.
524
Q

Screening system

A
  • A tool that filters or screens out vendors that don’t qualify for the contract.
525
Q

Scrum

A
  • A popular agile methodology.
526
Q

Scrum of scrums

A
  • Meetings used to organize large projects with scrum masters from different teams.
527
Q

Scum master

A
  • The leader that helps the team to follow Scrum methodology.
528
Q

Secondary risks

A

New risks that are created as a result of a risk response.

529
Q

Self-directing team

A
  • This team has the capability to make their own decisions, empowerment, mutual accountability, and collective ownership of a project, which leads them to be more productive and efficient.
530
Q

Self-organizing team

A
  • Naturally formed teams that interact with minimal management supervision.
531
Q

Seller rating systems

A
  • These are used by organizations to rate prior experience with each vendor that they have worked with in the past. The seller rating system can track performance, quality ratings, delivery, and even contract compliance.
532
Q

Sender

A
  • The person who is sending the message.
533
Q

Sender-receiver models

A
  • Communication requires a sender and a receiver. Within this model may be multiple avenues to complete the flow of communication, but barriers to effective communication may be present as well.
  • Feedback loops and barriers to communications.
534
Q

Sensitivity analysis

A
  • A quantitative risk analysis tool that examines each risk to determine which one has the largest impact on the project’s success.
535
Q

Servant leadership

A
  • The leader puts others first and focuses on the needs of the people he serves. Servant leaders provide opportunity for growth, education, autonomy within the project, and the well-being of others. The primary focus of servant leadership is service to others.
536
Q

Seven basic quality tools

A
  • These seven tools are used in quality planning and in quality control: cause-and-effect diagrams, flowcharts, check sheets, Pareto diagrams, histograms, control charts, and scatter diagrams.
537
Q

Sharing

A
  • A risk response that shares the advantages of a positive risk within a project.
538
Q

Shu-Ha-Ri Model

A
  • Originated in Japan as a way to understand learning and mastery, Shu – obeying the rules, Ha - consciously moving away from the rules, and Ri – consciously finding an individual path.
539
Q

Silo

A
  • Work that is isolated.
540
Q

Single source

A
  • Many vendors can provide what your project needs to purchase, but you prefer to work with a specific vendor.
541
Q

Situational power

A
  • The project manager has power because of certain situations in the organization.
542
Q

Smoothing

A
  • This approach smooths out the conflict by minimizing the perceived size of the problem. It is a temporary solution, but can calm team relations and boisterous discussions.
543
Q

Social media-based communication

A
  • Communication used conveniently to receive instant feedback, ideas, and requirements from a particular community.
544
Q

Soft logic

A
  • The activities don’t necessarily have to happen in a specific order. For example, you could install the light fixtures first, then the carpet, and then paint the room. The project manager could use soft logic to change the order of the activities if so desired.
545
Q

Software Development Life Cycle (SDLC)

A
  • This cycle tends to be long and requires a lot of advanced planning.
546
Q

Sole source

A
  • Only one vendor can provide what your project needs to purchase. Examples include a specific consultant, specialized service, or unique type of material.
547
Q

Special Cause

A
  • A cause that occurs once because of special reasons.
548
Q

Specification breakdown

A
  • This occurs when requirements for the specification are incomplete or conflicting.
549
Q

Spike

A
  • An experiment that helps a team answer a particular question and determine future actions.
550
Q

Sprint

A

A consistent iteration that lasts from one week to one month in order to measure velocity in Scrum.

551
Q

Sprint plan

A

A document that explains sprint goals, tasks, and requirements and how the tasks will reach completion.

552
Q

Sprint retrospective

A
  • A team-member meeting that occurs after each sprint to evaluate the product and process to improve efficiency and effectiveness.
553
Q

Sprint review

A
  • A meeting that occurs after each sprint to show the product or process to stakeholders for approval and to receive feedback.
554
Q

Stakeholder

A

Anyone who is affected by the existence of the project or who can affect the project’s existence. Stakeholders can enter and exit the project as conditions change within the project.

555
Q

Stakeholder analysis

A

A scope definition process where the project management team interviews the stakeholders and categorizes, prioritizes, and documents what the project customer wants and needs. The analysis is to determine, quantify, and prioritize the interests of the stakeholders. Stakeholder analysis demands quantification of stakeholder objectives; goals such as “good,” “satisfaction,” and“speedy” aren’t quantifiable.
* An activity that ranks stakeholders based on their influence, interests, and expectations of the
project. Stakeholders are identified and ranked, and then their needs and expectations are documented and addressed.

556
Q

Stakeholder classification models

A

These are charts and diagrams that help the project manager determine the influence of stakeholders in relation to their interest in the project. Common classification models include the power/interest grid, the power/influence grid, the influence/impact grid, and the salience model.

