questions Flashcards
1
Q
What is brain plasticity?
A
Brain plasticity is the capacity of the brain to reorganize its circuitry.
2
Q
How are neurochemistry and behavior related?
A
Behavior affects neurochemistry.
3
Q
What is the effect of environmental events on schizophrenia?
A
Environmental events may cause schizophrenia, resulting in increased activity in dopaminergic systems.
4
Q
What are the two divisions of the peripheral nervous system?
A
The two divisions are the somatic and autonomic nervous system.
5
Q
What are the functions of the sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systems?
A
The sympathetic system readies the body for action, while the parasympathetic system shuts down the digestive process.
6
Q
What can an overactive autonomic nervous system lead to?
A
An overactive autonomic nervous system can increase readiness to acquire phobias or other anxiety disorders.
7
Q
What is the heritable component for level of emotionality?
A
There is a heritable component for level of emotionality.
8
Q
How can deficits in the regulation of ANS functions influence behavior?
A
Deficits in regulation of ANS functions can influence disordered behavior.
9
Q
What can decreased parasympathetic regulation of heart rate and respiration indicate?
A
Decreased parasympathetic regulation of heart rate and respiration can indicate generalized anxiety disorder (GAD).
10
Q
What can an inflexibility of the autonomic and somatic systems manifest as in GAD?
A
An inflexibility of the autonomic and somatic systems can manifest as constant worry and an inability to control or stop the worry in GAD.
11
Q
What type of thought can predict later symptoms of GAD?
A
Repetitive thought can predict later symptoms of GAD, not depression.
12
Q
How does the endocrine system interact with the CNS?
A
The endocrine system and CNS interact in a feedback loop to maintain homeostatic levels of hormones circulating in the bloodstream.
13
Q
What is the HPA axis?
A
The HPA axis refers to the hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenal cortex axis.
14
Q
What is the role of cortisol in the HPA axis?
A
Cortisol is released into the bloodstream by the adrenal cortex in the HPA axis and has anti-inflammatory effects and other survival benefits.
15
Q
What is implicated in the etiology of depression and anxiety?
A
Sensitivity to stress is implicated in the etiology of depression and anxiety.
16
Q
What can sensitivity to stress lead to?
A
Sensitivity to stress can lead to an increase in the number of intracellular glucocorticoid receptors.
17
Q
What is cretinism?
A
Cretinism is a condition characterized by dwarf-like appearance and mental disability, resulting from a defective thyroid gland.
18
Q
What happens in hypoglycemia?
A
In hypoglycemia, the pancreas fails to produce insulin.
19
Q
Is human behavior solely determined by inherited characteristics?
A
No, human behavior is not solely determined by inherited characteristics.
20
Q
What does behavioral genetics offer insight into?
A
Behavioral genetics offers insight into the biological bases of abnormal functioning.
21
Q
What does genotype-environment interaction suggest?
A
Genotype-environment interaction suggests a reciprocal relationship between genetic predisposition and environmental risk factors.
22
Q
What kind of interaction is required to explain the onset of a disorder?
A
A complex interaction of both genetic predisposition and environmental risk factors is required to explain the onset of a disorder.
23
Q
What did a study investigate the link between?
A
A study investigated the link between a gene involved in serotonin transmission, stressful life events, and depression.
24
Q
How did people with different alleles of the gene cope differently?
A
People with two LL alleles of the gene coped better than people with two SS alleles of the gene.
25
What did the study find in terms of depression?
There was no direct link between the gene and depression.
26
When did people with two SS alleles develop depression?
People with two SS alleles developed depression only if they also experienced stressful life events.
27
What environmental factor increases the risk of developing schizophreniform disorder?
The use of cannabis increases the risk of developing schizophreniform disorder.
28
What type of studies investigate the genetic bases of psychiatric disorders?
Family studies, twin studies, adoption studies, genetic linkage studies, and molecular biology studies.
29
What are some methods used in genetic linkage studies?
Methods used in genetic linkage studies include analyzing DNA markers and identifying genetic variants.
30
What are some methods used in molecular biology studies?
Methods used in molecular biology studies include examining gene expression and protein analysis.
31
How can comparing different studies contribute to understanding genetic bases of psychiatric disorders?
Comparing different studies can help identify consistent findings and patterns in the genetic bases of psychiatric disorders.
32
What are the different forms in which hallucinogens like mushrooms and MDMA are ingested?
They can be ingested in capsule or tablet form or as a liquid applied to a small paper and then placed on the tongue.
33
Who discovered LSD?
LSD was discovered by Swiss chemist Hoffman.
34
What is PCP and how is it consumed?
PCP is a dissociative anaesthetic that is smoked.
35
What is the prevalence of hallucinogen use in one's lifetime?
The prevalence of hallucinogen use at some point in life is 13.1%.
36
What are the effects of hallucinogens dependent on?
The effects of hallucinogens depend on variables like personality and the amount ingested.
37
What is the prevalence of hallucinogen use within one year?
The use of hallucinogens within one year is less than 1%.
38
What role does the setting play in the effects of hallucinogens?
The setting is very important in determining the effects of hallucinogens.
39
What are some sensory experiences associated with hallucinogens?
Hallucinogens can cause vivid visual hallucinations.
40
What is synesthesia in the context of hallucinogens?
Synesthesia is the transference of stimuli from one sense to another.
41
How do hallucinogens affect the central nervous system?
Hallucinogens have an excitatory effect on the CNS.
42
How do hallucinogens mimic the effects of serotonin?
Hallucinogens mimic the effects of serotonin by acting on serotonin receptors.
43
What are flashbacks in relation to hallucinogens?
Flashbacks are unpredictable recurrences of some physical or perceptual distortions experienced during a trip.
44
What is Hallucinogen Persisting Perception Disorder?
Hallucinogen Persisting Perception Disorder is applied if flashbacks cause significant distress or interfere with social or occupational functioning.
45
What is the addictive potential of hallucinogens?
Hallucinogens have little addictive potential.
46
What is the frequency of heavy hallucinogen use?
Heavy users of hallucinogens rarely consume them more than once every few weeks.
47
What happens when a user develops tolerance to hallucinogens?
When a user develops tolerance to hallucinogens, they no longer experience the hallucinogenic effects, but the physiological effects are still present.
48
What are the short-term effects of gambling?
Gambling provides short-lived pleasurable feelings and relief from negative feelings.
49
What can gambling induce in terms of mood and arousal?
Gambling can alter mood and level of arousal, inducing an altered state of perception.
50
What is the prevalence of gambling among adults?
Approximately 80% of adults gamble.
51
Which form of gambling is the most popular?
Lottery games are the most popular form of gambling.
52
What is Gambling Disorder?
Gambling Disorder is included in the substance-related and addictive disorders.
53
Are gambling and other addictive disorders considered equal?
Gambling and other addictive disorders are considered as cross-addictions and functionally equal forms of behavior that satisfy similar needs.
54
How many problem gamblers attend formal treatment?
As few as 10% of problem gamblers will attend formal treatment.
55
What strategies are used in treating problem gamblers?
Brief treatments focusing on motivational issues are effective for treating problem gamblers, similar to other addictive disorders.
56
What is the twofold strategy used in self-help workbooks for problem gamblers?
The twofold strategy involves incorporating practical information about recovery strategies into a brief self-help workbook and providing brief telephone support focused on motivation to implement the change strategies.
57
What type of interventions have been used for gambling disorders?
Web-based interventions with cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT) have been employed for gambling disorders.
58
What percentage of cases is essential hypertension?
Almost 90% of cases of hypertension are essential, meaning that the cause cannot be identified.
59
What is a stress reactivity paradigm used for?
A stress reactivity paradigm is used to examine how psychological factors affect physiological ones.
60
What does cardio reactivity refer to?
Cardio reactivity refers to how much a person's cardiovascular function changes in response to a psychologically significant stimulus.
61
What physiological factors are influenced by stress reactivity?
Heart rate, blood pressure, peripheral resistance, hormones, blood pumped by the left ventricle, and abnormalities in chamber wall motion are influenced.
62
How does stress affect the stickiness of blood platelets?
Stressors can reverse the reduction in stickiness of blood platelets produced by dietary supplements containing essential fatty acids.
63
What does cardio reactivity contribute to?
Cardio reactivity contributes to the development of atherosclerosis.
64
What was observed in monkeys raised in an experimental colony?
Monkeys who showed a higher increase in heart rate in reaction to threat also showed significant more atherosclerosis.
65
How can socially disrupting monkeys promote the development of atherosclerosis?
Repeatedly moving monkeys between groups can promote the development of atherosclerosis, even without feeding them an atherogenic diet.
