Quiz 2 Flashcards
1
Q
What is considered “apoptosis at a tissue level?”
A
Inflammation
2
Q
Name 4 purposes of inflammation
A
- Restrict
- Isolate
- Destroy
- Clean up
3
Q
Name 4 ways inflammation removes offenders
A
- Dilute
- Destroy
- Neutralize
- Phagocytosis
4
Q
What is another term for scarring?
A
Fibrosis
5
Q
Name 4 different stages that may follow acute inflammation
A
- Regeneration
- Chronic inflammation
- Fibrosis
- Abscess
6
Q
Name 4 hallmark signs of acute inflammation
A
- Redness
- Swelling
- Heat
- Pain
7
Q
What are 2 series of events that happen with acute inflammation?
A
Vascular response
Cellular response
8
Q
What are 2 goals of the vascular response of inflammation?
A
- Restrict area
- Dilute and slow down offenders
9
Q
What is the first step of the vascular inflammatory response?
A
Transient vasoconstriction
10
Q
Name 7 things vascular endothelial cells secrete in the inflammatory response
A
- anticoagulants
- vasodilators
- vasoconstrictors
- cell adhesion molecules
- histamine
- nitric oxide
- growth factors
11
Q
What are 3 things exudate is composed of?
A
- Fluid
- Plasma proteins, including antibodies
- Immune mediating molecules
12
Q
What term describes the decreased blood velocity in the vascular inflammatory response?
A
Vascular stasis
13
Q
Name 3 granular leukocytes
A
Neutrophils, basophils, eosinophils
14
Q
What term describes the structure of neutrophils?
A
Polymorphonuclear cells (PMNs)
15
Q
What 4 things activate neutrophils?
A
- Antibodies
- Cytokines
- Complement
- Pathogens
16
Q
What happens to neutrophils after they serve their purpose?
A
Apoptosis, then secretion in pus
17
Q
Which leukocytes help terminate the inflammatory response?
A
Eosinophils
18
Q
Which leukocytes secrete the chemical mediators heparin and histamine during the inflammatory response?
A
Basophils
19
Q
Name 2 non-granular leukocytes
A
Monocytes, lymphocytes
20
Q
What two types of cells do monocytes differentiate into?
A
Macrophages, dendritic cells
21
Q
Which leukocytes are antigen presenting cells?
A
Monocytes (dendritic cells)
22
Q
What 4 chemical mediators do monocytes secrete?
A
- prostaglandins
- leukotrienes
- platelet activating factor
- cytokines
23
Q
What leukocytes are part of cell mediated immunity?
A
Lymphocytes
24
Q
What cellular adhesion molecule do endothelial cells secrete in cellular recruitment?
A
Selectin
25
What terms describe the initial loose adhesion and slowing down of leukocytes?
Margination and rolling
26
During adhesion, _______ on leukocytes bind with _______ on endothelial cells
Integrins, ligands
27
Name 3 synonyms for the extravasation of leukocytes
Emigration, diapedesis, transmigration
28
What particles attract leukocytes and aid in the formation of pseudopodia in chemotaxis?
Chemoattractants (type of cytokine)
29
Name 2 opsonins
Antibodies, complement
30
Name 3 steps of phagocytosis
1. Binding
2. Phagosome formation
3. Phagolysosome formation
31
Name 4 manifestations of acute inflammation
1. Serous inflammation
2. Purulent inflammation
3. Hemorrhagic inflammation
4. Transudate
32
Name the term for a localized purulent inflammation
Abscess
33
Name the term for a diffuse purulent inflammation
Cellulitis
34
Name 3 plasma-derived inflammatory mediators
1. Complement system
2. Coagulation system
3. Kinin system
35
Where are complement proteins synthesized?
Liver
36
What are 3 things complement proteins do in inflammation?
1. Activate leukocytes
2. Opsonize pathogens
3. Increase vascular permeability
37
Name 2 ways clotting factors are activated
1. Extrinsic: damage to blood vessels
2. Intrinsic: when platelets bind to exposed collagen
38
Clotting factors convert the protein __________ into the enzyme __________
Prothrombin, thrombin
39
How is the complement system activated?
When a complement protein, an antibody, and a pathogen bind to form a complex
40
How is the kinin system activated?
Clotting factor XII
41
What are 3 cells that store histamine?
Mast cells, platelets, basophils
42
Where is serotonin stored?
Platelets
43
When is serotonin released?
Platelet aggregation
44
What substance do phopholipases convert phospholipids into?
Arachidonic acid
45
What eicosanoids are produced when cyclooxygenases act on arachidonic acid?