557
Q

Stakeholder engagement

A

The project manager works to keep the project stakeholders interested, involved, and supportive of the project. Through communication, management skills, and interpersonal skills, the project manager can work to keep the project stakeholders engaged and interested in the project.

558
Q

Stakeholder engagement plan

A

The stakeholder engagement plan documents a strategy for managing the engagement of project stakeholders. The stakeholder engagement plan establishes stakeholder engagement and defines how the project manager can increase and improve stakeholder engagement.

559
Q

Stakeholder engagement planning

A
  • The project manager works with the project team and subject matter experts to create a strategy to manage the project stakeholders.
560
Q

Stakeholder identification

A
  • A project initiation activity to identify, document, and classify the project stakeholders as early as possible in the project.
561
Q

Stakeholder management

A
  • The project management knowledge area that focuses on the management and engagement of the project stakeholders. There are four processes in this knowledge area: identify stakeholders, plan stakeholder management, manage stakeholder engagement, and monitor stakeholder engagement.
562
Q

Stakeholder notifications

A
  • Notices to the stakeholders about resolved issues, approved changes, and the overall health of the project.
563
Q

Stakeholder register

A
  • A documentation of each stakeholder’s contact information, position, concerns, interests, and attitude toward the project. The project manager updates the register as new stakeholders are identified and when stakeholders leave the project.
564
Q

Start-to-finish

A
  • An activity relationship that requires an activity to start so that its successor can finish. This is the most unusual of all the activity relationship types.
565
Q

Start-to-start

A
  • An activity relationship type that requires the current activity to start before its successor can start.
566
Q

Statistical sampling

A
  • A process of choosing a percentage of results at random. For example, a project creating a medical device may have 20 percent of all units randomly selected to check for quality.
567
Q

Status review meeting

A
  • A regularly scheduled meeting to discuss the status of the project and its progress toward completing the project scope statement.
568
Q

Story card

A
  • An index card that displays the user story.
569
Q

Story map

A
  • A prioritization tool that backlogged stories made smaller and organized by user functionality.
570
Q

Story point

A
  • A unit of measurement to estimate the difficulty of a user story.
571
Q

Storming

A
  • The project team struggles for project positions, leadership, and project direction. The project team can become hostile toward the project leader, challenge ideas, and try to establish and claim positions about the project work. The amount of debate and fury can vary depending on if the project team is willing to work together, the nature of the project, and the control of the project manager.
571
Q

Strong matrix structure

A
  • An organization where organizational resources are pooled into one project team, but the functional managers have less project power than the project manager.
572
Q

Style

A
  • The tone, structure, and formality of the message being sent should be in alignment with the audience and the content of the message.
573
Q

Subnet

A
  • A representation of a project network diagram that is often used for outsourced portions of projects, repetitive work within a project, or a subproject. Also called a fragnet.
574
Q

Subprojects

A
  • A smaller project managed within a larger, parent project. Subprojects are often contracted work whose deliverable allows the larger project to progress.
575
Q

Sunk costs

A
  • Monies that have already been invested in a project.
576
Q

Supportive stakeholder status

A
  • This is part of stakeholder analysis classification. A supportive stakeholder is aware of your project and is supportive and hopeful that the project will be successful.
577
Q

Sustainability

A
  • A maintainable pace of work that is intense yet steady.
578
Q

Swarming

A
  • When the team collaborates to focus on a single user story.
579
Q

SWOT analysis

A
  • SWOT analysis is the process of examining the project from the perspective of each characteristic: strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, and threats.
580
Q

System or process flowcharts

A
  • Flowcharts that illustrate the flow of a process through a system, such as a project change request through the change control system, or work authorization through a quality control process.
581
Q

Systems analysis

A
  • A scope definition approach that studies and analyzes a system, its components, and the
    relationship of the components within the system.
582
Q

Systems engineering

A
  • This project scope statement creation process studies how a system should work, designs and creates a system model, and then enacts the working system based on the project’s goals and the customer’s expectations. Systems engineering aims to balance the time and cost of the project in relation to the scope of the project.
583
Q

Tabaka’s Model

A
  • A model originated in Japan to describe a team with values that include self-organization, empowered to make decisions, belief in vision and success, a committed team, trust, participatory decision making, consensus-driven, and constructive disagreement.
584
Q

Tasks

A
  • The smaller jobs to fulfill a user story, usually divided among team members.
585
Q

Tacit knowledge

A
  • Knowledge that’s more difficult to express because it’s personal beliefs, values, knowledge gain
    from experience, and “know-how” when doing a task.
586
Q

Team

A
  • A group of individuals charged with the responsibility of delivery and value of a project.
587
Q

Teamwork

A
  • Team members function in a way that is collaborative to complete tasks and reach a common goal, mostly achieved with strong communication.
588
Q