66
What was the best predictor of worsening atherosclerosis over two years in a study?
The magnitude of systolic blood pressure during the Stroop colour-word conflict test was the best predictor.
67
What personality type is twice as likely to die from heart disease?
Type A personality is twice as likely to die from heart disease.
68
Which trait of Type A personality mainly accounts for increased risk of heart disease?
Hostility is the main trait accounting for increased risk of heart disease.
69
What are the three components of hostility?
Affective, cognitive/attitudinal, and behavioral components.
70
What is the psychophysiological reactivity model?
The psychophysiological reactivity model suggests that hostile people are at higher risk because they experience exaggerated autonomic and neuroendocrine responses during stress.
71
What is the psychosocial vulnerability model?
The psychosocial vulnerability model suggests that hostile people experience a more demanding interpersonal life.
72
What is the transactional model?
The transactional model suggests that the behavior of hostile people constructs a social world that is antagonistic and unsupportive, leading to increased vulnerability.
73
What is the health behavior model?
The health behavior model suggests that hostile people may be more likely to engage in unhealthy behaviors and less likely to engage in healthy practices.
74
What is the final theory linking hostility to poor health outcomes?
The final theory suggests that the link between hostility and poor health outcomes is the result of a third variable: constitutional vulnerability.
75
What are the two generic approaches to the management of stress?
The two generic approaches are relaxation training and cognitive behavioral techniques.
76
What is the goal of relaxation training?
The goal of relaxation training is to prevent or inhibit stress-induced physiological and neuroendocrine responses.
77
What is the focus of cognitive behavioral techniques?
Cognitive behavioral techniques focus on helping a person identify thinking styles that promote stress and devise new ways of thinking and acting to counteract stress.
78
What do interventions directed toward specific psychosocial variables aim to do?
Interventions directed toward specific psychosocial variables aim to play a role in the etiology of disease.
79
What did a study on stress-management for hypertension find?
Such interventions produced significant reductions in systolic blood pressure.
80
What type of interventions produce marked reductions in systolic blood pressure?
Interventions that involve many components or that are individualized based on the patient's psychological traits produce marked reductions in systolic blood pressure.
81
What is construct validity and why is it important for psychological testing?
Construct validity refers to the extent to which a test measures what it claims to measure. It is important for psychological testing because if a test does not have good construct validity, it may not accurately assess the intended psychological construct.
82
What is the clinical approach in patient assessment?
The clinical approach argues that there is no substitute for the clinician's experience and personal judgment, guided by intuition and personal experience.
83
What is the actuarial approach in patient assessment?
The actuarial approach relies on unbiased, scientifically validated statistical procedures and empirical methods for patient assessment.
84
Why do clinicians continue to rely on the clinical approach despite research favoring the actuarial approach?
Despite research favoring the actuarial approach, clinicians continue to rely on the clinical approach due to their belief in the importance of their experience and personal judgment.
85
Why is it important to conduct a medical examination along with a psychological one in biological assessment?
A medical examination is important to rule out any physiological bases for a disorder that may cause similar symptoms to some mental disorders. Examples include thyroid dysfunction, brain tumors, or epilepsy.
86
What is an EEG and how is it used in biological assessment?
EEG (Electroencephalography) uses electrodes placed on the scalp to measure electrical activity in the brain. It can detect seizure disorders, brain lesions, and tumors.
87
What are the uses of computed tomography (CT) in brain imaging?
CT uses a band of x-rays projected through the head to produce 2D brain images. It helps improve resolution by injecting iodinated radiopaque and has confirmed ideas about brain functioning in psychopathology.
88
What are some brain abnormalities observed in neurological disorders using brain imaging techniques?
Using brain imaging techniques, cortical atrophy has been observed in Alzheimer's and schizophrenia, smaller frontal lobes in schizophrenia, smaller cerebellums in autism, and tissue loss in bipolar disorder.
89
What is magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) and what does it reveal in brain imaging?
MRI reveals the structure and function of the brain. It involves creating a magnetic field around the patient's head, causing atoms with odd atomic weights to align their electrons parallel to the electric field. This allows the detection of decreased grey matter volume and cortical thinning in schizophrenia.
90
What is functional MRI (fMRI) and what does it provide in brain imaging?
fMRI provides a dynamic view of metabolic changes in the active brain. It helps study brain activation patterns and has revealed, for example, decreased activation of the right prefrontal cortex in patients with schizophrenia, potentially related to negative symptoms.
91
What is positron emission tomography (PET) and how is it used in brain imaging?
PET combines computerized tomography with radioisotope imaging. It involves injecting or inhaling radioactive isotopes with short half-lives, which emit radiation that is measured by PET equipment. It helps detect abnormal metabolic activity or reduced blood flow in different brain regions.
92
What are the main differences between CT/MRI and PET/fMRI in brain imaging?
CT and MRI produce static anatomical images of the brain, while PET and fMRI produce dynamic images. Clinicians use both to detect abnormal metabolic activity or reduced blood flow in the brain.
93
How is neuropsychological testing used to determine the relationship between behavior and brain function?
Neuropsychological testing helps determine the relationship between behavior and brain function. For example, the Bender Visual-Motor Gestalt Test is often used, which involves copying and reproducing drawings to detect neuropsychological dysfunction.
94
What are the specific impairments to look for in the Bender Visual-Motor Gestalt Test?
When administering the Bender Visual-Motor Gestalt Test, specific impairments to look for include rotation of figures, preservation, fragmentation, oversimplification, inability to copy angles, and reversals. It's important to consider age-normed results due to differences in ability at different ages.
95
What are battery tests in neuropsychological assessment, and what is an example?
Battery tests examine multiple facets of a disorder. An example is the Halstead-Reitan test, which includes subtests such as the category test for frontal lobe function, the rhythm test for right temporal lobe functioning, and the tactual performance test for visual perception.
96
What is the diagnostic criteria for Bipolar I?
One or more manic episodes with or without a major depressive episode.
97
Is the presence of a depressive episode required for Bipolar I diagnosis?
No, it is not required but most patients have it.
98
How prevalent is Bipolar I?
0.8%
99
What are the diagnostic criteria for Bipolar II?
One or more hypomanic episodes and one or more major depressive episodes.
100
Is Bipolar II more difficult to diagnose than Bipolar I?
Yes.
101
What is the prevalence of Bipolar II?
0.5%
102
What is the duration of manic/hypomanic episodes in Bipolar disorder?
2 weeks to 4 months.
103
What is the duration of depressive episodes in Bipolar disorder?
6-9 months.
104
What are the rates of suicide in patients diagnosed with Bipolar disorder?
10-15%
105
At what age does Bipolar disorder typically onset?
Around 20 years.
106
When do 50% of patients with Bipolar disorder report first symptoms?
Around age 17.
107
What is cyclothymia?
A chronic but less severe form of Bipolar disorder.
108
What is the prevalence of cyclothymia?
0.4-1%
109
Are rates of cyclothymia equal in men and women?
Yes.
110
What should be done with caution when treating cyclothymia?
Using antidepressants, as they can trigger a full-blown manic episode in vulnerable patients.
111
What is the rapid cycling specifier in Bipolar disorder?
Presence of 4 or more manic and/or major depressive episodes in 12 months.
112
What are the associated features with rapid cycling Bipolar disorder?
Higher disability and poor treatment response.
113
Can antidepressants induce or worsen rapid cycling?
Yes.
114
What should be prescribed alongside antidepressants for rapid cycling patients?
A mood stabilizer like lithium.
115
What is Mood Disorder with Seasonal Pattern (SAD)?
Recurrent depressive episodes tied to changing seasons, particularly occurring in winter.
116
What is the prevalence of Seasonal Affective Disorder (SAD) in Canada?
2.3%
117
What percentage of patients with Major Depressive Disorder have SAD?
11%
118
How does melatonin play a role in SAD?
Melatonin levels increase in winter as nights grow longer, resulting in less switch from sleep to wakefulness.
119
What is the term for the dysregulation of the natural sleep/wake cycle in SAD?
Phase-Delayed Circadian Rhythm.
120
Do medications suppressing melatonin release relieve SAD symptoms?
No.
121
What is Mood Disorder with Peri- or Postpartum Onset?
Mood swings and feelings of depression experienced by new mothers, with severe cases meeting criteria for major depressive or manic episodes.
122
What percentage of women experience mood swings after childbirth?
As many as 70%.
123
In what percentage of new moms do mood swings become chronic and severe?
10-15%.
124
What is the rate of suicide in postpartum psychosis?
5%.