Prostaglandins, prostacyclins, thromboxanes
46
What is the difference between prostacyclins and thromboxanes?
Prostacyclins inhibit clotting through vasodilation, and thromboxanes promote clotting by activating platelets
47
What eicosanoids are produced when lipoxygenases act on arachidonic acid?
leukotrienes, 5-HETE
48
What do leukotrienes cause?
Vasoconstriction, vascular permeability
49
What does 5-HETE aid in?
Chemotaxis
50
Name 5 kinds of cells that produce cytokines
1. Mast cells
2. Endothelial cells
3. Macrophages
4. Granular cells
5. Lymphocytes
51
Name 4 sites stimulated by cytokines
1. Endothelium
2. Hypothalamus
3. Liver
4. Fibroblasts
52
What are 2 functions of fever?
Increase metabolism, promote WBC activity
53
What 3 factors do macrophages produce in chronic inflammation?
1. Proteolytic enzymes
2. Thromboplastin
3. Angiogenesis factors
54
What is the term for an accumulation of macrophages/toxins, surrounded by leukocytes, and collagen?
Granuloma
55
What is the term for the stage of scarring when the tissue pulls the wound margins together?
Contraction
56
What is the term for the stage of scarring when the scar tissue matures and loses vascularity?
Cicatrization
57
What kind of wound healing involves gauze packing?
Healing by second intention
58
What kind of wound healing is also called delayed/secondary closure?
Healing by third intention
59
What is the term for scar tissue forming around a blood vessel?
Stenosis
60
What is the term for a wound rupturing due to insufficient collagen production?
Dehiscence
61
Are phagocytes part of innate immunity or adaptive immunity?
Innate immunity
62
Which cells live in every organ and carry out regular low level removal of foreign material?
Histiocytes
63
Where do T cells live?
Lymphoid tissue, blood
64
Which T cells are responsible for antigen recognition and destruction?
Cytotoxic T cells
65
Which T cells recognize antigens and release cytokines to promote lymphocyte activity?
Helper T cells
66
Which T cells help regulate the immune system, and prevent tissue graft rejection and autoimmunity?
Suppressor T cells
67
Which lymphocytes secrete antibodies and bind antigens?
B cells
68
What two kinds of cells do B cells turn into?
Plasma cells and memory B cells
69
What component of antibodies allow them to bind almost any antigen?
Variable fragments
70
Which immunoglobulin is the largest and first antibody produced?
IgM (Macroglobulin)
71
Which immunoglobulin is the strongest and most common antibody?
IgG (Gammaglobulin)
72
Which immunoglobulin is found in body fluids like sweat, saliva, mucus, tears, and breast milk?
IgA
73
Which immunoglobulin is mostly found in the upper respiratory tract?
IgD
74
Which immunoglobulin is normally bound to mast cells, and activated in allergic reactions or parasitic infections?
IgE
75
What are the 3 phases of the complement system?
1. Recognition
2. Complement fixation (cascade)
3. Complex attack formation (lysis)
76
What are 3 other functions of complement?
1. Chemoattractant
2. Opsonins
3. Stimulate histamine release
77
What does immunization do to B cells?
Converts them to memory cells
78
What is the purpose of white pulp in the spleen?
Stores white blood cells and plasma
79
What is the purpose of red pulp in the spleen?
Stores blood reserve
80
Name 3 functions of the spleen
1. Blood reserve
2. Breaks down old RBCs
3. Stores monocytes to be mobilized
81
What is the difference between primary and secondary immune deficiencies?
Primary deficiencies are congenital, secondary deficiencies are due to exogenous factors
82
What kind of treatment is used for HIV/AIDS?
Antiretroviral therapy
83
What happens after an HIV virus binds to a cell?
Releases RNA
84
What happens to HIV RNA after it is released into a cell?
Converted to HIV DNA
85
What happens to HIV DNA once it is converted?
Integrates into cell nucleus
86
What happens after the HIV DNA is integrated into the cell nucleus?
Transcription of HIV proteins
87
What happens to HIV proteins after they are produced?
Packaged and released as a new virus
88
What type of hypersensitivity is also called an allergic reaction?
Type I hypersensitivity
89
What is the term for a histaminic local allergic reaction?
Atopy
90
What causes a delayed, severe allergic reaction?
Eicosanoids, smooth muscle
91
What medications can treat anaphylaxis?
Corticosteroids, beta 2 adrenergic agonists
92
What type of hypersensitivity is also called autoimmune disorder?
Type II hypersensitivity
93
What causes autoimmune disorder? (the mechanism)
IgG or IgM bind to connective tissue cells, leading cytotoxic T cells to destroy self tissues
94
What is the term for masses of antibodies and antigens bound together?