Team empowerment

A
  • A team that is empowered has collaboration, responsibility, and self-sufficiency.
589
Q

Team formation

A
  • Formation happens when a team creates ground rules and processes to build bonds and shared
    goals.
590
Q

Team participation

A
  • When the team discusses the requirements that will fulfill the customer’s needs.
591
Q

Team space

A
  • An area for team members to collocate, usually a physical location, in some cases a virtual location is created.
592
Q

Team velocity

A
  • The number of story points completed during iteration, and used to determine the planned capacity.
593
Q

Technical debt

A
  • Technical decisions a team chooses to not implement currently, but must do so or face difficulty in the future.
594
Q

Technical interfaces

A
  • The project team identifies the disciplines and specialties that the project will require to complete the project scope statement. The technical interfaces are the resources that will be doing the project work.
595
Q

Technical, quality, or performance risks

A
  • Technical risks are associated with new, unproven, or complex technologies being used on the project. Changes to the technology during the project implementation can also be a risk. Quality risks are the levels set for expectations of impractical quality and performance.
596
Q

TECOP

A
  • A prompt list used in risk identification to examine the Technical, Environmental, Commercial, Operational, and Political factors of the project.
597
Q

Template

A
  • A previous project that can be adapted for the current project and forms that are pre-populated with organizational-specific information.
598
Q

Terms of reference

A
  • Defines the obligations for the seller, what the seller will provide, and all of the particulars of the contracted work. Terms of reference is similar to the statement of work.
599
Q

Test-Driven Development (TDD)

A
  • A written acceptance test for a module with the code built to pass the tests in order to ensure correct performance.
600
Q

Tester

A
  • Explains acceptance test to the customers then consistently measures the product against the test and records results for the team. (XP Role)
601
Q

Theme

A
  • A group of stories, iteration, or release’s idea determined by the customer and the team agrees with the idea.
602
Q

Three-point estimate

A
  • A technique for each activity that requires optimistic, most likely, and pessimistic estimates to be created. Based on these three estimates, an average can be created to predict how long the activity should take.
603
Q

Time and materials contract

A
  • A contract type in which the buyer pays for the time and materials for the procured work. This is a simple contract, usually for smaller procurement conditions. These contract types require a not- to-exceed clause, or the buyer assumes the risk for cost overruns.
604
Q

Time-boxing

A
  • To set a fixed delivery date for a project or release.
605
Q

Time reporting system

A
  • A system to record the actual time to complete project activities.
606
Q

To-complete performance index

A
  • A formula to forecast the likelihood of a project to achieve its goals based on what’s happening in the project right now. There are two different flavors for the TCPI, depending on what you want to accomplish. If you want to see if your project can meet the budget at completion, you’ll use this formula: TCPI = (BAC – EV)/(BAC – AC). If you want to see if your project can meet the newly created estimate at completion, you’ll use this version of the formula: TCPI = (BAC – EV)/(EAC – AC).
607
Q

Total float

A
  • This is the total time an activity can be delayed without delaying project completion.
608
Q

Tracker

A
  • A role in XP that measures the team’s progress, and communicates the measurements to the team.
609
Q

Traditional management

A
  • A top-down approach that consists of long cycles, heavy planning, and minimal customer involvement.
610
Q

Transactional leadership

A
  • The leader emphasizes the goals of the project and rewards and disincentives for the project team. This is sometimes called management by exception as it’s the exception that is reward or punished.
611
Q

Transference

A
  • A risk response that transfers the ownership of the risk to another party. Insurance, licensed contractors, or other project teams are good examples of transference. A fee and contractual relationships are typically involved with the transference of a risk.
612
Q

Transformational leadership

A
  • The leader inspires and motivates the project team to achieve the project goals. Transformational leaders aim to empower the project team to act, be innovative in the project work, and accomplish through ambition.
613
Q

Transparency

A
  • To show everyone’s involvement and progress to the entire team.
614
Q

Tree diagram

A

Tree diagrams show the hierarchies and decomposition of a solution, an organization, or a project team. The WBS and an org chart are examples of tree diagrams.

615
Q

Trend analysis

A
  • The science of using past results to predict future performance.
616
Q

Triple constraints of project management

A
  • Also known as the Iron Triangle. This theory posits that time, cost, and scope are three constraints that every project has.
617
Q

Two-way communication

A
  • To allow communication between parties so their concerns and perspectives are given for effective feedback.
618
Q

Unanimity

A

A group decision method where everyone must be in agreement.