125
What is the rate of infanticide in postpartum psychosis?
4%.
126
What is the precursor to an ulcer?
The bacterium Helicobacter pylori.
127
What are the primary roles of Helicobacter pylori in the genesis of ulcers?
Attacking the lining of the stomach and being present in large amounts of people with ulcer disease.
128
What is the impact of stress on ulcer formation?
Stress may make a person more vulnerable to the influence of Helicobacter pylori.
129
What percentage of people who test positive for Helicobacter pylori show evidence of ulcer?
Only 20%.
130
What role do psychosocial variables play in ulcer cases?
Psychosocial variables are probably involved in 30-65% of ulcer cases.
131
What is ischemic heart disease?
A condition where the blood supply to the heart becomes compromised.
132
What is myocardial infarction?
A heart attack caused by the compromised blood supply to the heart.
133
What is a stroke?
An interruption of the blood supply to the brain leading to the death of neural tissue.
134
How is potential years of life lost (PYLL) calculated?
By subtracting the age of death from a person's life expectancy.
135
What are the functions of the cardiovascular system?
Providing nutrients and oxygen, eliminating waste, and delivering blood through the body.
136
What acts as a pump in the cardiovascular system?
The heart.
137
What is systole?
The phase when the heart pumps blood into the major arteries.
138
What is diastole?
The rest phase of the heart during the cardiac cycle.
139
What are the two influences on blood pressure (BP)?
The amount of liquid being pushed into the hose and the diameter of the tubing (blood vessels).
140
What determines cardiac output?
The rate at which the heart beats and the amount of blood ejected on each beat.
141
What determines total peripheral resistance?
The diameter of the blood vessels.
142
How does the sympathetic (S) system affect blood pressure?
Activation of the S system speeds up the heart rate, producing an increase in cardiac output and blood pressure.
143
How does the parasympathetic (P) system affect blood pressure?
Activation of the P system opposes the effects of the S system, leading to decreased heart rate.
144
What reinforces the changes produced by the sympathetic system arousal?
The release of catecholamines.
145
How are catecholamines distributed in the cardiovascular system?
They are circulated through the bloodstream, interacting with blood constituents and lining vessel walls.
146
What is atherosclerosis?
The buildup of deposits (plaques) on the walls of blood vessels, narrowing the artery openings.
147
What are some modifiable risk factors for atherosclerosis?
Dietary factors, smoking, and high cholesterol.
148
What are some protective factors against atherosclerosis?
Physical activity and exercise.
149
What is hypertension?
A high level of resting blood pressure.
150
What are the cardinal features of panic disorder?
Experiencing unexpected attacks and having marked apprehension & worry over experiencing additional attacks.
151
How is panic disorder diagnosed?
Through structured / semi-structured interviews, behavioral avoidance tests, symptom induction tests, psychological assessment, and self-report questionnaires.
152
What are some biological factors associated with panic disorder?
It runs in families, with relatives of probands being 5x more likely to develop it, but no specific genetic markers have been found. Biological challenges, such as hyperventilation, can induce panic attacks more frequently in individuals with panic disorder.
153
What is nocturnal panic?
It refers to panic attacks that occur while sleeping. Many with panic disorder report having this, with a sense of losing control or fear of letting go possibly underlying the panic-inducing properties.
154
What are some cognitive theories of panic disorder?
They suggest that individuals with panic disorder catastrophically misinterpret bodily sensations, interpreting them as a sign that something must be wrong. This causes further worry, leading to a sense of being out of control and experiencing a panic attack.
155
What is anxiety sensitivity?
It is the belief that the somatic symptoms related to anxiety will have negative consequences that extend beyond the panic episode itself.
156
What is the alarm theory of panic disorders?
It proposes that fight or flight/fear responses become activated in the presence of false alarms, which are emotionally charged objective threats. The attack and the triggering situation become associated with neural cues through classical conditioning, leading to fear and apprehension of external stimuli and internal sensations.
157
What is the prevalence of specific phobia in the population?
8.7% of the population is diagnosed with specific phobia per year, with a lifetime prevalence of 12.5%, which is higher in females.
158
What are some differences in fear prevalence across gender?
Women have more fears related to animals and situations, while men and women are equal in fear of injections and dental procedures. Across all stimuli, women have higher fear levels.
159
What are the diagnostic criteria for specific phobia?
There must be a marked and persistent fear of the object or situation, and exposure to the stimulus must invariably produce excessive and unreasonable anxiety.
160
What are the different subtypes of specific phobia?
1. Animal type, 2. Natural environment type, 3. Blood injection-injury type, 4. Situational type, 5. Other type
161
How does having a phobia from one subtype increase the chances of developing a phobia within the same category?
For example, fear of snakes can increase the chances of developing a fear of spiders rather than thunder.
162
What is illness phobia?
It is an intense fear of developing a disease that the person currently does not have.
163
What is the classical conditioning theory of fear regarding the etiology of phobias?
It is an associative model that assumes all neutral stimuli have an equal potential for becoming phobias. However, this premise is false as many stimuli seem to be consistently related to phobias.
164
What is the non-associative model regarding the etiology of phobias?
This model suggests that humans have evolved to respond fearfully to a select group of stimuli, and no learning is needed to develop these fears. It is supported by the high heritability of select phobias in families.
165
What is a criticism of the non-associative model of phobias?
The question raised is why not all adults have phobias toward evolutionarily dangerous stimuli.
166
What is the counterargument to the criticism of the non-associative model of phobias?
Counterarguments suggest that not all adults have phobias toward evolutionarily dangerous stimuli due to various factors or individual differences.
167
What are the two types of pharmacotherapy commonly used for BPD?
Lithium and Anticonvulsants
168
How do mood stabilizers like Lithium act in BPD treatment?
They may act via deactivating enzyme GSK-3B or by antagonizing glutamate
169
What are the side effects of Lithium?
Nausea, drowsiness, rash, tremor, weight gain
170
Why should pregnant women or people with liver problems avoid Lithium?
It is not well tolerated in these individuals or may become ineffective over time
171
When are antipsychotics and antidepressants used in BPD treatment?
Antipsychotics are used in acute manic or severe depressive episodes, while antidepressants help with hallucinations and can act as sleep-promoters for insomnia
172
What is the least risky antidepressant for BPD treatment?
Bupropion
173
What are the side effects of antipsychotics?
Increased risk of diabetes & cholesterol, tardive dyskinesia, facial tics, muscle spasms
174
What type of therapy is recommended for severely depressed patients?
Both medication and psychological therapy (combo)
175
What types of therapy are recommended for persistent depression?
Both medication and psychological therapy (combo)
176
What types of therapy are recommended for non-persistent or mild depression?
No advantage of combination therapy, medication alone is sufficient
177
What are the suggested treatments in adjunct to medication for BPD?
Family-focused therapy, interpersonal and social rhythm therapy, cognitive therapy
178
What is the recommended treatment for SAD?
Phototherapy (mimics sunlight for 30 min to 2 hrs)
179
What is electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) used for in BPD treatment?
Apply electrical current to the brain, more effective than medication and sham ECT
180
What should be monitored during ECT therapy?
Memory impairment, which can persist for months; reduced if current applied to 1 side of the brain
181
What is the mechanism of action of transcranial magnetic stimulation?
It stimulates nerve cells in the dorsolateral prefrontal cortex using a large electromagnetic coil
182
How does vagus nerve stimulation (VNS) work?
A surgically implanted pulse generator activates the vagus nerve to deliver stimulation to the brain periodically
183
What is the initial effect of vagus nerve stimulation with a surgically implanted generator?
It works better than the sham condition; however, it loses effect after about 10 weeks
184
Which neurostimulation treatment shows the least efficacy?
Deep brain stimulation
185
What is the cultural perspective on suicide in the West and Japan?
In the West, it is considered a crime, while in Japan, it is respected as a way to atone for failure
186
How many deaths and attempts by suicide occur worldwide?
Approximately 1 million deaths and 10-20 million attempts
187
What causes death in Canada among the top 10 leading causes?
Suicide, with a rate of 11.3 per 100 people
188
What is the leading cause of death among youth in Canada?
Suicide, which is the 2nd leading cause
189
What is the leading cause of death for teenagers aged 15 to 19?
Suicide (1st cause of death)
190
What behaviours encompass suicidal behaviours?
Suicidal ideation and suicidal gestures
191
What is the main treatment approach for Social Anxiety Disorder?
CBT group therapy that integrates cognitive restructuring and exposure.
192
What can enhance the learning during exposure treatment for Social Anxiety Disorder?
D-cycloserine, which works on NMDA receptors in the amygdala.