Immune complexes
95
What kind of hypersensitivity results from imbalanced antigens and antibodies?
Type III hypersensitivity
96
What kind of hypersensitivity results from resistant intracellular bacteria, causing chronic phagocytosis of self tissues?
Type IV hypersensitivity
97
What are 5 causes of autoimmune disorders?
1. Molecular mimicry
2. Chemical alteration of self antigen
3. Exposure to hidden self antigen
4. Prior infection
5. Congenital
98
Why is type I diabetes mellitus considered an autoimmune disorder?
Results from autoimmune destruction of pancreatic Islets of Langerhans
99
Why is insulin needed in the body?
1. Allow glucose uptake by muscles and liver
2. Prevent glucose overload in kidneys
3. Prevent hypoglycemia through storage of glucose
100
What are the 2 components of an antigen?
1. The cell's major histocompatibility complex
2. Protein fragment from pathogen
101
What kind of cells are activated by the major histocompatibility complex?
Cytotoxic T cells
102
What is the term for the system of glycoproteins bound to the cell membrane?
Major histocompatibility complex
103
9What is the term for an abnormal protein that causes disease in animals and humans?
Prion
104
What is the term for the ecological location an organism inhabits?
Ecological niche
105
What are the most common sites for microbial colonization in the human body?
Skin and mucous membranes
106
Name 5 factors that affect the type and number of microorganisms in habitats?
1. pH
2. Temperature
3. Nutrients
4. Toxins
5. Other microbes
107
Name 4 sterile compartments of the human body
1. CNS
2. Heart
3. Kidneys
4. Peritoneal cavity
108
What is the term for microorganisms that cause disease in almost any individual they infect?
True pathogens
109
What is the term for microorganisms that do not cause disease in healthy individuals?
Opportunistic pathogens
110
What makes Clostridia bacteria pathogenic to humans?
Exotoxin release
111
What do opportunistic bacteria release when they die?
Endotoxins
112
Where is cholera contracted from?
Contaminated water
113
Name 6 infections that are only found in human reservoirs
1. STIs
2. Measles
3. Mumps
4. Polio
5. Streptococcal infection
6. Smallpox
114
What is the term for a living organism that carries an infecting particle during part of its life cycle?
Biological vector
115
What is the term for anything that carries an infecting microorganism passively on its surface?
Mechanical vector
116
With ingestion, where is the portal of entry?
Any part of the digestive tract
117
What are fomites?
Objects that can act as reservoirs
118
True or false: the portal of entry is always the same as the site of infection
False
119
What are 2 terms for the capacity of an infectious particle to cause disease manifestations?
1. Pathogenicity
2. Virulence
120
What is the difference between pathogenicity and virulence?
A particle is either pathogenic or not; virulence describes pathogenicity
121
What is the term for molecular features of a particle that cause injury
(e.g. enzymes, toxins, adhesion proteins, motility structures, spikes, slime, capsules)
Virulence factors
122
Define inoculin
Infectious material
123
What is the term for the amount of infectious material required for infection to occur?
Infectious dose
124
What kind of organisms are involved in non-communicable infections?
Organisms belonging to the individual's own microflora
125
What is the term for the state in which a microbe is harboured without obvious symptoms?
Carrier state
126
What is the term for a carrier in whom the infection is at an early stage?
Incubation carrier
127
What is the term for a carrier in whom residual microbes are present following treatment?
Convalescent carrier
128
What is the term for a carrier that harbours a pathogen due to peculiarities of their physiology?
Chronic carrier
129
What is the term for novel infectious diseases that are resistant to antibiotics?
Emerging infectious diseases (EIDs)
130
Name 4 stages of sepsis
1. Systemic inflammatory response syndrome (SIRS)
2. Sepsis
3. Severe sepsis
4. Septic shock
131
What is the term for an abnormal physiologic, pathologic, and biochemical syndrome characterized by dysregulated compensatory responses?
Sepsis
132
Name 4 criteria of SIRS
1. Increased temperature
2. Increased respiration
3. Increased heart rate
4. Increased WBC
5. Decreased PCO2
133
Name 2 criteria of sepsis
1. 2 SIRS
2. Confirmed or suspected infection
134
Name 4 criteria of severe sepsis
1. Confirmed sepsis
2. Signs of end organ damage
3. Hypotension
4. Increased lactate
135
Name 4 criteria of septic shock
1. Severe sepsis, with persistent:
2. Signs of end organ damage
3. Hypotension
4. Increased lactate
136
What causes hypotension in severe sepsis and septic shock?
Systemic vascular permeability
137
What is the most common condition to cause sepsis?
Pneumonia
