MIDTERM 1 Flashcards

(173 cards)

1
Q

Hypotheses are based on what three factors?

A
  1. Inferences
  2. Observations
  3. Existing theory
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Name 5 laws of cell theory

A
  1. Cell is basic unit of life
  2. Cells come from other cells
  3. Cells bear genetic material
  4. Tissues are a collection of similar cells performing one function
  5. Organism is collection of cells
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is the difference between anabolism and catabolism?

A

Anabolism: Forming
Catabolism: Breaking

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What paradigm seeks to explain the relationship between organisms, and between organisms and the environment?

A

Ecology

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What paradigm seeks to explain how genetic information is passed from DNA to RNA to proteins?

A

Molecular biology

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What are 4 limitations of the biomedical model of disease?

A
  1. Excludes psychological/social factors
  2. Does not address the fact that many diseases do not have a single biological cause
  3. Does not address variations of normal
  4. Does not address variations in disease expression
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Name 8 criteria to determine causality.

A
  1. Consistency
  2. Specificity
  3. Temporality
  4. Biological gradient
  5. Plausibility
  6. Coherence
  7. Experimental results
  8. Analogy
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Define coherence in the context of causality.

A

Factor A causes Factor B both in the real world and in the lab.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is the term for a disease with an unknown cause?

A

Idiopathic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is the term for a disease that originated from medical treatment?

A

Iatrogenic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is the term for the rate of new cases of a disease occurring in a specific population over a particular period of time?

A

Incidence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is thet term for the number of cases of a disease in a specific population at a particular time?

A

Prevalence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the term for a disease that spreads suddenly to many people?

A

Epidemic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is the term for the motality rate from all causes of death in a population in one year?

A

Crude mortality rate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is incidence and prevalence used to described?

A

Morbidity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What kind of prevention is concerned with reducing the risk of disease?

A

Primary prevention

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What kind of prevention is concerned with screening and early detection?

A

Secondary prevention

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What kind of prevention is concerned with lessening the impact of an ongoing disease?

A

Tertiary prevention

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is the term for the range of conditions in which an organism can function normally?

A

Range of tolerance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is the term for the upper and lower ends of the range of tolerance?

A

Critical values

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is the term for the values just above and below critical values?

A

Ranges of resistance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is the term for the non-homeostatic range of conditions in which compensation occurs?

A

Allostasis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is the term for the range beyond allostatic range in which compensations fail?

A

Allostatic overload

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is the stage at which compensations can no longer be maintained and deteriorate?