193
What are the recommended treatments for Generalized Anxiety Disorder (GAD)?
Antidepressants, azapirones, and CBT.
194
Which treatment is most recommended for reducing pathological worry in GAD?
CBT therapy.
195
What are the recommended treatments for Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder (OCD)?
Exposure and ritual prevention (ERP), clomipramine, fluvoxamine, and cognitive-behavioral interventions.
196
What are the recommended treatments for Body Dysmorphic Disorder (BDD)?
CBT therapy with cognitive restructuring and exposure, along with pharmacotherapy using SSRIs.
197
What are the effective treatments for Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder (PTSD)?
Facing the trauma, discussing it in detail, imaginal exposure, cognitive reprocessing, cognitive-behavioral conjoint therapy, and psychological debriefing (if not intervened too early).
198
What is the most effective treatment for Anxiety Disorders (ADs)?
Cognitive-Behavioral Therapy (CBT).
199
What is the historical explanation of mental disorders in ancient times?
Mental disorders were explained as possession by supernatural forces.
200
Who coined the term 'Manic Depression' and described manic and depressive forms of the disorder?
Emil Kraepelin.
201
What are the diagnostic criteria for clinical mood disorders in terms of duration and severity?
Symptoms of depression must be present for at least 2 weeks, and at least 5 out of 9 symptoms from DSM are required.
202
What are the two types of depressive disorders?
Major depressive disorder and dysthymia disorder (persistent depressive disorder).
203
What are the characteristics of major depressive disorder?
Abnormalities in all systems, impairment in functioning, no longer excluded bereavement, and common prevalence worldwide.
204
What is the prevalence rate of major depressive disorder in Canada?
Approximately 1.35 million people, which is 5% of the population.
205
What is the recurrent nature of major depressive disorder?
50% of individuals with one episode will have a second, 90% of those with 2-3 episodes will have future occurrences, and periods of wellness decrease in duration as the disease progresses.
206
What is the typical duration of depressive episodes for major depressive disorder?
6-9 months.
207
At what age does major depressive disorder usually onset?
Mid-20s, but recently the first episode is being experienced in childhood or adolescence.
208
What are the sex differences in major depressive disorder during adolescence?
Levels of MDD rise dramatically in females while males show a more gradual increase.
209
What are the risk factors for postpartum depression?
Family history of depression, history of previous depressive episodes, poor marital relationship, low social support, stressful life events.
210
How does postpartum depression affect children?
It is associated with poorer scores on cognitive tests, and women who develop postpartum depression often change their future child-bearing plans.
211
What are the symptoms of Premenstrual Dysphoric Disorder (PMDD)?
Marked affective liability, irritability/anger, depressed mood and/or anxiety, loss of interest in activities, concentration difficulties, low energy, changes in appetite and/or sleep, feelings of loss of control, and/or physical symptoms.
212
How long must the symptoms of PMDD be present for a diagnosis?
These symptoms must be present for most menstrual cycles in the past year.
213
What are the hormonal mechanisms behind PMDD?
Cyclical changes in ovarian steroids in women with PMDD have shown to cause decreases in serotonin, which is strongly implicated in mood disorders.
214
What are the treatments for PMDD?
SSRIs and birth control can be used to suppress ovarian cyclicity or contain novel progestins.
215
What are the psychological and environmental causal factors for mood disorders?
Variables such as temperament, personality, and maladaptive behaviors contribute to mood disorders. External factors like stressful life events also play a role.
216
What did Freud believe about the causes of depression?
Freud believed that depression is due to unmet or overly met needs during the oral stage, although this belief is no longer accepted.
217
What role do neglectful/abusive parents play in the risk of depression?
Neglectful/abusive parents are strong risk factors for depression later in life.
218
What are the two personality patterns associated with a higher risk of depression?
Dependency (fear of abandonment, excessively needy) and self-criticism (fear of failure, self-blame, inferiority).
219
What is Beck's cognitive model of depression?
One's emotional response to a situation depends on their appraisal of it. People with depression tend to appraise situations as negative and exhibit cognitive distortions.
220
What is a diathesis-stress model of depression according to Beck?
Beck proposed that a depressed person's cognitive style is rooted in having a depressive schema, which is activated under the influence of a stressor.
221
What evidence supports Beck's cognitive model of depression?
People with depression display more negative thinking, engage in negative bias when attending to and remembering information, and have more tightly organized negative schemas in their minds.
222
What are the interpersonal models of depression?
One type of impaired social skill is negative feedback seeking, and people with depression tend to lack social skills. However, there is little evidence that impaired social skills cause depression.
223
What is negative feedback seeking and how does it relate to depression?
Negative feedback seeking is an impaired social skill that may serve as a risk factor for depression.
224
What is the relationship between overall alcohol consumption and the number of people suffering from alcohol use disorder?
There is a direct relationship between the overall level of consumption and the number of people suffering from alcohol use disorder.
225
What is the purpose of the Alcohol Use Disorders Identification Test (AUDIT)?
The purpose of AUDIT is to estimate risk level and screen for alcohol problems.
226
Who developed the Alcohol Use Disorders Identification Test (AUDIT)?
The AUDIT was developed by the WHO (World Health Organization).
227
What is the main chemical compound in alcoholic beverages?
The main chemical compound in alcoholic beverages is ethyl alcohol.
228
What effects does ethyl alcohol have on individuals?
Ethyl alcohol reduces anxiety, produces euphoria, and creates a sense of well-being.
229
What does alcohol use reduce in individuals?
Alcohol use reduces inhibitions and adds to the perception of enhanced social and physical pleasure.
230
What is the placebo effect of drinking?
The placebo effect of drinking leads individuals to behave more aggressively, report greater sexual arousal, and report less performance-related anxiety.
231
How does alcohol pass into the blood?
Alcohol can pass directly into the blood from the stomach and is mostly absorbed in the small intestine.
232
What does Blood Alcohol Level (BAL) indicate?
Blood Alcohol Level (BAL) indicates the concentration of alcohol in the bloodstream.
233
How is 95% of alcohol removed from the body?
95% of alcohol is removed by the liver at a constant rate of 7 to 8 milliliters per hour.
234
How is alcohol excreted from the body?
5% of alcohol is excreted by the lungs, and breathalyzers estimate the Blood Alcohol Level (BAL).
235
What enzyme breaks down alcohol in the body?
Alcohol Dehydrogenase is the enzyme responsible for breaking down alcohol in the body.
236
Why do women typically have a higher Blood Alcohol Level (BAL) than men?
Women have significantly less Alcohol Dehydrogenase enzyme, leading to a higher BAL.
237
What are the short-term effects of alcohol?
Short-term effects of alcohol include biphasic effects, deficits in hand-eye coordination, decreased visual acuity, and slowed reaction time.
238
What is the legal Blood Alcohol Level (BAL) for driving?
The legal Blood Alcohol Level (BAL) for driving is 0.08%.
239
What are the effects of alcohol on memory?
Alcohol consumption on an empty stomach can lead to memory blackouts, especially in university students and social drinkers.
240
What are the long-term effects of alcohol?
Long-term effects of alcohol include damage to the liver and pancreas, increased risk of certain cancers, and Korsakoff's Syndrome.
241
What is Korsakoff's Syndrome?
Korsakoff's Syndrome is characterized by impaired memory and a loss of contact with reality due to decreases in brain cells associated with alcohol use.
242
What is Fetal Alcohol Spectrum Disorder (FASD)?
Fetal Alcohol Spectrum Disorder (FASD) refers to a range of conditions caused by maternal drinking, including facial dysmorphology, growth retardation, and CNS dysfunction.
243
How does alcohol consumption during pregnancy affect birth weight?
Moderate drinking during pregnancy can cause low birth weight in infants.
244
What is the role of dopamine in depression?
Dopamine plays a role in mediating response to rewards and is reduced in depression.
245
What is anhedonia?
Anhedonia refers to a lack of responsiveness to rewards often seen in depression.
246
What is hypodopaminergia?
Hypodopaminergia is reduced activity in the meso-corticolimbic dopamine pathways observed in depression.
247
How does mania relate to dopamine signaling?
Mania is associated with elevated dopamine signaling in the brain's reward pathways.
248
What is the relationship between stress and the HPA axis?
Stress is regulated through the HPA axis in all mammals.
249
What are the effects of chronic stressors?
Chronic stressors can lead to sustained release of cortisol and breakdown of negative feedback in the HPA axis.
250
How do depressive individuals and those exposed to traumatic stressors differ?
Depressive individuals and those exposed to traumatic stressors show elevated cortisol levels, poor antidepressant response, and decreased hippocampal volume.