619
Q

Unaware stakeholder status

A
  • Part of stakeholder analysis classification. An unaware status means the stakeholder doesn’t know about the project and the effect the project may create on the stakeholder.
620
Q

Unit testing

A
  • These tests are used for continuous feedback to achieve quality improvement and assurance.
621
Q

Usability testing

A
  • An exploratory test which uses a test subject to understand the usability of software.
622
Q

Users involvement

A
  • The active involvement of users in the development cycle of a project so team members can receive feedback about the user’s requirements.
623
Q

User story

A
  • At least one business requirement that increases the value for the user.
624
Q

Validation

A
  • The way to make sure that the product is acceptable to the customer.
625
Q

Value

A
  • The worth of a product, project, or service.
626
Q

Value analysis

A
  • As with value engineering, this approach examines the functions of the project’s product in relation to the cost of the features and functions. This is where, to some extent, the grade of the product is in relationship to the cost of the product.
627
Q

Value-based prioritization

A
  • To allow the PO or customer determine which function to implement first based on the value it delivers.
628
Q

Value-driven delivery

A
  • To realize the values needed to deliver a project.
629
Q

Value stream mapping

A
  • A tool used to analyze a chain of processes with the desired outcome of eliminating waste.
629
Q

Value engineering

A
  • This approach to project scope statement creation attempts to find the correct level of quality in relation to a reasonable budget for the project deliverable while still achieving an acceptable level of performance of the product.
630
Q

Variability risks

A
  • A type of risk based on the variations that may occur in the project, such as production, number of quality errors, or even the weather.
631
Q

Variable costs

A

Costs that change based on the conditions applied in the project (the number of meeting participants, the supply of and demand for materials, and so on).

632
Q

Variance

A
  • The difference between what was expected and what was experienced.
633
Q

Variance

A
  • The measurement of how far apart data is from each other.
634
Q

Variance At Completion (VAC)

A
  • A forecasting formula that predicts how much of a variance the project will likely have based on current conditions within the project. The formula is VAC = BAC – EAC.
635
Q

Velocity

A
  • The total number of features that a team delivers in iteration.
636
Q

Verification

A
  • To ensure the product meets requirements and specifications.
637
Q

Virtual organization

A
  • Uses a network structure to communicate and interact with other groups and departments. A point of contact exists for each department and these department point of contact receive and send all messages for the department.
638
Q

Virtual team

A
  • A geographically distributed group that does not meet physically.
639
Q

Visibility

A
  • The team’s work and progress must be transparent to all stakeholders.
640
Q

Vroom’s Expectancy Theory

A
  • This theory states that people will behave based on what they expect as a result of their behavior. In other words, people will work in relation to the expected reward.
641
Q

VUCA

A
  • A prompt list used in risk identification that examines the Volatility, Uncertainty, Complexity, and Ambiguity of risk factors within the project.
642
Q

War room

A
  • A space where the team can work and collaborate effectively.
643
Q

Waterfall

A
  • Resistant to change that requires heavy planning and sequential, traditional approach.
644
Q

WBS dictionary

A

A WBS companion document that defines all of the characteristics of each element within the WBS.

645
Q

WBS template

A
  • A prepopulated WBS for repetitive projects. Previous projects’ WBSs are often used as templates for current similar projects.
646
Q

Weak matrix structure

A
  • An organization where organizational resources are pooled into one project team, but the functional managers have more project power than the project manager.
647
Q

Weighting system

A
  • This takes out the personal preferences of the decision maker in the organization to ensure that the best seller is awarded the contract. Weights are assigned to the values of the proposals, and each proposal is scored.
648
Q

Wide-Band Delphi Estimating

A
  • An estimation technique for user stories. The PO presents user stories & discusses challenges. Each story’s estimates plotted, and then the team comes to an agreement on the range of points.
649
Q

WIP

A
  • Work-In-Progress- Stories that have started, which are displayed in workflows to show progress and what still needs to be completed.
650
Q

WIP Limits

A
  • To limit work-in-progress so a team can do the following: maintain focus on completing work, maintaining quality, and delivering value.
651
Q

Wireframe

A
  • A lightweight non-functional UI design that shows the customer the vital elements and how they will interact before coding.
652
Q

Withdrawal

A
  • This conflict resolution method sees one side of the argument walking away from the problem, usually in disgust.
653
Q

Work Breakdown Structure (WBS)

A
  • A deliverables-oriented breakdown of the project scope.
654
Q

Workflow

A
  • A series of phases or stages the team has agreed to execute for a project.
655
Q

Work package

A
  • The smallest item in the work breakdown structure.
656
Q

Work performance data

A
  • Raw data, observations, and measurements about project components. Work performance data is gathered and stored in the project management information system.
657
Q

Work performance information

A
  • Work performance information is the processed and analyzed data that will help the project manager make project decisions.
658
Q

Work performance reports

A
  • Work performance reports is the formatted communication of work performance information. Work performance reports communicate what is happening in the project through status reports, memos, dashboards, or other modalities.