A

Allostatic overload

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
What is another term for allostatic overload?
Exhaustion
26
What is the term for the point at which conditions start causing tissue death?
Crisis
27
What kind of tissues have cells with a high rate of division and a short life span?
Labile tissues
28
What kind of tissues have cells with a slow rate of division but can go faster if needed?
Stable tissues
29
What kind of tissues have cells that don't divide after they've matured?
Permanent tissues
30
What kind of adaptation involves a decrease in cell volume and number?
Atrophy
31
What kind of adaptation involves an increase in cell volume?
Hypertrophy
32
What kind of adaptation involves an increase in cell number?
Hyperplasia
33
What kind of hyperplasia occurs after tissues have lost mass due to injury?
Compensatory hyperplasia
34
What kind of adaptation involves reversible replacement of one type of cell by another type of cell?
Metaplasia
35
What is the term for the appearance of abnormal, disorganized cellular forms?
Dysplasia
36
What happens to cells in hypoxic conditions? (3)
1. Less ATP produced 2. Inhibits sodium potassium pump 3. Sodium accumulates inside cell, along with water (and calcium)
37
What is the difference between a thrombus and an embolus?
Thrombus: blood clot Embolus: ANY material that moves through blood vessels
38
What happens to the cell with gradual ischemia?
Inflammation
39
What is the difference between ischemia and hypoxia?
Hypoxia: low oxygen Ischemia: low blood flow
40
What is the term for the cellular process of using oxygen to convert nutrients to ATP?
Oxidative phosphorylation
41
Why would lipid peroxidation cause swelling and other cellular injury?
Decrease integrity of cell walls, mitochondrial membranes, and lysosomes
42
Why does reperfusion injury happen? (2)
1. Mitochondria damaged during the ischemic event can no longer process oxygen efficiently, causing increased formation of reactive oxygen species 2. ROS causes leaky membrane and increases intracellular calcium
43
What are two kinds of antioxidants and examples?
1. Exogenous antioxidants: vitamins like A, C, E 2. Endogenous antioxidants: enzymes like glutathione reductase
44
What are two causes of cellular infiltrations?
1. Excessive synthesis 2. Inability to break down materials
45
What causes fatty liver?
Alcoholism etc. impairs the ability to metabolize fat, so it accumulates within the cells. When the cells burst, the fat deposits in the extracellular space
46
Name two kinds of calcification
1. Dystrophic calcification 2. Metastatic calcification
47
Why is calcification dangerous?
Calcium increases enzymatic function, which can break down cell structures
48
Which type of calcification involves previously injured tissue, and is common in older adults?
Dystrophic calcification
49
What type of calcification involves calcium deposits in previously normal tissue?
Metastatic calcification
50
Name 5 types of pigments that can accumulate
1. Lipofuscin 2. Melanin 3. Hemosiderin, bilirubin, biliverdin
51
What kind of accumulation looks like crystal, and is caused by viral infection, extracellular glycoprotein, or excess basement membrane?
Hyaline accumulation
52
What are two products of immune cells that can cause cell injury?
1. Enzymes 2. ROS
53
What is the term for condensation of the cell's nucleus?
Pykinosis
54
What is the term for destruction of the cell's nucleus?
Karyolysis
55
What kind of necrosis looks firm and opaque, and is caused by lack of blood supply?
Coagulation necrosis
56
What kind of necrosis looks like crumbly cheese?
Caseation
57
What kind of necrosis looks like a liquid mass, and is caused by lysosomal enzyme release?
Liquefactive/colliquative necrosis
58
What kind of necrosis looks opaque and soapy, and is caused by release of lipases?
Fatty necrosis
59
What kind of apoptosis happens during fetal development?
Developmental apoptosis
60
What is the term for the enzymes that break down the cytoskeleton and activate endonucleases?
Initiator/executioner caspases
61
What kind of apoptosis is caused by an external signal?
Extrinsic apoptotic pathway
62
What kind of apoptosis is initiated by the cell?
Intrinsic apoptotic pathway
63
What activates initiator caspases?
Cytochrome C
64
What triggers the release of cytochrome C, and where does cytochrome C come from?
Pro-apoptotic molecules; mitochondrial membrane
65
What is produced as a result of apoptosis?
Apoptotic bodies
66
What is the term for when sugars spontaneously attach to proteins?
Glycation
67
Name two disorders characterized by accelerated aging
Hutchinson-Gilford progeria, Werner syndrome
68
What is the term for the multiple repetitions of DNA sequences at the end of chromosomes that do not code for proteins?
Telomeres
69
What enzyme adds telomere length to chromosomes?
Telomerase
70
What kind of cells express telomerase?
Stem cells, germ cells, cancer cells
71
How is apoptosis different from necrosis?