251
What are the sleep stages and their characteristics?
Sleep stage 1-2: light sleep, sleep stage 3-4: deep sleep, REM sleep: rapid eye movements, low muscle tone, and memorable dreaming.
252
What sleep abnormalities are seen in depression?
Depression is associated with loss of deep sleep, early onset of REM sleep, and increased eye movement frequency and amplitude.
253
How are sleep abnormalities in depression genetically mediated?
Genetic factors play a role in causing sleep abnormalities observed in depression.
254
What is the relationship between antidepressant response and REM sleep?
Patients who respond well to antidepressants spend less time in REM sleep, which returns to normal levels.
255
How is sleep physiology linked to bipolar disorder?
Sleep deprivation triggers mania in a majority of bipolar disorder patients and sleep-wake cycle disruption is linked to the onset of manic episodes.
256
What is interpersonal and social rhythm therapy used for in BPD?
Interpersonal and social rhythm therapy teaches individuals with BPD to regulate their social routines.
257
What neuroimaging findings are associated with depression?
Depression is associated with decreased blood flow and glucose metabolism in the frontal regions of the cortex, especially the left brain.
258
What is the relationship between serotonin transporter gene and brain volumes?
People with the short allele of the serotonin transporter gene have smaller volumes of the amygdala and cingulate cortex.
259
What is the proposed model for depression related to amygdala and cingulate cortex?
The model suggests that in depression, the cingulate cortex loses its rational control over the amygdala, resulting in overactive amygdala and increased salience of negative information.
260
What were the findings of the study on emotion processing in depressed individuals?
Depressed individuals showed elevated amygdala activity when rating negative words and this elevated activity persisted during a memory task.
261
What is one key feature of depression according to the study on emotion processing?
One key feature of depression may be the inability to disengage from negative information, leading to rumination even when the stimulus is absent.
262
What is polysubstance abuse?
The simultaneous misuse or dependence upon two or more substances.
263
What percentage of individuals with alcohol use disorders are addicted to smoking?
80%
264
What is the common element of involvement in other substance use?
Alcohol
265
What are the health and treatment concerns associated with polysubstance abuse?
Combining drugs can be physically dangerous, more likely to have diagnosable mental problems, and the drug that presents the more immediate threat to health is typically treated first.
266
What is the history of alcohol use?
All attempts to suppress alcohol in Europe and America have failed. Prohibition was introduced in 1920 and later repealed after the Great Depression.
267
What are Canada's low-risk drinking guidelines?
1. Women: 10 drinks per week, with no more than 2 drinks per day. Men: 15 drinks per week, with no more than 3 drinks per day. 2. Limit to 3 drinks for women and 4 drinks for men at any one time. 3. Avoid drinking in various situations and conditions. 4. Pregnant women should not drink. 5. Children and youth should delay drinking until their late teens.
268
What percentage of university students have consumed alcohol?
90%
269
Which provinces in Canada have the highest rates of drinking among students?
QC and Atlantic Provinces
270
What are the risks associated with alcohol consumption in young adults?
Young adults are more likely to drink and drink heavily, with consumption peaking in the mid-twenties.
271
How are individuals who drank alcohol in the past year categorized?
Light Infrequent Drinkers (36%), Light Frequent Drinkers (32%), Heavy Infrequent Drinkers (5%), Heavy Frequent Drinkers (4%)
272
What are the potential consequences of combining drugs?
The combined effects can exceed or be significantly different from the sum of their individual effects, and it can be physically dangerous.
273
What is the safest choice for pregnant women or those planning to become pregnant?
The safest choice is to not drink alcohol at all.
274
What is the recommended age to delay drinking until?
Late teens
275
What are the rates of drinking among students in BC?
Lowest rates compared to other provinces
276
What are the low-risk drinking guidelines designed to prevent?
Physical impairment and health risks
277
What is the most common substance involved in polysubstance abuse?
Alcohol
278
What is the trend of polysubstance abuse among young people?
It is on the rise and more common
279
What proportion of Canadians aged 15 and older reported drinking alcohol in the past 12 months?
4 out of 5 Canadians
280
What is the greater economic wealth of a country associated with?
A greater proportion of the population that drinks and greater average consumption
281
Why is concurrent dependence more common in polysubstance abuse?
It appears to be the rule rather than the exception
282
What are the three sections in DSM-5 that include anxiety disorders?
Anxiety disorders, OCD and related, Trauma and stress-related disorders.
283
Name three neurodevelopmental disorders.
ADHD, intellectual disability, autism.
284
What is the characteristic of schizophrenia spectrum and other psychotic disorders?
Severe debilitation in thinking and perception, state of psychosis, loss of ability to care for themselves or relate to others.
285
What are the symptoms of depression?
Sleep problems, weight loss/gain, lack of energy, difficulty concentrating.
286
Define mania.
Elevation of mood, increased activity, disconnected ideas, impairment in functioning, grandiosity, lack of need for sleep.
287
What are the two less severe forms of mood disorders?
Cyclothymia and dysthymia.
288
What are the five anxiety and related disorders mentioned in DSM-5?
GAD, social phobia, panic phobia, OCD, PTSD.
289
Name three dissociative disorders.
Dissociative amnesia, identity disorder, depersonalization / derealization disorder.
290
What are somatic symptom and related disorders characterized by?
Physical symptoms with no physiological origin but have psychological cause.
291
Name three eating disorders.
Anorexia, bulimia, binge-eating disorder.
292
What are two types of elimination disorders?
Enuresis (urine) and encopresis (feces).
293
What are the two categories of sleep-wake disorders mentioned?
Breathing-related sleep disorders and parasomnias.
294
Name three disruptive, impulsive-control, and conduct disorders.
Intermittent explosive disorder, oppositional defiant disorder, conduct disorder.
295
What is the condition of pulling out hair called?
Trichotillomania.
296
What are two types of substance-related and addictive disorders mentioned?
Alcohol and opioids.
297
What is the condition characterized by decline in cognitive functioning called?
Neurocognitive disorders.
298
Name two personality disorders.
Antisocial personality disorder and dependent personality disorder.
299
What are other conditions that may be a focus of clinical attention?
Conditions that aren't considered mental disorders.
300
What is the goal of rational-emotive behavioural therapy?
To change schemas and underlying beliefs and develop more realistic and adaptive cognition.
301
According to cognitive theory and therapy, what influences emotions and behaviors?
Perception or cognitive appraisals of events.
302
What are early maladaptive schemas and where do they originate from?
Maladaptive schemas are formed from repetitious, aversive experiences in childhood.
303
How do schemas influence how someone processes life experiences?
Schemas can influence how someone processes life experiences.
304
What are the different levels of cognition in cognitive theory?
Schemas, information-processing biases & intermediate beliefs, and automatic thoughts.
305
What is the role of socio-cultural influences in psychiatric disorders?
They play a role in the etiology and maintenance of psychiatric disorders.
306
What is the impact of stigma on people seeking treatment?
Stigma is one of the largest barriers to people seeking treatment for mental health issues.
307
What is the labeling theory and how does it relate to mental illness?
Labeling theory suggests that being identified as having a mental illness results in others perceiving the person as dysfunctional and different.
308
What is the difference between public stigma and self-stigma?
Public stigma refers to the negative perception of mental illness by society, while self-stigma refers to the internalization of these perceptions.
309
How does social support impact psychological problems?
Social support helps prevent and reduce the intensity of psychological problems.
310
What is the relationship between absence of social support and dysfunction?
The absence of social support can contribute to the causal chain leading to dysfunction.
311
Why are many disorders more prevalent in women?
There are certain disorders that are more commonly found in women compared to men.
312
What factors contribute to stress in minority and underprivileged populations?
Prejudice and lack of opportunity can contribute to stress in minority and underprivileged populations.
313
How does the biopsychosocial model explain mental disorders?
The biopsychosocial model considers biological, psychological, and social factors in the development of mental disorders.
314
What is the diathesis-stress perspective?
The diathesis-stress perspective suggests that a predisposition to developing a disorder interacts with stress to cause mental disorders.
315
How does the biopsychosocial model differ from the diathesis-stress perspective?
The biopsychosocial model considers multiple factors, while the diathesis-stress perspective focuses on the interaction between predisposition and stress.
316
What are the functions of diagnostic systems for mental disorders?
Provides a description of different mental disorders, Provides vocabulary for communicating about mental disorders to others, Used in research to identify people who do and don't meet criteria, Used to survey population health & understanding the prevalence + etiology of mental disorders, Allows for treatment recommendations, Allows further scientific investigation, Guidelines for policymakers
317
What are the functions of a good classification system?