Apoptosis: Intentional, programmed, does not cause inflammation Necrosis: Passive, accidental, causes inflammation
72
What is considered "apoptosis at a tissue level?"
Inflammation
73
Name 4 purposes of inflammation
1. Restrict 2. Isolate 3. Destroy 4. Clean up
74
Name 4 ways inflammation removes offenders
1. Dilute 2. Destroy 3. Neutralize 4. Phagocytosis
75
What is another term for scarring?
Fibrosis
76
Name 4 different stages that may follow acute inflammation
1. Regeneration 2. Chronic inflammation 3. Fibrosis 4. Abscess
77
Name 4 hallmark signs of acute inflammation
1. Redness 2. Swelling 3. Heat 4. Pain
78
What are 2 series of events that happen with acute inflammation?
Vascular response Cellular response
79
What are 2 goals of the vascular response of inflammation?
1. Restrict area 2. Dilute and slow down offenders
80
What is the first step of the vascular inflammatory response?
Transient vasoconstriction
81
Name 7 things vascular endothelial cells secrete in the inflammatory response
1. anticoagulants 2. vasodilators 3. vasoconstrictors 4. cell adhesion molecules 5. histamine 6. nitric oxide 7. growth factors
82
What is exudate composed of?
1. Fluid 2. Plasma proteins, including antibodies 3. Immune mediating molecules
83
What term describes the decreased blood velocity in the vascular inflammatory response?
Vascular stasis
84
Name 3 granular leukocytes
Neutrophils, basophils, eosinophils
85
What term describes the structure of neutrophils?
Polymorphonuclear cells (PMNs)
86
What 4 things activate neutrophils?
1. Antibodies 2. Cytokines 3. Complement 4. Pathogens
87
What happens to neutrophils after they serve their purpose?
Apoptosis, then secretion in pus
88
Which leukocytes help terminate the inflammatory response?
Eosinophils
89
Which leukocytes secrete the chemical mediators heparin and histamine during the inflammatory response?
Basophils
90
Name 2 non-granular leukocytes
Monocytes, lymphocytes
91
What two types of cells do monocytes differentiate into?
Macrophages, dendritic cells
92
Which leukocytes are antigen presenting cells?
Monocytes (dendritic cells)
93
What 4 chemical mediators do monocytes secrete?
1. prostaglandins 2. leukotrienes 3. platelet activating factor 4. cytokines
94
What leukocytes are part of cell mediated immunity?
Lymphocytes
95
What cellular adhesion molecule do endothelial cells secrete in cellular recruitment?
Selectin
96
What terms describe the initial loose adhesion and slowing down of leukocytes?
Margination and rolling
97
During adhesion, _______ on leukocytes bind with _______ on endothelial cells
Integrins, ligands
98
Name 3 synonyms for the extravasation of leukocytes
Emigration, diapedesis, transmigration
99
What particles attract leukocytes and aid in the formation of pseudopodia in chemotaxis?
Chemoattractants (type of cytokine)
100
Name 2 opsonins
Antibodies, complement
101
Name 3 steps of phagocytosis
1. Binding 2. Phagosome formation 3. Phagolysosome formation
102
Name 4 manifestations of acute inflammation
1. Serous inflammation 2. Purulent inflammation 3. Hemorrhagic inflammation 4. Transudate
103
Name the term for a localized purulent inflammation
Abscess
104
Name the term for a diffuse purulent inflammation
Cellulitis
105
Name 3 plasma-derived inflammatory mediators
1. Complement system 2. Coagulation system 3. Kinin system
106
Where are complement proteins synthesized?
Liver
107
What are 3 things complement proteins do in inflammation?
1. Activate leukocytes 2. Opsonize pathogens 3. Increase vascular permeability
108
Name 2 ways clotting factors are activated
1. Extrinsic: damage to blood vessels 2. Intrinsic: when platelets bind to exposed collagen
109
Clotting factors convert the protein __________ into the enzyme __________
Prothrombin, thrombin
110
How is the complement system activated?
When a complement protein, an antibody, and a pathogen bind to form a complex
111
How is the kinin system activated?
Clotting factor XII
112
What are 3 cells that store histamine?
Mast cells, platelets, basophils
113
Where is serotonin stored?
Platelets
114
When is serotonin released?
Platelet aggregation
115
What substance do phopholipases convert phospholipids into?
Arachidonic acid
116
What eicosanoids are produced when cyclooxygenases act on arachidonic acid?
Prostaglandins, prostacyclins, thromboxanes
117
What is the difference between prostacyclins and thromboxanes?
Prostacyclins inhibit clotting through vasodilation, and thromboxanes promote clotting by activating platelets
118
What eicosanoids are produced when lipoxygenases act on arachidonic acid?
leukotrienes, 5-HETE
119
What do leukotrienes cause?
Vasoconstriction, vascular permeability
120
What does 5-HETE aid in?
Chemotaxis
121
Name 5 kinds of cells that produce cytokines
1. Mast cells 2. Endothelial cells 3. Macrophages 4. Granular cells 5. Lymphocytes
122
Name 4 sites stimulated by cytokines
1. Endothelium 2. Hypothalamus 3. Liver 4. Fibroblasts
123
What are 2 functions of fever?
Increase metabolism, promote WBC activity
124
What 3 factors do macrophages produce in chronic inflammation?