Organization of clinical information, Shorthand communication, Prediction of natural development, Treatment recommendations, Heuristic value, Guidelines for financial support
318
What is the difference between assessment and diagnosis?
Assessment is the procedure where information is gathered systematically in the evaluation of a condition, while diagnosis is the conclusion reached based on the assessment.
319
What would a perfect diagnostic system classify disorders based on?
Symptoms, Etiology, Prognosis, Treatment response
320
What is reliability in the context of diagnostic systems?
Reliability is the extent to which a diagnostic system gives the same measurement for a given thing every time.
321
What is inter-rater reliability?
Inter-rater reliability is the extent to which two clinicians agree on the diagnosis of a patient.
322
What was the overall percentage agreement for the diagnosis between two psychiatrists when seeing the patient just a few hours apart?
54%
323
What is validity in the context of diagnostic systems?
Validity refers to whether a diagnostic category is able to predict behavioral or psychiatric disorders accurately.
324
What is concurrent validity?
Concurrent validity is the ability of a diagnostic category to estimate a person's present standing on factors related to the disorder but not part of its diagnostic criteria.
325
What is predictive validity?
Predictive validity is the ability of a test to predict a person's development.
326
What was the intention behind the creation of DSM III?
To place more emphasis on scientific research and reject the endorsement of any one theory of abnormal psychology.
327
What was the major change introduced in DSM III Revised?
A polythetic approach where an individual could be diagnosed with a certain subset of symptoms without having to meet all criteria.
328
What was the purpose of the multiaxial requirement in DSM III Revised?
Clinicians were required to rate patients on different axes to provide a comprehensive assessment of their condition.
329
What are the main sections of DSM-V Organizational Structure?
Section I: historical background of the DSM & its development + guidelines for proper use, Section II: psychological disorders that have been recognized for centuries
330
What are the criteria for diagnosing PTSD according to DSM-5?
A: Actual or threatened death, serious injury, or sexual violence, along with intrusive symptoms, avoidance of stimuli associated with the event, negative alterations in cognitions and mood, and marked alterations in arousal and reactivity lasting over 1 month.
331
What are the three ways a person can be exposed to a traumatic event?
A: Directly experiencing the event, witnessing the event in person, or learning that the event occurred to a close family or friend.
332
What are some of the intrusion symptoms associated with PTSD?
A: Recurrent distressing memories, recurrent distressing dreams, dissociative reactions, intense psychological distress at exposure to cues related to the event, and marked psychological reactions to cues resembling the event.
333
What is the criterion for the duration of intrusion symptoms and avoidance behaviors in PTSD?
A: They must last for over 1 month.
334
What are the negative alterations in cognitions and mood associated with PTSD?
A: Persistent avoidance of distressing memories, thoughts, and feelings about the event, as well as avoidance of external reminders that arouse distressing memories.
335
What are the marked alterations in arousal and reactivity associated with PTSD?
A: Increased arousal, including excessive vigilance, irritable behavior, and difficulty concentrating, as well as exaggerated startle response and sleep disturbances.
336
What are some risk factors for developing PTSD?
A: Low socioeconomic status, low education and intelligence, severity of the traumatic event, lack of social support, and exposure to interpersonal traumas.
337
What are some gender differences in PTSD prevalence?
A: Women are twice as likely to develop PTSD following a traumatic event (20% vs. 8%).
338
Which brain regions are implicated in processing and responding quickly to threat in individuals with PTSD?
A: Brainstem, amygdala, and frontotemporal cortex.
339
What is the dual representation theory of traumatic memories?
A: Traumatic memories are initially stored and retrieved in a sensory-based form, while non-traumatic memories are stored and retrieved in a verbal form.
340
What might sensory-based traumatic memories need in order to be effectively processed?
A: They might need to be transferred into verbal form.
341
How might altered pre-existing beliefs contribute to the development of PTSD?
A: Altered pre-existing beliefs that fit the traumatic event may lead to a sense of current and generalized threat.
342
What are the recommended treatments for anxiety and anxiety-related disorders?
A: Exposure-based behavioral interventions, cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT), and pharmacotherapy.
343
Which treatment is recommended as the first-line of treatment for anxiety and anxiety-related disorders?
A: Cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT).
344
What is the role of benzodiazepines in the pharmacotherapy of anxiety and anxiety-related disorders?
A: Benzodiazepines are GABA agonists with many side effects.
345
Why are exposure-based behavioral interventions and CBT considered the most effective treatments for anxiety and anxiety-related disorders?
A: Because they directly target the symptoms and underlying mechanisms of anxiety disorders.
346
What are the diagnostic criteria for Major Depressive Disorder (MDD) according to DSM 5?
Five or more symptoms present for at least 2 weeks, including depressed mood or loss of interest/pleasure.
347
What percentage of patients with MDD have an anxiety disorder as well?
Over 50%
348
What are the symptoms associated with MDD?
Depressed mood, loss of interest/pleasure, weight/appetite changes, insomnia/hypersomnia, psychomotor agitation/retardation, fatigue/loss of energy, feelings of worthlessness/excessive guilt, diminished ability to think or concentrate, recurrent thoughts of death.
349
What are the diagnostic criteria for Persistent Depressive Disorder (Dysthymia)?
Depressed mood for most of the day for at least 2 years, along with other associated symptoms.
350
What is the prevalence of Persistent Depressive Disorder?
3%
351
What are some characteristics associated with Persistent Major Depression?
Higher impairment, younger age of onset, higher rates of comorbidity, stronger family history of psychiatric disorders, lower social support, higher stress, higher dysfunctional personality traits.
352
What are the criteria for a manic episode in Bipolar Disorders?
Distinct period of elevated, expansive, or irritable mood lasting at least 1 week, along with increased goal-directed activity/energy and at least 3 associated symptoms.
353
What is the duration required for a manic episode?
At least 1 week
354
What are the symptoms associated with mania?
Increased energy, decreased need for sleep, racing thoughts, pressured speech, problems with attention and concentration, impaired judgment, feelings of grandiosity.
355
What is the difference between mania and hypomania?
Hypomania is a less severe form of mania with the same symptoms but lasting for 4 days instead of 1 week.
356
What are the symptoms required for a diagnosis of a manic episode according to DSM 5?
Inflated self-esteem or grandiosity, decreased need for sleep, more talkative than usual or pressure to keep talking, flight of ideas or racing thoughts, distractibility, increased goal-directed activity or psychomotor agitation, excessive involvement in activities with high potential for painful consequences.
357
What is the key requirement for a manic episode to cause impairment?
Marked impairment in social/occupational functioning or necessitates hospitalization to prevent harm to self/others or involves psychotic features.
358
What condition is a manic episode not attributable to according to DSM 5?
A persistent schizoaffective disorder
359
What should the symptoms of manic episode not be attributable to?
Physiological effects of a substance
360
What is the main symptom in DSM 3 R for Generalized Anxiety Disorder (GAD)?
Worry
361
What change in criteria occurred in DSM 5 for GAD?
Shorter length of illness and less symptoms
362
How long should excessive worry be present for in order to meet the primary criterion for GAD in DSM 5?
At least 6 months
363
How many other symptoms must be present along with excessive worry to meet GAD criteria in DSM 5?
3 or more
364
What is the primary criterion for GAD in DSM 5?
Presence of excessive worry for the majority of days
365
What must a clinician ensure when diagnosing GAD to rule out another clinical disorder?
That the worry isn't restricted to a particular content area
366
What cognitive strategy do those with GAD tend to use?
Worry as an avoidance strategy
367
How does the process of worry decrease somatic arousal in individuals with GAD?
By inhibiting cardio activity
368
What is the negative reinforcement associated with worrying in GAD?
A reduction in anxiety symptoms
369
What cognitive vulnerability/risk factor is associated with GAD?
Intolerance of uncertainty
370
What percentage of the population is expected to develop OCD in their lifetime?
3%
371
What percentage of people seeking treatment for OCD also have BDD?
8%
372
What are the five disorders included in the Obsessive-Compulsive and Related Disorders category?
OCD, BDD, Hoarding disorder, Trichotillomania disorder, Excoriation disorder
373
What type of thoughts are characteristic of obsessions in OCD?
Recurrent and uncontrollable thoughts, impulses, or ideas
374
What are some common obsessions in OCD?
Uncertainty, violence, contamination
375
What are some examples of compulsions in OCD?
Handwashing, checking, maintaining order
376
What are some examples of neutralizations in OCD?
Counting numbers, praying, repeating words or phrases
377
What is the main symptom in BDD?