1. Proteolytic enzymes 2. Thromboplastin 3. Angiogenesis factors
125
What is the term for an accumulation of macrophages/toxins, surrounded by leukocytes, and collagen?
Granuloma
126
What is the term for the stage of scarring when the tissue pulls the wound margins together?
Contraction
127
What is the term for the stage of scarring when the scar tissue matures and loses vascularity?
Cicatrization
128
What kind of wound healing involves gauze packing?
Healing by second intention
129
What kind of wound healing is also called delayed/secondary closure?
Healing by third intention
130
What is the term for scar tissue forming around a blood vessel?
Stenosis
131
What is the term for a wound rupturing due to insufficient collagen production?
Dehiscence
132
Are phagocytes part of innate immunity or adaptive immunity?
Innate immunity
133
Which cells live in every organ and carry out regular low level removal of foreign material?
Histiocytes
134
Where do T cells live?
Lymphoid tissue, blood
135
Which T cells are responsible for antigen recognition and destruction?
Cytotoxic T cells
136
Which T cells recognize antigens and release cytokines to promote lymphocyte activity?
Helper T cells
137
Which T cells help regulate the immune system, and prevent tissue graft rejection and autoimmunity?
Suppressor T cells
138
Which lymphocytes secrete antibodies and bind antigens?
B cells
139
What two kinds of cells do B cells turn into?
Plasma cells and memory B cells
140
What component of antibodies allow them to bind almost any antigen?
Variable fragments
141
Which immunoglobulin is the largest and first antibody produced?
IgM (Macroglobulin)
142
Which immunoglobulin is the strongest and most common antibody?
IgG (Gammaglobulin)
143
Which immunoglobulin is found in body fluids like sweat, saliva, mucus, tears, and breast milk?
IgA
144
Which immunoglobulin is mostly found in the upper respiratory tract?
IgD
145
Which immunoglobulin is normally bound to mast cells, and activated in allergic reactions or parasitic infections?
IgE
146
What are the 3 phases of the complement system?
1. Recognition 2. Complement fixation (cascade) 3. Complex attack formation (lysis)
147
What are 3 other functions of complement?
1. Chemoattractant 2. Opsonins 3. Stimulate histamine release
148
What does immunization do to B cells?
Converts them to memory cells
149
What is the purpose of white pulp in the spleen?
Stores white blood cells and plasma
150
What is the purpose of red pulp in the spleen?
Stores blood reserve
151
Name 3 functions of the spleen
1. Blood reserve 2. Breaks down old RBCs 3. Stores monocytes to be mobilized
152
What is the difference between primary and secondary immune deficiencies?
Primary deficiencies are congenital, secondary deficiencies are due to exogenous factors
153
What kind of treatment is used for HIV/AIDS?
Antiretroviral therapy
154
What happens after an HIV virus binds to a cell?
Releases RNA
155
What happens to HIV RNA after it is released into a cell?
Converted to HIV DNA
156
What happens to HIV DNA once it is converted?
Integrates into cell nucleus
157
What happens after the HIV DNA is integrated into the cell nucleus?
Transcription of HIV proteins
158
What happens to HIV proteins after they are produced?
Packaged and released as a new virus
159
What type of hypersensitivity is also called an allergic reaction?
Type I hypersensitivity
160
What is the term for a histaminic local allergic reaction?
Atopy
161
What causes a delayed, severe allergic reaction?
Eicosanoids, smooth muscle
162
What medications can treat anaphylaxis?
Corticosteroids, beta 2 adrenergic agonists
163
What type of hypersensitivity is also called autoimmune disorder?
Type II hypersensitivity
164
What causes autoimmune disorder? (the mechanism)
IgG or IgM bind to connective tissue cells, leading cytotoxic T cells to destroy self tissues
165
What is the term for masses of antibodies and antigens bound together?
Immune complexes
166
What kind of hypersensitivity results from imbalanced antigens and antibodies?
Type III hypersensitivity
167
What kind of hypersensitivity results from resistant intracellular bacteria, causing chronic phagocytosis of self tissues?
Type IV hypersensitivity
168
What are 5 causes of autoimmune disorders?
1. Molecular mimicry 2. Chemical alteration of self antigen 3. Exposure to hidden self antigen 4. Prior infection 5. Congenital
169
Why is type I diabetes mellitus considered an autoimmune disorder?
Results from autoimmune destruction of pancreatic Islets of Langerhans
170
Why is insulin needed in the body?
1. Allow glucose uptake by muscles and liver 2. Prevent glucose overload in kidneys 3. Prevent hypoglycemia through storage of glucose
171
What is the term for the system of glycoproteins bound to the cell membrane?
Major histocompatibility complex
172
What are the 2 components of an antigen?
1. The cell's major histocompatibility complex 2. Protein fragment from pathogen
173
What kind of cells are activated by the major histocompatibility complex?
Killer T cells