Preoccupation with perceived defects in one's own physical appearance
378
What is primary and secondary appraisals of threat and coping?
Views stress as emanating from the balance between primary and secondary appraisals of threat and coping.
379
What did the study on film watching reveal?
People who had been in the intellectualization or denial strategy group showed less arousal than people whose instructions accentuated discomfort and risk.
380
How can the way one appraises events modify the physiological response to them?
The way that one appraises events can modify the physiological response to them.
381
What are the direct implications for intervention?
The direct implication for intervention is that the way one appraises events can modify the physiological response to them.
382
How does social condition, personality traits, emotions, and perceptions relate to disease states?
Social condition, personality traits, emotions, and perceptions are associated with disease states.
383
What diseases were Vietnam veterans who had higher exposure to combat more likely to experience?
Vietnam veterans who had higher exposure to combat were more likely to experience circulatory, digestive, musculoskeletal, NS, respiratory, and infectious diseases.
384
What was the relationship between PTSD and heart disease in Vietnam veterans?
Vietnam veterans who met criteria for PTSD were more than 2x as likely to have died from heart disease three decades after wartime.
385
What is social status?
Social status is a person's relative position in a social hierarchy.
386
What did the Whitehall Study establish about social status?
The Whitehall Study established the importance of social status as an influence on health.
387
What social affiliations were associated with fewer deaths according to a study on health outcomes?
People with many social affiliations were associated with fewer deaths.
388
What are some potential benefits of social support?
Social support may be associated with material support in times of stress, may provide means of discovering or testing coping strategies, and may be a way of altering stress appraisals.
389
What is alexithymia?
Alexithymia is a personality trait characterized by difficulty identifying and describing subjective feelings, difficulty distinguishing between feelings and bodily sensations of emotional arousal, constricted imaginal capacities, and an externally oriented cognitive style.
390
What medical conditions are linked to alexithymia?
Alexithymia is linked to increased risk and worsened prognosis of cardiovascular diseases, cancer, and gastrointestinal disorders.
391
What is Type A personality associated with?
Type A personality is associated with the etiology, development, and progression of medical conditions.
392
What is suggested by the exacerbation of infection disease symptoms during periods of emotional turmoil?
The exacerbation of infection disease symptoms during periods of emotional turmoil suggests that stress and strains of life may attribute to these symptoms.
393
What are some social effects of alcohol abuse?
Higher lifetime harm rates in youths than adults, billions in healthcare costs, and drinking and driving as a major social problem.
394
What are some genetic factors associated with alcohol abuse?
Males MZ are more likely to develop problems with alcohol abuse and dependence than DZ, Asian descent individuals may experience unpleasant physiological responses, many offspring of alcoholics don't become alcoholics themselves.
395
How do sons of alcoholic fathers differ neurobiologically?
Sons of alcoholic fathers have higher than normal rates of beta waves, show less EEG change after alcohol consumption, and have smaller P300 amplitudes which are linked to lower attentional abilities.
396
What are some psychological factors that contribute to alcohol abuse?
Behavioural disinhibition, negative emotionality (neuroticism), and tension-reduction/anxiety relief.
397
What is the Alcohol Expectancy Theory?
Drinking behavior depends on the reinforcement an individual expects to receive, subjective experiences are more a function of expectation than a drug effect, alcoholics and non-alcoholics both drink more when they are told their beverage has alcohol in it.
398
What is the role of socio-cultural factors in alcohol abuse?
People are at a higher risk in environments where excessive drinking is the norm, adolescents' drinking tends to mirror their parents, and the more the parent drinks, the earlier their kids drink.
399
What is the focus of alcohol abuse treatment?
The focus is on abstinence.
400
What is the Minnesota Model for alcohol abuse treatment?
A multimodal approach that incorporates the 12-step Alcoholics Anonymous program and views alcoholism as a disease.
401
What are some pharmacotherapy options for alcohol abuse treatment?
Benzodiazepines for detoxification, Naltrexone to reduce gratification and cravings, Acamprosate to reduce distress and craving, and Antabuse to make drinking aversive.
402
What are some features of Alcoholics Anonymous (AA)?
AA is a self-help program that relies on spirituality and adopts a disease model. Members who have stayed sober for a while sponsor new members.
403
What is the approach of psychological treatment for alcohol abuse?
Behavioural treatment focuses on manipulating reinforcement contingencies and using contingency management.
404
How does contingency management work in alcohol abuse treatment?
Contingency management involves manipulating reinforcement contingencies and specifying rewards contingent on desired behavior, to promote behavior change.
405
What is the learned behavior associated with alcohol abuse?
Alcohol becoming associated with pleasant physical reactions, leading to a belief that it is a learned behavior.
406
What are some common flashcards for exams on alcohol abuse?
Social effects, genetic factors, neurobiological influences, psychological factors, alcohol expectancy theory, socio-cultural factors, treatment approaches, pharmacotherapy options, AA features, psychological treatment, contingency management, learned behavior.
407
What is the main issue with defining abnormality?
Eccentric & unusual behavior or beliefs are not necessarily abnormal. Behaviors that are repugnant & threatening to others are not always signs of an underlying psych disorder.
408
What is the difference between psychological abnormality and mental illness?
Psychological abnormality refers to behavior, speech, or thought that impairs a person's ability to function in an expected way, while mental illness implies a medical cause for the abnormality.
409
How can abnormality be defined based on statistical concept?
Behavior is considered abnormal if it occurs infrequently in the population, but not all infrequent behaviors or thoughts should be judged abnormal.
410
What challenges exist when using personal distress as a basis for defining abnormality?
Not all individuals with abnormal behavior experience distress, and sometimes not experiencing distress is considered pathological.
411
What is the concept of personal dysfunction in defining abnormality?
Behaviors that are maladaptive and interfere with appropriate functioning are deemed abnormal, but determining what is normal and adaptive can be subjective.
412
How does volition of norms play a role in defining abnormality?
Psychologically disordered individuals often exhibit behavior and thoughts that go against social norms, but not all individuals who violate social norms meet the criteria for a psychological disorder.
413
What role do societal criteria play in defining abnormal behavior?
Society's criteria for defining behavior as acceptable or unacceptable influence the predominant view of abnormality in society, and these criteria can vary across different cultures.
414
What factors contribute to the diagnosis of psychological abnormalities by experts?
Psychological abnormalities are diagnosed by professionals such as clinical psychologists, psychiatrists, psychiatric nurses, psychiatric social workers, and occupational therapists. The opinions of these mental healthcare workers often determine whether someone is diagnosed with a psychological abnormality.
415
According to Thomas Szasz, what is his view on mental disorders?
Thomas Szasz believes that mental disorders were invented by psychiatry to give control to its practitioners, and he refers to them as 'the myth of mental disorders.'
416
What is the main conclusion about defining abnormality based on different criteria?
None of the individual criteria (statistical concept, personal distress, personal dysfunction, volition of norms, or diagnosis by an expert) are sufficient or necessary on their own, and combinations of these criteria are often used to define abnormality.
417
What are the historical beliefs about the causes of abnormality in the Stone Age?
In the Stone Age, it was believed that mental processes occurred in the brain naturally, but they could become dysfunctional due to demonic possession.
418
What is trephination?
Trephination is the practice of drilling a hole into the skull, which was done in the Stone Age as a treatment for mental abnormalities.
419
What percentage of individuals aged 15 and older reported using opioids in the past year?
13%
420
Are there significant differences in opioid use between females and males?
No
421
What are endogenous opiates?
The body's natural painkillers
422
What are exogenous opiates?
Narcotics that bind to receptor sites throughout the body and reduce the production of endogenous opiates
423
What may happen to someone who stops using exogenous opiates?
They may experience increased pain sensitivity
424
What are the effects of heroin after 1 minute?
Pleasurable rush, appetite suppressant, restlessness and nausea
425
What are the symptoms of heroin overdose at higher doses?
Pupils constrict, skin becomes blue, breathing slows, coma
426
What is the harm reduction approach in dealing with opioid use?
Needle exchange programs and reducing consequences of use
427
What is endocarditis?
Infection of the heart lining
428
What are the risks associated with the use of unsterilized injection equipment?
Abscesses, cellulitis, liver disease, and brain damage
429
What is the withdrawal timeline for opioids?
Withdrawal begins 8 hours after the last dose and symptoms diminish after 5 to 10 days
430
What medications are commonly used for opioid replacement therapy?
Methadone, Buprenorphine/Naloxone
431
What are the effects of THC, the active component of cannabis?
Psychoactive effects, mild changes in perception, enhancement of physical experiences
432
What are the potential therapeutic effects of cannabis?
Used in the treatment of cancer, AIDS, and glaucoma
433
What are the reported symptoms of cannabis withdrawal?
Irritability, nervousness, anxiety, loss of appetite, restlessness, sleep disturbances, anger/aggression
434
What is the prevalence of cannabis use among individuals aged 15 and older?
37.5%
435
What are hallucinogens?
Drugs that induce perceptual and sensory distortions or hallucinations
436
Name three examples of hallucinogens.
LSD, mescaline, psilocybin
437
What are some pros and cons of case studies?
Pros: Offers rich detail about one person, can generate new hypotheses. Cons: Does not employ scientific method or show cause-and-effect, reported information can be biased and unrepresentative.
438
What is a single-subject design and how does it differ from a group design?
A single-subject design looks at one person and uses experimentally validated measures, allowing for more accurate judgment of the person's performance. In contrast, a group design relies on group means for performance assessment.
439
What are the four phases of the ARAB (reversal) design in single-subject designs?
A1: Baseline, B1: Treatment introduction, A2: Reversal to original baseline condition, B2: Treatment reintroduction.
440
What is epidemiological research and what does it study?
Epidemiological research studies the incidence (number of new cases in a specified period) and prevalence (frequency at any given point) of disorders in a population.
441
What are some limitations of epidemiology as a research method?
Epidemiology does not allow easy inferences regarding cause-and-effect. It requires a large number of participants, significant funding, and time.
442
What do family studies examine and what can increased concordance rate indicate?
Family studies examine the incidence of a disorder among family members. Increased concordance rate suggests a genetic basis for the problem.
443
How do adoption studies help determine the effects of genetics and environment on disorder development?
Adoption studies compare the incidence of a disorder among adoptive and biological families. This allows researchers to control for environmental effects and assess genetic links.
444
What are some downsides of adoption and cross-fostering studies?
Hard to obtain full information on both biological parents, limited sample sizes, difficult to control for contact between adoptees and biological parents, fail to consider prenatal toxins and perinatal trauma.
445
What do twin studies examine and how do they provide evidence of genetic basis?
Twin studies examine the concordance rates among twins. Greater concordance in monozygotic (MZ) twins suggests a strong genetic basis for the disorder.
446
What are some limitations of twin studies?
Finding participants can be challenging. Assuming environmental factors are held constant between MZ and dizygotic (DZ) twins might not always be true, as MZ twins often have more similar environments.
447
Name three neurotransmitter systems involved in anxiety.
GABA, Serotonin, Norepinephrine
448
Who proposed the two-factor theory to explain phobia maintenance?
Mowrer
449
How can fears be developed through vicarious learning?
By observing the reactions of other people
450
According to Beck, why are people afraid?
Because of their perceptions about the world, the future, and themselves
451
What do anxious people selectively attend to and recall?
Information that is consistent with their threatening view of the self
452
How do anxious parents tend to interact with their kids?
In less warm and positive ways
453
What can contribute to vulnerability to anxiety in kids?
Anxious parents interacting with their kids in less warm and positive ways
454
What is the Triple Vulnerability Model?
Generalized biological + nonspecific psychological + specific psychological vulnerabilities interacting to increase risk
455
What are the three types of vulnerabilities in the Triple Vulnerability Model?
Generalized biological, nonspecific psychological, specific psychological
456
What are the most common anxiety disorders?
Panic disorders
457
What are the symptoms of a panic attack?
Palpitations, sweating, trembling, sensations of shortness of breath or smothering, etc.
458
What are the diagnostic criteria for panic disorder?
At least 4/13 symptoms, sudden onset, peak within minutes, at least 2 attacks
459
When does the onset of panic disorder and agoraphobia typically occur?
Late teens or early adulthood
460
What mental disorders are panic disorder and agoraphobia highly comorbid with?
Depression, substance abuse, and other anxiety disorders
461
What is the gender ratio for panic disorder and agoraphobia?
Women are 2x more likely to be diagnosed
462
What are the three types of psychological assessments?
The three types of psychological assessments are memory tests, grip strength tests, and auditory tests.
463
Which type of clinical interview allows the patient to guide the discussion?
Unstructured clinical interviews allow the patient to guide the discussion.
464
What is the main advantage of personality assessments?
Personality assessments shed light on a patient's unconscious beliefs.
465
What is the main disadvantage of personality assessments?
There is a lack of evidence for the utility of personality assessments.
466
What are the two types of projective tests?
The two types of projective tests are the Rorschach Inkblot Test and the Thematic Apperception Test.
467
What is the main limiting factor of objective personality tests?
People often don't respond in ways that reflect their true personalities.
468
What is the assumption relied upon by all personality tests?
Personality tests assume that a person's personality is made up of stable traits.
469
What method can therapists use to understand why a person behaves a certain way?
Therapists can use the Antecedent-behaviour-consequence (ABC) chart to understand why a person behaves a certain way.
470
What is the purpose of in vivo observation?
In vivo observation determines how a person's environmental context influences their behavior.
471
What can negatively affect the accuracy of behavioral analysis?
Reactivity can negatively affect the accuracy of behavioral analysis.
472
What is the Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory used for?
The Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory is used to assess aspects of personality and gather a profile of a person's traits.
473
What are the three types of cognitive assessments?
The three types of cognitive assessments are memory, sensory functions, and intelligence.
474
What term did DSM II use to avoid a dualistic view of the mind and body?
Psychophysiological disorders
475
What were some classic psychosomatic disorders?
Gastrointestinal ulcers, ulcerative colitis, hypertension, asthma, arthritis
476
What did psychodynamically oriented theorists propose for each of the classic psychosomatic disorders?
Specific psychological etiology
477
According to Engel, what model of disease should expand to the biopsychosocial model?
Biomedical Model of Disease
478
What is the new branch that combines psychological factors and behavior in health and illness?
Behavioral Medicine
479
What is the definition of health psychology?
Application of psychological methods and theories to understand disease, individual responses, and determinants of good health
480
What does DSM 5 specify the diagnostic criteria for?
Somatic Symptoms and Related Disorders
481
What are the four ways in which psychological or behavioral factors can influence a medical condition?
Influence course, interfere with treatment, pose additional risk, influence pathophysiology
482
What is the exclusion criteria for psych or behavioral factors?
Not better explained by another recognized mental disorder
483
What does the International Classification of Diseases - 10 focus on?
Psychological or behavioral factors affecting disorders or diseases classified elsewhere
484
What does the Diagnostic Criteria for Psychosomatic Research encompass?
12 psychosomatic syndromes
485
What are the three body systems responsible for psychosocial variables?
Endocrine system, automatic nervous system, immune system
486
What were the main stressors associated with the likelihood of developing a cold?
Work difficulties (unemployment, underemployment) and interpersonal relationship difficulties.
487
What is the association between herpes symptoms and psychological stress?
Symptom recurrence was associated with variations in psychological stress.
488
What did the study measuring the presence of antibodies to a virus during baseline and exam periods find?
Both periods were associated with increases in antibodies to the virus.
489
What is the cause of gastric ulcers?
Erosion of the lining of the stomach or duodenum, caused by the interaction between stomach's digestive juices and its natural defense mechanisms.
490
What was the main cause for ulcers according to Alexander's study?
A very specific, unconscious, psychological conflict involving an unsatisfied desire for love.
491
What is the increase in risk of development of peptic ulcer associated with measures of life stress?
People who scored highest for life stress events were 2 times more likely to develop ulcers.
492
What are the neuroendocrine and autonomic responses when stressed?
Activation of neurosecretory cells in the hypothalamus elicits neuroendocrine and autonomic responses.
493
What are some methods used to show that stress can cause ulcers in animals?
Restraint of experimental animals and direct manipulation of brain regions involved in regulating emotional states.
494
What is the association between threat appraisal, gastric ulceration, and the amygdala?
There is likely an association between them.
495
How did rats exposed to shocks with/without warning show different ulceration rates?
Rats exposed to shocks without warning showed extensive ulcerations, while rats shocked after a warning tone showed slightly higher ulceration rates than un-shocked rats.
496
What did the study by Marshal involving H. pylori show?
Drinking H. pylori from a person with ulcers led to the development of gastroenteritis.
497
What is the purpose of the Recurrent Coronary Prevention Project?
To reduce the recurrence of cardiac events through Type A counselling.
498
How did people who received Type A counselling in the project benefit?
They had half as many recurrences of cardiac events compared to the control group.
499
What are the two components of the Type A counselling program?
Social support and emotional communication.
500
According to historical perspective, what beverage was naturally formed by the fermentation of honey?
Mead.
